Boards Health promotion Flashcards

1
Q

A 38-year-old female patient comes to the clinic for a routine checkup. She has a body mass index (BMI) of 24 and a 20 pack-year history of smoking. The patient has no family history of cancer. Based on U.S. Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF) guidelines, what should the patient be screened for?

A.Colorectal cancer
B.Lung cancer
C.Type 2 diabetes
D.Depression

A

depression

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2
Q

Which of the following factors may decrease the risk for childhood obesity?

A.Early introduction of solid foods
B.Exclusive formula feeding during the first 6 months
C.Young maternal age at birth
D.Breastfeeding

A

breastfeeding during first 6 months of life is believed to be associated iwth a lower risk of childhood obesity

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3
Q

What information would the nurse practitioner include when discussing recommendations for routine colorectal cancer screening to a men’s wellness group?

A.Patients should have a carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) test after age 60 years.
B.Beginning at 30 years of age, patients are recommended to schedule a proctosigmoidoscopy.
C.High-sensitivity fecal occult blood test (FOBT) should begin at age 45.
D.Capsule colonoscopy should be used every 10 years starting at age 40.

A

Solution: C

High-sensitivity fecal occult blood test (FOBT) should begin at age 45.

High-sensitivity fecal occult blood test (FOBT) beginning at age 45 is the correct screening recommendation. The carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) test can help monitor response to treatment and detect metastasis or recurrence in patients who have received treatment for colorectal cancer. A screening proctosigmoidoscopy would not be appropriate at 30 years of age. If a capsule colonoscopy is selected as the screening tool, it is repeated every 5 years.

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4
Q

The human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine prevents which strains of HPV?

A.16 and 18
B.6 and 11
C.31 and 33
D.52 and 58

A

16 and 18

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5
Q

A 11-year-old patient comes to the clinic for a school physical examination. If the patient requires no catch-up immunizations, which of the following vaccinations should the nurse practitioner recommend at this visit?

A.DTaP, IPV, HepB, rotavirus
B.DTaP, Hib, pneumococcal, HepA
C.Tdap, IPV, MMR, varicella
D.Tdap, HPV, meningococca

A

Answer: D. Tdap, HPV, meningococcal

The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommend the Tdap, HPV, and meningococcal vaccines at age 11 to 12 years. The patient should also receive an annual influenza vaccine, and the nurse practitioner should assess COVID-19 immunization status to determine whether initial immunization or booster is appropriate.

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6
Q

A 72-year-old female patient is seen by the nurse practitioner (NP) for a routine physical exam. When discussing preventive screenings, which recommendation will the NP make regarding breast cancer screening?

A.Breast cancer screenings are no longer indicated due to patient age.
B.An MRI of the breast should be done every 2 years.
C.A mammogram should be completed yearly.
D.A mammogram should be completed every other year.

A

Answer: D. A mammogram should be completed every other year.

Current recommendations suggest that patients between the ages of 50 and 74 years should obtain a mammogram to screen for breast cancer every other year. Yearly mammograms are no longer recommended. The age at which screening may cease in the absence of other risk fastors is age 75 years. The evidence is currently insufficient to recommend the use of adjunctive screening methods such as ultrasound or MRI as a routine screening.

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7
Q

The family nurse practitioner is assessing an older adult patient using the Stopping Elderly Accidents, Deaths, & Injuries (STEADI) initiative algorithm called the Algorithm for Fall Risk Assessments & Interventions. Which documentation is representative of moderate risk?

A

the pt has fallen in teh past year without injury, gait and balance deficits present
Any patient with gait, balance, or sensory deficits is considered moderate or high risk, regardless of fall history. A patient with gait, balance, or sensory deficits who has not fallen, or a patient who has fallen one time without injury is classified as moderate risk. A patient who has fallen once with injury or fallen two or more times is considered at high risk. Only patients without gait and balance issues without a history of falls are classified as low risk and may need further evaluation with other assessment tools. A patient who had concerns about falling but did not exhibit any balance or ambulation problems would be considered at low risk.

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8
Q

Which plan for care will the nurse practitioner discuss with the parent of a 4-month-old infant whose initial dose of rotavirus vaccine is unknown?

A.Restart the dosing series
B.Administer a booster dose
C.Maintain a two-series dose
D.Default to a three-series dose

A

Default to a three-series dose.

