professional Flashcards

1
Q

The obligation to help the patient—to remove harm, prevent harm, and promote good (“do no harm”). Acting in the patient’s best interest. Compassionate patient care. The core principle in patient advocacy. Examples:

Educating patient with a new prescription about how to take the medication
Encouraging a patient to stop smoking and enroll in smoking cessation program
Prescribing or advocating for effective postoperative pain medication

A

Beneficience

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2
Q

The obligation to avoid harm. Protecting a patient from harm. Example: A patient with osteoporosis wants to be treated with bisphosphonates. The nurse practitioner (NP) advises that the patient is not a good candidate for these drugs because of a past medical history of gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding and peptic ulcer disease (PUD). The NP decides not to prescribe bisphosphonates.

A

Nonmaleficence

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3
Q

The obligation to act in a way that is useful to or benefits the majority.

A

Utilitarianism

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4
Q

The obligation to maintain trust in relationships.

A

Fidelity

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5
Q

describes situations in which one person interferes with or overrules the autonomy of another. In healthcare, it occurs when a provider or family member makes decisions for an elderly patient because they “believe” that it is in the patient’s best interest. The opinion (or desire) of the patient is minimized or ignored. The patient is “powerless.”

A

Paternalism

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6
Q

he obligation to present information honestly and truthfully. In order for patients to make an informed and rational decision about their healthcare, pertinent information (including “bad” news) should not be withheld or omitted. Example: The mammogram result of a 64-year-old female patient is highly indicative of breast cancer. The patient’s adult son does not want his mother to know about the results. The NP has a duty to discuss the mammogram results with the patient and refer her to a breast surgeon.

A

Veracity

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7
Q

A person who acts as an intermediary (or as a liaison) between the patient and an organization (long-term care facilities or nursing homes, hospitals, governmental agencies, courts). The ombudsman investigates and mediates the complaint from both sides and attempts to reach a fair conclusion.

A

ombudsman

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8
Q

An individual who is assigned by a court (and has the legal authority) to act in the best interest of the ward. The ward is usually a person who is a child or someone who is frail or vulnerable. Adults who are incompetent may be assigned a guardian ad litem by the court.

A

Guardian Ad Litem

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9
Q

is the organization that does the processing of claims and administrative work for another company (health insurer, health plan, retirement plan).

A

What is a Third-party Administrator?

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10
Q

NPs receive their “right to practice” from the

A

state legislature

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11
Q

insurance will cover claims only if the NP is still enrolled with the same insurance company at the time the claim is filed in court.

A

claims based malpractice

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12
Q

occurrence type malpractice

A

will cover a lawsuit in the future even if the NP no longer carries the policy, as long as the NP had an active policy during the alleged incident.

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13
Q

Tail coverage insurance will cover the NP for malpractice claims that

A

claims that may be filed against them in the future.

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14
Q

he IRB’s most important role is to

A

protect the rights of the human subjects enrolled in a study.

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15
Q

Assent refers to

A

minors because they legally cannot give consent

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16
Q

Variable that is being manipulated and is used to influence the dependent variable.

A

independent variable

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17
Q

This is the result of the manipulation of the independent variable.

A

dependent variable

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18
Q

mean is the

A

averagem

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19
Q

median is the

A

number in the middle

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20
Q

N is the

A

total number of subjects This letter indicates the total size of the population.

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21
Q

n is the

A

subgroup the number of subjects in the subpopulation.

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22
Q

Ability of a screening test to correctly identify a person with the disease.

A

sensitivity

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23
Q

Ability of a screening test to correctly identify a person without the disease.

A

specificity

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24
Q

Immunity to a disease developed either through vaccination or by infection.

A

active immunity

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25
Q

Immunity to a disease after receiving antibodies (immunoglobins) from another host. Example: Colostrum from breastfeeding gives the neonate antibodies from the mother.

A

passive immunity

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26
Q

A baseline level of a particular disease in a population.

A

endemic

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27
Q

Rapid increase of a disease in a population that involves a large number of people.

