Private Checkride Oral

Question 1

Documents required on board an aircraft prior to flight? 14 CFR 91.203, 91.9

Answer 1

ARROW

A- Airworthiness Certificate (does not expire so long as the aircraft conforms to its type and is safe to operate)

R- Registration (valid for 3 years from issuance, expires on last day of month issues)

R- Radio Operators Permit (needed for travel outside of the US)

O- Operating Limitations (POH/AFM)

W- Weight & Balance

Compas divination card
External data plate

Question 2

What are the required tests and inspections to be performed on aircraft?

Answer 2

AV1ATE

A- annual inspection

A- airworthiness directives and life-limited parts complied with as required

V- VOR equipment check (every 30 days for IFR ops)

1- 100hr inspection

A- Altimeter and static systems test (for IFR ops) every 24 calendar months

T- Transponder test and inspection, every 24 calendar months

E- ELT inspection, every 12 months

Question 3

Can a pilot legally conduct flight operations with known in operative equipment on board?

Answer 3

Yes, under specific conditions. 14 CFR part 91 describes acceptable methods for the operation of an aircraft with certain in operative instruments and equipment that are not essential for safe flight they are:

A. Operation of an aircraft with a minimum equipment list (MEL) is authorized by 14 CFR 91.213 (a)

B. Operation of an aircraft without a MEL under 14 CFR 91.213 (d)

Question 4

What instruments and equipment are required for VF our day flight 14 CFR 91.205

Answer 4

A TOMATO FLAMES

A: Anti-collision lights

T: Tachometer
O: Oil pressure gauge
M: Manifold pressure gauge
A: Altimeter
T: Temperature gauge for each liquid cooled engine
O: Oil temperature gauge for each air cooled engine

F: Fuel gauge
L: Landing gear position indicator
A: Airspeed indicator
M: Magnetic compass
E: Emergency locator transmitter ELT
S: Safety belts

Question 5

What instruments and equipment are required for VFR night flight?

Answer 5

FLAPS

F: Fuses - one spare set or three fuses of each kind required accessible to the pilot in flight

L: Landing light - if the aircraft is operated for hire

A: Anti-collision light system

P: Position lights

S: Source of electrical energy

Question 6

Define “preventative maintenance”

Answer 6

14 CFR part 43 appendix A, paragraph C — identifies typical preventative maintenance operations which include such basic items as oil changes, we will bearing lubrication, hydraulic fluid refills.

Question 7

What is a “trough”

Answer 7

Is an elongated area of relatively low atmospheric pressure. At the surface when air converges into a low, it cannot go out word against the pressure gradient, Noor can’t go down word into the ground: it must go upward. Therefore a low or trough is an area of rising air. Rising air is conducive to cloudiness and precipitation; has a general association of low pressure and bad weather.

Question 8

Explain the difference between a stable atmosphere and an unstable atmosphere. Why is the stability of the atmosphere important?

Answer 8

The stability of the atmosphere depends on its ability to resist vertical motion. A stable atmosphere makes vertical movement difficult, and small vertical disturbance is damp and out and disappear. In an unstable atmosphere, small vertical air movements tend to become larger, resulting in turbulent airflow and convective activity. Instability can lead to significant turbulence, extensive vertical clouds, and severe weather.

Question 9

What action is recommended if you inadvertently encounter icing conditions?

Answer 9

The first course of action should be to leave the area of visible moisture. This might mean to send into an altitude below the clown faces, climbing to an altitude above the cloud tops, or turning to a different course.

Question 10

What factors must be present for a thunderstorm to form?

Answer 10

Sufficient water vapor, an unstable lapse rate, and initial upward boost to start the storm process in motion.

Question 11

Name several types of fog:

Answer 11

Radiation fog, advection fog, upslope fog, frontal fog or precipitation - induced fog, steam fog.

Question 12

What causes radiation fog to form?

Answer 12

The ground cools the adjacent air to the dewpoint on calm, clear nights.

Question 13

What is advection fog and where is it most likely to form?

Answer 13

Advection fog results from the transport of warm humid air over a cold surface. A pilot can expect advection fog the form primarily a long coastal areas during the winter. Unlike radiation fog, it may occur with winds, cloudy skies, over a wide geographic area, and at anytime of the day or night.

Question 14

What is upslope fog?

Answer 14

Upslope fog forms as a result of moist, stable air being cooled adiabatically as it moves up sloping to terrain. Once the upslope wind ceases, the fog dissipates. Upslope fog is often quite dense and extends to high altitudes.