If an infant is receiving Rotarix, a dosage is administered at 2 and 4 months of age. If the infant has received rotavirus live RotaTeq, the infant will receive three doses, one at 2, 4, and 6 months of age. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommends that if any treatment in the series of rotavirus vaccination is either RotaTeq or unknown, the practitioner will default to a three-series dose. Restarting the dosing series is not specific to the recommendations of the CDC. Restarting or maintaining a two-dosing series is not recommended.

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8
Q

A patient from eastern Europe presents for follow-up of tuberculosis (TB) exposure. Upon completing the health history, it is revealed the patient received the bacillus Calmette–Guérin (BCG) vaccine as a child. What is the best method to determine if the patient was exposed to TB?

A.Purified protein derivative (PPD) skin test
B.Interferon gamma release assay (IGRA) blood test
C.Chest x-ray
D.Sputum culture

A

Solution: B

Interferon gamma release assay (IGRA) blood test.

If a patient has been vaccinated with bacillus Calmette–Guérin (BCG), the gold standard to evaluate if they have been exposed to TB is the interferon gamma release assay (IGRA) blood test. A purified protein derivative (PPD) test may cause a false positive reaction. There is no need for a chest x-ray or sputum culture until positive symptoms or a positive test is present.

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9
Q

The nurse practitioner is speaking with the parent of a 10-year-old patient about car safety. What seating position would the NP identify as safest for the child?

A.Front passenger seat
B.Rear seat, center position
C.Rear seat, behind the driver
D.Rear seat, behind the front passenger

A

Answer: B. Rear seat, center position

Rear seat, center position is the safest seating position for a child in a vehicle. Placing a child in the front passenger seat exposes them to airbag risks. Rear seat positions behind the driver and behind the front passenger may have less protection in the event of a side impact. The center position in the rear seat provides the greatest distance from potential impact areas.

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10
Q

A 5-year-old child has received the DTaP, IPV, and influenza vaccines. What additional immunization is recommended for this child?

A.Hepatitis A
B.Rotavirus
C.MMR
D.PPSV

A

MMR.

Per the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommendations, a child between the ages of 4 to 6 years should receive the DTaP, IPV, MMR, varicella, and influenza vaccines. The rotavirus vaccine series must be started by age 6 weeks and completed by age 32 weeks. The hepatitis A vaccine is administered only to individuals who are at a high risk for developing the illness.

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11
Q

A nurse practitioner (NP) received the Bacillus Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine 10 years ago while working in an area with endemic tuberculosis (TB). Which test should the NP undergo for routine TB screening?

A.Chest x-ray
B.Mantoux test
C.Acid-fast bacilli culture
D.Interferon-gamma release assay

A

Answer: D. Interferon-gamma release assay

Individuals who have received a prior BCG vaccine may have a false-positive TB skin test (Mantoux) and should be screened using an alternate method. The interferon-gamma release assay (TB blood test) is preferred for screening as it does not result in false positives with prior vaccination. Chest x-rays can be completed to follow up on a positive interferon-gamma release assay but are not generally recommended as the preferred screening for latent TB. Acid-fast bacilli cultures are completed from sputum samples of patients with suspected or known TB, but these would not detect latent TB in a screening capacity.

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12
Q

During a well visit, the parent of a 6-year-old patient reports that the child drinks “two to three glasses” of fruit juice per day. What should the nurse practitioner respond?

A.”Stop giving your child juice. It has no nutritional benefit.”
B.”That amount is fine as long as it’s 100% fruit juice.”
C.”At this age, your child shouldn’t drink more than 12 ounces of juice per day.”
D.”I would suggest cutting back to no more than 6 ounces per day.”

A

Answer: D. “I would suggest cutting back to no more than 6 ounces per day.”

The American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP) recommends that daily consumption of fruit juice be limited to 4 ounces in children age 1 to 3 years, to 6 ounces in children age 4 to 6 years, and to 8 ounces in children 7 years and older. The AAP suggests that fruit juice not be given to any child younger than 1 year. While fruit juice offers no nutritional benefit over whole fruit and usually lacks the fiber provided by the latter, it is not true that it lacks nutritional value. However, juice increases the risk for tooth decay and may promote a preference for sweetened beverages over water. Beverages that are 100% fruit juice are preferred over “juice drinks,” which may contain significant amounts of added sugar, but the patient’s consumption of juice would still be considered excessive.