A

epidemic

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28
Q

Gender symbols

A

Gender Symbol Description
Healthy male □ Empty square
Diseased male ■ Filled square
Healthy female ○ Empty circle
Diseased female ● Filled circle
Death ⧄ Diagonal dash across a symbol

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29
Q

The oncology nurse practitioner (NP) sees a new patient who is 85 years old. The patient is recently diagnosed with stage 4 metastatic cancer and speaks only Farsi. The NP calls for a certified medical Farsi interpreter to interpret during the office visit. The patient’s adult child states that the interpreter is not needed and that they are capable of interpreting correctly for their parent. The NP’s commitment to using a certified medical translator is most closely related to which ethical concept?

A.Veracity
B.Nonmaleficence
C.Beneficence
D.Justice

A

Answer: A. Veracity

The NP has an obligation to use the certified medical translator to ensure that the diagnosis and treatment plan are communicated truthfully to the patient in a manner they can understand. Veracity is the NP’s responsibility to present information truthfully and honestly. Nonmaleficence is the obligation to protect the patient from harm. Beneficence is the obligation to promote good and act in the patient’s best interest. Justice is the duty to act fairly and without bias.

30
Q

Meta analysis is the fist/systemic review

A

top reviews

31
Q

levels of evidence

A

1 meta analysis
2 controls
3 editorials - opinion

32
Q

quasi experimental

A

no random

33
Q

random control

A

placebo get but random

34
Q

validity is the

A

actual accuracy of adult

35
Q

autosomal dominant

A

50 percent chance

36
Q

autosomal receptive

A

requ both parents to be carriers child has a 25% having illness

37
Q

social hx ask about

A

relationship, sexual, live with, education, alchol , employed, social support , exercise

38
Q

medicaid is funded at

A

federal and state

39
Q

Hitech act

A

mandated that we all have Electronic medical records

40
Q

COBRA

A

allows pt to have access to healthcare when left job same insurance

41
Q

health belief model

A

person will change health due to possible risk in health

42
Q

Transitional model is to

A

prevent readmission to hospitals

43
Q

The nurse practitioner is participating in a research study group. She is examining data from multiple studies about the same topic. Which of the following types of research is this?

Incorrect

A.
Randomized control trials

B.
Editorials

C.
Case studies

D.
Meta-analysis

A

The correct answer is meta-analysis. Meta-analysis and systematic reviews are the highest tier of evidence in research. These are the reviews that put together multiple studies that have already been done. The second tier is all the “c’s” like case studies, cohorts, and cross studies, and finally editorials or opinion pieces are the lowest tier of evidence.

44
Q

what organization requires NPI numbers for NP’s

A

The balanced budge act

45
Q

Which organization has established standards that help the nurse practitioner determine which clinical actions fall under the scope of nursing practice?

A.American Nurses Association
B.National League for Nursing
C.International Council of Nurses
D.National Council of State Boards of Nursing

A

American Nurses Association.

The American Nurses Association (ANA) has established standards of clinical nursing practice that define the specific and unique activities of nurses. Standards serve as protection for the nurse, the client, and the institution where healthcare is given. The National Council of State Boards of Nursing has nurse practice acts, which define state-specific guidelines for nurses to practice. The National League for Nursing is a national organization for faculty nurses and leaders in nurse education. The International Council of Nurses is a federation of more than 130 national nurses associations.

46
Q

Nurse practitioners and clinical nurse specialists derive their legal right to practice from:

A.The nurse practice act in the state where they practice
B.The laws of the state where they practice
C.The Medicare statute
D.The board of nursing in the state where they practice

A

Answer: A. The nurse practice act in the state where they practice

The nurse practice act is a statute enacted by the legislature of each state. The act delineates the legal scope of the practice of nursing within the geographic boundaries of the jurisdiction. The purpose of the act is to protect the public. The state board of nursing is the agency that enforces the nurse practice act. The Medicare statute provides the funds for paying for health services for those age 65 years and older.

47
Q

A 78-year-old patient with advanced heart failure has a document that outlines their specific wishes regarding life-sustaining treatments, including preferences about cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), mechanical ventilation, and artificial nutrition. This document, signed by both the patient and their physician, provides medical orders to guide the healthcare team in accordance with these wishes. Which term best describes this document?

