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Rad tech subjects > Procedures Lower Limb review for final exam > Flashcards

Procedures Lower Limb review for final exam Flashcards

1
Q

How many metatarsals are on one foot?

A

5

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2
Q

How many tarsals on one foot?

A

7

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3
Q

Total number of bones on one foot?

A

26

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4
Q

How many phalanges on one foot?

A

14

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5
Q

It is palpable and common site of foot trauma

A

Tuberosity on the Base of 5th metatarsal

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6
Q

The longest and strongest tarsal bone

A

Calcaneus

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7
Q

Joint found between the talus and calcaneus

A

Talocalcaneal joint or subtalar joint

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8
Q

Small opening found in the middle of the talocalcaneal joint where nerves and blood vessels pass through

A

Sinus tarsi

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9
Q

Tarsal bone that forms an aspect of the ankle joint

A

Talus

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10
Q

Smaller cuneiform

A

Intermediate cuneiform

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11
Q

Largest cuneiform

A

Medial cuneiform

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12
Q

Articulates with second, third, and fourth metatarsal

A

Lateral cuneiform

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13
Q

The most superior tarsal bone

A

Talus

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14
Q

Which cuneiform Articulates with first metatarsal?

A

Medial cuneiform

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15
Q

Common site for bone spur

A

Calcaneus

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16
Q

Second largest tarsal bone

A

Talus

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17
Q

The Calcaneus articulates with what two tarsals?

A

Talus and cuboid

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18
Q

What are the two arches of the foot?

A

Longitudinal and transverse

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19
Q

Which three bones make up the ankle joint

A

Talus Fibula Tibia

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20
Q

The distal tibial joint surface forming the roof of the distal ankle joint is called

A

Tibial plafond

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21
Q

The ankle joint is classified as a synovial joint with what type of movement

A

Sellar

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22
Q

Weight bearing bone of the leg

A

Tibia

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23
Q

Small, triangular depression located on the tibia that forms distal tibiofibular joint

A

Fibular notch

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24
Q

The articular facet of proximal tibia is also referred to as

A

Tibial plateau

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25
Q

The articular facets slope how many degrees posteriorly

A

10-15 degrees

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26
Q

Name the 3 articular facets

A

Posterior, middle, anterior

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27
Q

The medial proximal aspect of the calcaneus has a large, prominent bony process called…

A

Sustentaculum tali

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28
Q

The most proximal aspect of fibula or the head of the fibula articulates with______

A

Lateral condyle. ( inferior part )

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29
Q

The extreme distal end of fibula

A

Lateral malleolus

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30
Q

The extreme distal end of tibia

A

Medial malleolus

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31
Q

Name of the largest sesamoid bone

A

Patella

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32
Q

What are two other names for the patellar surface of the femur

A

Torchlear groove or intercondylar sulcus

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33
Q

The name of the depression located between the condyles of the posterior aspect of distal femur

A

Intercondylar fossa or notch

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34
Q

Why is the CR angled 5-7 degrees cephalad for lateral knees

A

Because the medial condyle extends lower than the lateral condyle of the femur. The angle superimposes the condyles

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35
Q

The slightly raised area located on the posterolateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle is called

A

Adductor tubercle

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36
Q

What are the two palpable bony landmarks found on the distal femur

A

Medial and lateral epicondyles

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37
Q

The general region of the posterior knee is called

A

Popliteal region

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38
Q

For which large muscle does the patella serve as a pivot to increase leverage

A

Quadriceps femoris muscle

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39
Q

The circular fibrocartilage discs or pads that lie on the tibial plateau’s are called the______

A

Menisci

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40
Q

When the ASIS to tabletop measurement is greater than 24 cm, the central ray angulation for an AP knee is—-

A

5 degrees cephalad

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41
Q

Which anatomical part must be identified on a lateral radiograph of the knee in order to identify over or under rotation?

A

Adductor tubercle

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42
Q

Why is it a disadvantage to over flex the knee for a lateral projection?

A

The patella is drawn into the intercondylar sulcus

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43
Q

What is the position of the femoral condyles when the leg is properly positioned for an AP projection?

A

Parallel to the IR

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44
Q

The proximal end of the tibia presents two prominent processes called the:

A

Condyles

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45
Q

In order to place the patella parallel with the plane of the IR for APA projection the heel must be rotated_________degrees _________

A

5 to 10, Laterally

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46
Q

An inflammatory condition involving the anterior, proximal tibia usually occurs in boys 10-15 years old.