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13
Q

A 2-month-old patient presents for a scheduled well-child visit. The patient was born at 33 weeks’ gestation and was successfully treated for intussusception shortly after birth. The caregiver mentions that the infant had a mild fever and a runny nose a few days ago but appears better now. Today’s examination reveals a healthy infant with normal vital signs. Which of the following scheduled immunizations would be contraindicated at this visit?

A.Rotavirus vaccine (RV)
B.Diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis vaccine (DTaP)
C.Haemophilus influenzae type b vaccine (Hib)

A

Answer: A. Rotavirus vaccine (RV)

The RV is contraindicated for infants with severe combined immunodeficiency or a history of intussusception. Preterm birth and recent mild illness are not contraindications to routine immunizations.

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14
Q

A 5-year-old child has received the DTaP, IPV, and influenza vaccines. What additional immunization is recommended for this child?

A.Hepatitis A
B.Rotavirus
C.MMR
D.PPSV

A

Solution: C

MMR.

Per the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommendations, a child between the ages of 4 to 6 years should receive the DTaP, IPV, MMR, varicella, and influenza vaccines. The rotavirus vaccine series must be started by age 6 weeks and completed by age 32 weeks. The hepatitis A vaccine is administered only to individuals who are at a high risk for developing the illness.

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15
Q

A pediatric patient presents with symptoms of respiratory distress, wheezing, and hives shortly after exposure to a potential allergen. Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is most likely occurring?

A.I
B.II
C.III
D.IV

A

Answer: A. I

Respiratory distress, wheezing, and hives are consistent with a type I hypersensitivity reaction—an immediate allergic response involving Immunoglobulin E (IgE) antibodies. Type II reactions occur following drug intake or blood transfusion. Type III reactions include systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid arthritis, and serum sickness; symptoms may include joint pain and swelling, rashes, fever, and kidney damage. Symptoms of type IV hypersensitivity reactions include skin rashes and inflammation.

16
Q

The nurse practitioner has prescribed oral pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP) to a patient who expresses concern about starting a homosexual relationship with a new partner. Which of the following would be an appropriate follow-up plan for this patient?

A.Complete blood count (CBC) every 3 months
B.HIV testing every 6 months
C.Serum creatinine in 3 months
D.Annual pregnancy testing

A

Solution: C

Serum creatinine in 3 months.

Several monitoring tests are required with pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP) use. A serum creatinine level should be checked 3 months after initiation; subsequent creatinine measurements should be based on individual risk. CBC monitoring is not indicated. HIV testing should be performed every 3 months, and pregnancy should be assessed anytime there is a possibility or concern.

17
Q

Q. A patient in a correctional facility has been newly diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB). While creating the treatment plan, the nurse practitioner notes a history of hypertension and cataracts. What regimen of anti-TB agents is contraindicated for this patient?

A.Isoniazid, rifampin, ethambutol, pyrazinamide
B.Isoniazid, levofloxacin, pyrazinamide, cyclosporine
C.Isoniazid, rifampin, ethionamide, pyrazinamide
D.Isoniazid, rifampin, levofloxacin, pyrazinamide

A

Solution: A

Isoniazid, rifampin, ethambutol, pyrazinamide.

A patient with a history of vision problems, such as blindness, cataracts, or glaucoma, should not be prescribed ethambutol, as it causes optic neuritis. All the other medication regimens would be appropriate to initiate.

18
Q

A 46-year-old African American male with no family history of prostate cancer presents to the clinic for an annual wellness visit. Which prostate cancer screening tool is recommended for this patient?

A.Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test
B.Transurethral ultrasound
C.Digital rectal examination (DRE)
D.No screening indicated

A

Solution: D

No screening indicated.

Risk factors for prostate cancer include age older than 50 years, African American race, obesity, and positive family history. The US Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF) no longer recommends routine prostate cancer screening (digital rectal exam with PSA). African American race with no other risk factors would not warrant referral for more advanced screening. A prostate biopsy, guided by a transurethral ultrasound, is performed to confirm a suspected diagnosis of prostate cancer.

19
Q

A 6-month-old patient is brought to the primary care clinic for a well-child visit. While reviewing the immunization history, the nurse practitioner notes that the patient is due for the third dose of DTaP. The caregiver reports that after the second dose of DTaP, the infant developed a swollen leg in the place where the vaccine was given and experienced an elevated temperature of 105°F (40.6°C). No other reactions were noted, and the patient recovered without complications within 48 hours. Given this history, what is the most appropriate approach to the third dose of DTaP?