A.Living will
B.Durable power of attorney for healthcare
C.Do not resuscitate (DNR) order
D.Physician Orders for Life Sustaining Treatment (POLS

A

Answer: D. Physician Orders for Life Sustaining Treatment (POLST)

A POLST is a medical order that outlines a patient’s preferences regarding treatments at the end of life. It is signed by both the patient (or their surrogate) and the physician, and it provides specific instructions about life-sustaining treatments. A living will is a legal document that outlines a person’s wishes regarding medical treatments if they become unable to communicate their decisions, but it does not take the form of a physician’s order. Durable power of attorney for healthcare designates another person (an agent or proxy) to make healthcare decisions on behalf of the patient if they become incapacitated. It does not provide specific medical orders like the POLST. A DNR is a medical order that states that no attempts should be made to revive a patient if they stop breathing or if their heart stops beating. While it is a specific medical order, it does not encompass the broader range of treatment preferences that a POLST does.

48
Q

Which type of leader shares decisions and activities with group participants?

A.Democratic
B.Authoritarian
C.Laissez-faire
D.Situational

A

Answer: A. Democratic

Democratic leadership is characterized by equality among the leader and other participants. Decisions and activities are shared. Authoritarian leadership, also known as autocratic leadership, is a leadership style characterized by individual control over all decisions and little input from group members. Laissez-faire leadership, also known as delegative leadership, is a type of leadership style in which leaders are hands-off and allow group members to make the decisions. Situational leadership is not based on a specific skill of the leader; instead, the leader modifies the style of management to suit the requirements of the organization.

49
Q

According to evidence-based medicine (EBM) experts, which of the following types of research provides the highest level of evidence?

A.Meta-analysis
B.Randomized controlled trial (RCT)
C.Cohort study
D.Expert opinion

A

Answer: A. Meta-analysis

Meta-analyses and systematic reviews offer the highest level of evidence. The ranking of types of research is as follows: (1) meta-analysis, (2) RCT, (3) cohort study, and (4) expert opinion.

50
Q
A
51
Q

Which of the following definitions describes the term “epidemic”?

A.Rapid increase of a disease in a population that involves a large number of people
B.Resistance to a disease in a large number of people in a population
C.Baseline level of a particular disease in a population
D.Rapid increase of a disease that occurs over a very large area (several countries or continents)

A

Answer: A. Rapid increase of a disease in a population that involves a large number of people

Epidemic is the rapid increase of a disease in a population that involves a large number of people. A pandemic is the rapid increase of a disease (epidemic) that occurs over a very large area (several countries or continents). Endemic is the baseline level of a particular disease in a population, and herd immunity is the resistance to a disease in a large number of people in a population.

52
Q

According to evidence-based medicine (EBM) experts, which of the following types of research has the lowest ranking?

A.Randomized controlled trial (RCT)
B.Experimental study
C.Cohort study
D.Editorial

A

Answer: D. Editorial

Editorials and professional society opinions are considered the lowest level of evidence because they are subjective and not based on research. The ranking of types of research is as follows: (1) RCT, (2) experimental study, (3) cohort study, and (4) editorial.

53
Q

Which type of evidence identifies, selects, and analyzes multiple research articles concerning a health condition, disease, or other health-related topic?

A.Meta-analysis
B.Cohort study
C.Systematic review
D.Case series

A

Answer: C. Systematic review

A systematic review is a literature review that identifies, selects, and analyzes multiple research articles concerning a health condition, disease, or other health-related topic. A meta-analysis is a statistical method that combines data from multiple studies (systematic review), resulting in higher statistical power and a single conclusion. A case series is a collection of case reports (a case report is the report of one patient with a disease or an unusual condition) that features multiple individuals who are given similar treatment. A cohort study is used to investigate risk factors and causes of disease. An example of a cohort study is the Framingham Study.

54
Q

Which of the following definitions describes the term specificity?