A

Osgood-schlatter disease

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47
Q

Also known as osteitis deformans; non-neoplastic bone disease that disrupts new bone growth resulting in over production of very dense yet soft bone

A

Paget’s disease

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48
Q

Malignant tumor of the cartilage

A

Chondrosarcoma

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49
Q

Inherited type of arthritis that commonly affect males; Uric acid appears in excessive quantities in the blood. Common initial attacks occur in first MTP joint

A

Gout

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50
Q

Benign, neoplastic bone lesion caused by overproduction of bone at a joint

A

Exostosis

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51
Q

Benign bone lesion usually developing in teens or young adults

A

Osteoid osteoma

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52
Q

Most prevalent primary bone malignancy in pediatric patients

A

Ewing’s sarcoma

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53
Q

Benign, neoplastic bone lesion filled with clear fluid

A

Bone cyst

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54
Q

Injury to large ligament located between the bases of the first and second metatarsal

A

Lisfranc joint injury

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55
Q

Condition affecting the sacroiliac joints and lower limbs of young men, especially the posterosuperior margin of the calcaneus

A

Reiter’s syndrome

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56
Q

The formal name for runners knee

A

Chondromalacia patellae

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57
Q

What is another term for osteomalacia

58
Q

Asymmetric erosion of joint spaces with calcaneal erosion

A

Reiter’s syndrome

59
Q

Uric acid deposits in joint spaces

60
Q

Well circumscribed lucency

61
Q

Small, round/oval density with Lucent center

A

Osteoid osteoma

62
Q

Narrowed, irregular joint surfaces with sclerotic articular surfaces

A

Osteoarthritis

63
Q

Fragmentation or detachment of the tibial tuberosity

A

Osgood-Schlatter disease

64
Q

ill-defined area of bone destruction with surrounding “onion peel”

A

Ewing’s sarcoma

65
Q

Decreased bone density and bowing deformities of weight bearing limbs

A

Osteomalacia

66
Q

Why is the CR angled 10-15 degrees toward calcaneus for AP projection of toes

A

Opens IP joints and MTP joints

67
Q

CR centered for projection of foot

A

Base of 3rd metatarsal

68
Q

Which projection is best for sesamoid bones of the foot

A

Tangential projection

69
Q

Rotation can be determined on an AP foot by near equal distance between __________ metatarsals

70
Q

Why should CR be perpendicular to the metatarsals for AP of foot

A

Opens up MTP joints and certain intertarsal joints

71
Q

Which oblique projection of the foot best shows majority of tarsal bones

A

AP oblique with medial rotation

72
Q

Which projection will place the foot into a true lateral position

A

Lateromedial

73
Q

Which type of study is best for longitudinal arches of the foot

A

AP and lateral weight bearing

74
Q

How should the CR be angled for axial projection of calcaneus

A

40 degrees cephalad

75
Q

Which calcaneal structure should appear medically on a well positioned plantodorsal axial projection

A

Sustentaculum tali

76
Q

Where is CR placed for mediolateral projection of calcaneus

A

1 inch inferior to medial malleolus

77
Q

How much should the foot and ankle be rotated for an AP mortise

A

15-20 degrees medial rotation

78
Q

Which projection of the ankle best demonstrates a possible fracture of lateral malleolus

A

AP oblique with medial rotation of 45 degrees

79
Q

Which projection of the ankle require forced inversion and eversion movements

80
Q

A common place for bone spurs?

A

The tuberosity of the calcaneus

81
Q

Where can you find the sustentaculum tali?

A

On the medial side of the calcaneus under the middle articular surface or facet.

82
Q

Which articular facet is provides medial support for weight bearing?

A

Middle articular facet

83
Q

The three articular facets are named ____,_____,_____,and they make up the________joint

A

Posterior, anterior, middle,. Subtalar.

84
Q

Which of the three articular facets of the subtalar joint is the largest?

A

The posterior

85
Q

A deep depression between the posterior and middle articular facets

A

Calcaneal sulcus

86
Q

Which of the tarsal bones takes the weight of the body?

A

The talus which is the second largest tarsal bone

87
Q

Which 4 bones articulate with the talus?

A

Tibia and fibula superiorly, calcaneus inferiorly, navicular anteriorly

88
Q

Which 4 bones articulate with the navicular?

A

The three Cuneiforms anteriorly and the talus posteriorly.

89
Q

Which Cuneiform is the smallest?

A

Intermediate

90
Q

Which 4 bones articulate with the cuboid?

A

The calcaneus proximally, Cuneiform medially, and the fourth and fifth metatarsal’s distally. (sometimes the navicular)

91
Q

The inferior parts of the Tibia and fibula form a deep socket or a three sided opening called___________.

92
Q

If you were to look at a picture of the ankle joint internally rotated 15° you would see that the ________fits into the __________.

A

Top of the talus , mortise

93
Q

In what position are the lateral and medial malleoli in a true lateral?

A

In a true lateral ankle the lateral malleolus is 1 cm or 1/2 an inch posterior to the medial malleolus

94
Q

How many degrees must the leg and ankle be rotated to bring the malleoli parallel to the IR?

A

15-20 degrees

95
Q

Why are AP stress views done of the ankle joint?

A

To evaluate the stability of the mortise joint space.

96
Q

Which bone does the patellar ligament attach to?

97
Q

What 2 joints are part of the knee?