A.Administer the third dose of DTaP as scheduled
B.Delay the third dose of DTaP until the infant is 12 months old
C.Replace the third dose of DTaP with an alternative vaccine
D.Omit the third dose of DTaP and continue with the remaining immunization schedule

A

Answer: D. Omit the third dose of DTaP and continue with the remaining immunization schedule

An infant who has experienced a temperature of 105°F (40.6°C) or higher within 48 hours after receiving a DTaP vaccine is advised not to receive further doses of the DTaP vaccine. This is considered a precaution, not a contraindication. While the fever might not be directly related to the vaccine, the severity of the fever in this age group makes it prudent to proceed with caution. Thus, it is recommended to omit the third dose of DTaP and continue with other scheduled immunizations. It is always important to discuss the benefits and risks with caregivers and to monitor the infant’s overall health and immunity.

20
Q

What is the most common cause of unintentional injury-related death in children younger than 1 year?

A.Suffocation
B.Drowning
C.Falls
D.Burns

A

Answer: A. Suffocation

Suffocation is the most common cause of unintentional injury-related death in children younger than 1 year. Risk of suffocation can be reduced by removing pillows, stuffed animals, and blankets from the crib; placing the infant on its back to sleep; and avoiding sleeping in the same bed as the infant. Drowning, falls, and burns may be significant causes of injury in children, but they are not the leading cause of death in this specific age group.

21
Q

A 72-year-old female patient is seen by the nurse practitioner (NP) for a routine physical exam. When discussing preventive screenings, which recommendation will the NP make regarding breast cancer screening?

A.Breast cancer screenings are no longer indicated due to patient age.
B.An MRI of the breast should be done every 2 years.
C.A mammogram should be completed yearly.
D.A mammogram should be completed every other year.

A

Answer: D. A mammogram should be completed every other year.

Current recommendations suggest that patients between the ages of 50 and 74 years should obtain a mammogram to screen for breast cancer every other year. Yearly mammograms are no longer recommended. The age at which screening may cease in the absence of other risk fastors is age 75 years. The evidence is currently insufficient to recommend the use of adjunctive screening methods such as ultrasound or MRI as a routine screening.

22
Q

A patient with a pre-pregnancy body mass index of 30.5 is pregnant with twins. What is the recommended weight gain range (in lb) for the patient during pregnancy?

A.11 to 20
B.25 to 42
C.37 to 54
D.50 to 62

A

Answer: B. 25 to 42

The recommended weight gain range for a patient pregnant with twins and with a pre-pregnancy body mass index in the “obese” category is 25 to 42 lb. A gain of 11 to 20 lb would be appropriate if the patient were pregnant with one fetus. Patients pregnant with twins and who have pre-pregnancy body mass indices in the “normal” or “underweight” categories should be advised to gain 37 to 54 lb or 50 to 62 lb, respectively.

23
Q

A nurse practitioner (NP) received the Bacillus Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine 10 years ago while working in an area with endemic tuberculosis (TB). Which test should the NP undergo for routine TB screening?

A.Chest x-ray
B.Mantoux test
C.Acid-fast bacilli culture
D.Interferon-gamma release assay

A

Answer: D. Interferon-gamma release assay

Individuals who have received a prior BCG vaccine may have a false-positive TB skin test (Mantoux) and should be screened using an alternate method. The interferon-gamma release assay (TB blood test) is preferred for screening as it does not result in false positives with prior vaccination. Chest x-rays can be completed to follow up on a positive interferon-gamma release assay but are not generally recommended as the preferred screening for latent TB. Acid-fast bacilli cultures are completed from sputum samples of patients with suspected or known TB, but these would not detect latent TB in a screening capacity.

24
Q

In addition to recommending skin testing of the family members of a patient diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB), to what additional agency or individual is the nurse practitioner required to report the diagnosis?

A.Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
B.Local health department
C.Employer’s infection-control nurse
D.Patient’s primary care provider

A

Solution: B

Local health department.

The local health department must be informed of all tuberculosis (TB) diagnoses because it is a reportable disease. The local health department will inform the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). It would be inappropriate for the nurse practitioner to share the diagnosis with the patient’s employer. The local health department will perform contact tracing and notify those who are affected. Generally, the patient or family can inform their healthcare provider of the diagnosis; this is not the implied responsibility of the nurse practitioner.

25
Q
A