A.Ability of a screening test to correctly identify a person with a disease
B.Probability that a person with a negative test result does not have the disease
C.Degree of certainty in a sampling method
D.Ability of a screening test to correctly identify a person without a disease

A

Answer: D. Ability of a screening test to correctly identify a person without a disease

Specificity measures the ability of a screening test to correctly identify a person without a disease. It is often confused with sensitivity, which measures the ability of a screening test to correctly identify a person with a disease. Negative predictive value is the probability that a person with a negative test result does not have the disease, and confidence interval measures the degree of certainty in a sampling method.

55
Q

What is the best description of a variable?

A.It is an important part of every research study.
B.It is the probability that a factor is important for the research data.
C.It is the value or number that occurs the most frequently.
D.It is a condition, characteristic, or factor that is being measured.

A

Answer: D. It is a condition, characteristic, or factor that is being measured.

A variable is a condition, characteristic, or factor that is being measured. An independent variable is the one being manipulated that is not affected by the others. A dependent variable changes depending on the manipulation of the independent variable.

56
Q

The research symbol that is used to indicate the “total population” in a research study is:

A.n
B.N
C.P
D.α

A

Answer: B. N

The correct symbol to indicate the total number of subjects in a study (total population) is N. For example, if a research study has a total number of subjects or total population of 100, then N = 100. The lower-case letter n is used to indicate a subpopulation. For example, if a study uses a total population of N = 100 that is divided into two groups of 50 subjects, then n = 50. The letter p is used to indicate p-value. The symbol α denotes the significance level.

57
Q

Which of the following is an example of how the “utilitarian” principle is applied?

A.Helping a patient decide among the various types of treatment that are available for their condition
B.Using limited financial resources for programs that help the most people and have the lowest possible negative outcomes
C.Minimizing the possible poor outcomes when offering treatment choices to a patient
D.Being more careful when using healthcare financial resources for any purpose

A

Answer: B. Using limited financial resources for programs that help the most people and have the lowest possible negative outcomes

Generally, the utilitarian principle refers to societal programs that will affect or benefit the largest number of people in a positive manner. It is not used to refer to an individual person.

58
Q

The oncology nurse practitioner (NP) sees a new patient who is 85 years old. The patient is recently diagnosed with stage 4 metastatic cancer and speaks only Farsi. The NP calls for a certified medical Farsi interpreter to interpret during the office visit. The patient’s adult child states that the interpreter is not needed and that they are capable of interpreting correctly for their parent. The NP’s commitment to using a certified medical translator is most closely related to which ethical concept?

A.Veracity
B.Nonmaleficence
C.Beneficence
D.Justice

A

Answer: A. Veracity

The NP has an obligation to use the certified medical translator to ensure that the diagnosis and treatment plan are communicated truthfully to the patient in a manner they can understand. Veracity is the NP’s responsibility to present information truthfully and honestly. Nonmaleficence is the obligation to protect the patient from harm. Beneficence is the obligation to promote good and act in the patient’s best interest. Justice is the duty to act fairly and without bias.

59
Q

An 83-year-old patient is newly diagnosed with atrial fibrillation with a CHADSVASc score of 2. The patient has a history of multiple gastrointestinal bleeds requiring transfusions, falls with injury, and reports of 6+ alcoholic drinks per day. The nurse practitioner (NP) will have a discussion with the patient about reducing their high bleeding risk before considering starting anticoagulation for stroke prevention. The NP is demonstrating which ethical concept?

A.Justice
B.Nonmaleficence
C.Utilitarianism
D.Confidentiality

A

Answer: B. Nonmaleficence

Nonmaleficence is the obligation to protect the patient from harm. Starting anticoagulation for stroke prevention in a patient with a high bleeding risk could potentially cause harm. There should be discussion of the risk/benefits with the patient and how to minimize harm before proceeding with anticoagulation. Justice is the duty to act fairly and without bias. Utilitarianism is the obligation to act in a way that benefits the majority. Confidentiality is the obligation to protect the patient’s private health information

60
Q

What is a required provision of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) signed into law in the United States in 1996?