A

Femorotibial and patellofemoral

98
Q

The proximal fibula articulates with the femur in one way…..via the _____________.

A

Fibular lateral collateral ligament. Because of this proximal fibula not part of the actual knee joint

99
Q

What are the 4 major knee ligaments?

A

MCL, PCL, ACL, LCL

100
Q

The two collateral ligaments are ______and ________and they prevent _____________at the knee

A

LCL and MCL. Adduction and abduction

101
Q

2 cruciate ligaments are _________and ___________and they prevent ___________

A

PCL and ACL Anterior or posterior movement

102
Q

What ligament sits in front of the infra patellar fat pad and protects the anterior knee joint?

A

The patellar ligament

103
Q

Which projections are performed for toes?

A

AP. Oblique. Lateral. And sesamoids tangential which is a special

104
Q

What projections are done for the foot?

A

AP. Oblique and lateral AP/lat wt bearing for special

105
Q

What projections are done for calcaneus?

A

Plantodarsal (axial). And lateral

106
Q

What projections are done for the ankle?

A

AP. AP mortise. Lateral. And 45 degree oblique AP stress for special

107
Q

What projections are done for tib/fib?

A

AP. Lateral

108
Q

What projections are done for the knee?

A

AP, oblique, lateral. Special: AP or pa wt bearing Pa axial wt bearing (Rosenberg)

109
Q

Which projections are done to see the intercondylar fossa of the knee?

A

AP axial Beclere method PA axial- camp Coventry and homblad

110
Q

Which projections are done to see the patella and femoropatellar joint?

A

PA Tangential ( merchant) Lateral Tangential- inferosuperior proj- hughston, settegast, Hobbs

111
Q

what term describes the top or anterior surface of the foot?

112
Q

where would the interphalangeal joint be found in the foot?

A

between the phalanges of the first digit

113
Q

what structure or bone contains the sustentaculum tali

114
Q

where is the adductor tubercle located?

A

on the posterior aspect of the medial femoral condyle

115
Q

how much CR angle should be used for in AP axial projection of the toes? ( if any)

A

10 to 15° toward calcaneus

116
Q

if the fibular head appears less superimposed by the tibia than a true lateral in a lateral knee radiograph it is said to be……______

A

over rotated toward the IR

117
Q

to properly see the joint spaces with the AP projection of the foot the CR must be:

A

perpendicular to the metatarsals

118
Q

which joint surfaces of the ankle joint are open with a true AP projection of the ankle?

A

medial and superior

119
Q

how much angle is used with a mortise ?

A

15 to 20°

120
Q

what is the major disadvantage of using a 45° flexion for the lateral projection of the knee?

A

draws the patella into the Intercondylar sulcus

121
Q

how much flexion of the knee is recommended for the lateral projection of the patella?

A

5 to 10° or less

122
Q

how much flexion of the knee is required for settegast method?

A

90 degrees

123
Q

in an AP ankle projection what joint spaces should be open?

A

superior and medial joint spaces

124
Q

The posterior visibility of the adductor tubercle on a lateral knee projection indicates:

A

under rotation of the knee toward the IR

125
Q

how much flexion of the knee is required for settegast method?

A

90 degrees

126
Q

in an AP ankle projection what joint spaces should be open?

A

superior and medial joint spaces

127
Q

The posterior visibility of the adductor tubercle on a lateral knee projection indicates:

A

under rotation of the knee toward the IR

128
Q

which projection of the Intercondylar fossa would provide the best results without injuring a patient who is unsteady.

A

Camp Coventry method

129
Q

which projections best demonstrates signs of Osgood schlatter disease?

A

AP and lateral knee

130
Q

what projection of the patella requires the patient to be placed in a prone position a 45° flexion of the knee and a 15 to 20° angle of the CR

A

Hughston method

131
Q

which position would clearly demonstrate the cuboid

A

AP oblique in medial rotation

132
Q

what is the position of the femoral condyle’s when the leg is properly positioned for AP projection?

A

they are parallel to the Ir

133
Q

The central ray angle for a lateral knee is…

A

5 to 7° cephalad

134
Q

what projection best shows narrowing of a joint space?

A

AP of both knees with weight-bearing

135
Q

what are the two flat like superior surfaces of the tibia

A

Tibial plateaus 10 degree

136
Q

and evulsion fracture of the base of the fifth metatarsal Is also called a_______fx

137
Q

what projections best demonstrate Lisfranc joint injuries?

A

Weight bearing foot series

138
Q

what is another name for osteomalacia?

139
Q

what is the radiographic hallmark of Reiters syndrome seen in young men?

A

erosion of the Achilles tendon insertion

140
Q

what is another term for Osteochondroma?

141
Q

True or false: a correctly positioned lateral ankle will show the lateral malleolus superimposed over the posterior half to posterior third of the tibia

142
Q

List the joints of the feet

A

DIP PIP MTP TMT IP

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