A.Patients are not allowed to request corrections to their medical records.
B.Healthcare providers have up to 60 days to provide a patient with a copy of their medical records if requested.
C.Mental health providers can refuse to provide patients with a copy of their medical records.
D.Patient consent is not required for a new outside medical office to request medical records.

A

Answer: C. Mental health providers can refuse to provide patients with a copy of their medical records.

Mental health providers are allowed to refuse a patient access to their medical records, and mental health records require a separate consent form for release of those records. Patients are allowed to correct their medical records, and patient consent is always required to release medical records to a new office. Healthcare providers must provide medical records to the patient within 30 days of the request.

61
Q

Which type of leader shares decisions and activities with group participants?

A.Democratic
B.Authoritarian
C.Laissez-faire
D.Situational

A

Answer: A. Democratic

Democratic leadership is characterized by equality among the leader and other participants. Decisions and activities are shared. Authoritarian leadership, also known as autocratic leadership, is a leadership style characterized by individual control over all decisions and little input from group members. Laissez-faire leadership, also known as delegative leadership, is a type of leadership style in which leaders are hands-off and allow group members to make the decisions. Situational leadership is not based on a specific skill of the leader; instead, the leader modifies the style of management to suit the requirements of the organization.

62
Q

Which is a true statement regarding claims-based malpractice insurance policies?

A.If the insurance company’s lawyer finds the nurse practitioner (NP) negligent, it is the NP’s responsibility to pay for the claim.
B.Claims against the NP are covered as long as the NP had an active malpractice policy at the time of the incident.
C.Claims against the NP are usually paid if the NP is found not to be negligent.
D.Claims against the NP are covered if both the incident and the claim happen when the policy is still active.

A

Answer: D. Claims against the NP are covered if both the incident and the claim happen when the policy is still active.

As long as the NP has been paying the premiums to keep a claims-based policy active, the NP will be covered for any incident that occurs during that time. When the NP stops paying the premiums for a claims-based malpractice insurance policy, it is no longer active.

63
Q

The nurse practitioner is discussing the transmission and patterns of a specific disease with a public health official in the community. The official notes that the disease consistently affects a stable number of individuals in this particular region, without showing significant spikes in cases. The disease is not widespread across countries or globally. What term describes the distribution of this disease?

A.Pandemic
B.Epidemic
C.Endemic
D.Hyperendemic

A

Answer: C. Endemic

Endemic refers to the consistent presence and/or usual prevalence of a disease or infectious agent in a population within a specific geographic area without importation from outside. The description provided by the public health official points to the disease’s consistent presence in the community, making it endemic. A pandemic relates to an epidemic that has spread over several countries or continents, usually affecting a large number of people. An epidemic is a sudden increase in the number of cases of a disease above what is normally expected in that population in that area. Hyperendemic refers to a disease that is constantly present at a high incidence and/or prevalence rate and affects all groups equally

64
Q

Nurse practitioners and clinical nurse specialists derive their legal right to practice from:

A.The nurse practice act in the state where they practice
B.The laws of the state where they practice
C.The Medicare statute
D.The board of nursing in the state where they practice

A

Answer: A. The nurse practice act in the state where they practice

The nurse practice act is a statute enacted by the legislature of each state. The act delineates the legal scope of the practice of nursing within the geographic boundaries of the jurisdiction. The purpose of the act is to protect the public. The state board of nursing is the agency that enforces the nurse practice act. The Medicare statute provides the funds for paying for health services for those age 65 years and older.

65
Q

Which organization has established standards that help the nurse practitioner determine which clinical actions fall under the scope of nursing practice?

A.American Nurses Association
B.National League for Nursing
C.International Council of Nurses
D.National Council of State Boards of Nursing

A

Solution: A

American Nurses Association.

The American Nurses Association (ANA) has established standards of clinical nursing practice that define the specific and unique activities of nurses. Standards serve as protection for the nurse, the client, and the institution where healthcare is given. The National Council of State Boards of Nursing has nurse practice acts, which define state-specific guidelines for nurses to practice. The National League for Nursing is a national organization for faculty nurses and leaders in nurse education. The International Council of Nurses is a federation of more than 130 national nurses associations.

66
Q

A 78-year-old patient with advanced heart failure has a document that outlines their specific wishes regarding life-sustaining treatments, including preferences about cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), mechanical ventilation, and artificial nutrition. This document, signed by both the patient and their physician, provides medical orders to guide the healthcare team in accordance with these wishes. Which term best describes this document?

A.Living will
B.Durable power of attorney for healthcare
C.Do not resuscitate (DNR) order
D.Physician Orders for Life Sustaining Treatment (POLST)

A

Answer: D. Physician Orders for Life Sustaining Treatment (POLST)

A POLST is a medical order that outlines a patient’s preferences regarding treatments at the end of life. It is signed by both the patient (or their surrogate) and the physician, and it provides specific instructions about life-sustaining treatments. A living will is a legal document that outlines a person’s wishes regarding medical treatments if they become unable to communicate their decisions, but it does not take the form of a physician’s order. Durable power of attorney for healthcare designates another person (an agent or proxy) to make healthcare decisions on behalf of the patient if they become incapacitated. It does not provide specific medical orders like the POLST. A DNR is a medical order that states that no attempts should be made to revive a patient if they stop breathing or if their heart stops beating. While it is a specific medical order, it does not encompass the broader range of treatment preferences that a POLST does.

67
Q

A nurse practitioner is being sued for malpractice in a court of law. What elements must be established to prove that malpractice or negligence has occurred? Select all that apply.

A.Subpar staffing
B.Breach of duty
C.Causation
D.Damages
E.Misrepresentation

A

Solution: B, C and D

Breach of duty, Causation and Damages.

Elements of liability are duty, breach of duty, causation, and damages. Subpar staffing can contribute to medical errors but is not considered an element of liability. Misrepresentation occurs in fraud.

68
Q

Which of the following statements is correct regarding certification for nurse practitioners?

A.Certification is granted by state boards of nursing.
B.Certification dictates the scope of practice within the United States.
C.Certification grants the ability to practice within a state.
D.Certification is obtained through a nongovernmental entity

A

Answer: D. Certification is obtained through a nongovernmental entity.

Certification is obtained through a nongovernmental entity such as a professional nursing association or specialty organization. State boards of nursing have the power to license and discipline nurses, but not to grant nurse practitioner certifications. While scope of practice is heavily influenced by the specific certification, scope within each state is ultimately dictated by state legislatures through state nurse practice acts. The right to practice is obtained through licensure, not through certification.

69
Q

The nurse practitioner is reviewing a research article to determine if a new hypertension medication has a statistically significant effect on lowering blood pressure. In the study, the term “p-value” is frequently mentioned. What does a p-value primarily indicate in the context of this research?

A.Probability that the observed results are due to chance alone
B.Percentage of patients who benefited from the medication
C.Average reduction in blood pressure among study participants
D.Number of participants in the study

A

Answer: A. Probability that the observed results are due to chance alone

A p-value in research primarily indicates the probability that the observed results, or more extreme results, are due to chance alone. In other words, it provides a measure of evidence against a null hypothesis. If the p-value is below a predetermined threshold (often 0.05), the effect is considered statistically significant. Depending on the context of the study, an upper-case or lower-case N can be used to represent the number of participants in a study. In this specific scenario, the researchers may have assigned variables to represent reduction in blood pressure and percentage of patients, but there are no standard statistical variables to represent those elements.

70
Q

Which statement is true regarding a medical malpractice trial?

A.The plaintiff claims that injury or damage could have resulted from malpractice.
B.The discovery phase determines damages after judgment is given.
C.The defendant has the burden of proof.
D.The plaintiff must prove that a breach of duty occurred.

A

Answer: D. The plaintiff must prove that a breach of duty occurred.

In a malpractice trial, the plaintiff must prove that a breach of duty occurred and that the direct outcome was injury and damage. The potential for injury is insufficient. The discovery phase, which includes the gathering of evidence and expert opinion, occurs after the lawsuit is filed but before the trial. The burden of proof lies with the plaintiff, not with the defendant.