Question 15

What are the different types of AIRMETs?

Answer 15

There are three airman types: Sierra, tango, and Zulu.

A. Sierra describes IFR conditions and/or expensive mountain obscurations.

B. Tango describes moderate turbulence, sustain surface winds of 30 kn or greater, and/or non-conductive low level wind shear.

C. Zulu describes moderate icing and provides freezing level heights.

Question 16

Air density is affected by which factors?

Answer 16

Air density is affected by pressure, temperature and humidity

Question 17

For what two reasons is load factor in Porten to pilots?

Answer 17

A. because of the obvious Lee dangerous overload that it is possible for a pilot to impose on the aircraft structure

B. Because And increase load factor increases the stalling speed and make styles possible at seemingly safe flight speeds

Question 18

What causes an airplane to stall?

Answer 18

The direct cause of every stall is an excessive angle of attack. Each airplane has a particular angle of attack for the airflow separates from the upper surface of the wing in the stall occurs. This critical angle of attack varies from 16° to 20° depending on the airplanes design, but each airplane has only one specific angle of attack or the stockers, regardless of airspeed, weight, load factor, or density altitude.

Question 19

When are spins most likely to occur?

Answer 19

a. Engine failure on takeoff during climb out
b. Crossed control turn from base to final
c. Engine failure on approach to landing
d. Go around with full nose up trim
e. Go around with improper flap retraction

Question 20

What causes “adverse yaw”?

Answer 20

When turning an airplane to the left for example, the downward deflected aileron on the right produces more lift on the right wing. Since the downward deflected right aileron produces more lift, it also produces more drag, while the opposite left aileron has less lift and less drag. This added drag attempts to pull the airplanes nose in the direction of the raised wing (right) that is, it tries to turn the airplane in the direction opposite to that desired. This undesired veering is referred to adverse yaw.

Question 21

What effect does a forward center of gravity have on an aircraft’s flight characteristics?

Answer 21

Higher stall speed, slower cruise speed, more stable, greater back elevator pressure required.

Question 22

What effect does a real word center of gravity have on an aircraft flight characteristics?

Answer 22

Lower stall speed, higher cruise speed, less stable.

Question 23

What four strokes must occur in each cylinder of a typical four stroke engine in order for it to produce for power?

Answer 23

Intake, compression, power, exhaust.

Remember: suck, squeeze, bang, blow

Question 24

What does the carburetor do?

Answer 24

Carburetion may be defined as the process of mixing fuel and air in the correct proportions so as to form a combustible mixture. The carburetor vaporizers liquid fuel into small particles and then mixes it with air. It measures the airflow and meters fuel accordingly.

Question 25

How does the carburetor heat system work?

Answer 25

The carburetor heat valve, controlled by the pilot, allows unfiltered, heated air from a shroud located around an exhaust riser or muffler to be directed to the induction air manifold prior to the carburetor. Carburetor heat should be used anytime suspected or known carburetor icing conditions exist.

Question 26

What change occurs to the fuel/air mixture when applying carburetor heat?

Answer 26

Normally, the induction of heated air into the carburetor will result in a richer mixture. Warm air is less dense, resulting in less air for the same amount of fuel. The use of carburetor heat can cause a decrease in engine power of up to 15%.

Question 27

Archer electrical system

Answer 27

The archer is equipped with a 28 V DC electrical system and a 24 V lead acid battery. Electrical power is supplied by 70 amp, engine driven alternator. A voltage regulator maintains a constant 28 V output from the alternator.

Question 28

Archer engine

Answer 28

The archer is equipped with a Lycoming, four-cylinder, 0-360 (opposed, 360 cubic inch) engine rated at 180 hp at 2700 RPM. The engine is direct drive (crankshaft connected directly to the propeller), horizontally opposed (pistons oppose each other), piston driven, carbureted and normally aspirated (No turbo or super charging). Engine ignition is provided through the use of two engine driven magnetos, which are independent of the aircraft electrical system and each other.

Remember LHAND

Question 29

What conditions are favorable for carburetor icing?

Answer 29

Carburetor ice is most likely to occur when temperatures are below 70°F (21°C)and the relative humidity is above 80%. However due to the sudden cooling that takes place in the carburetor, icing can occur even with temperatures as high as 100°F (38°C)and humidity as low as 50%. This temperature drop can be as much as 60° to 70°F.

Question 30

Define true airspeed

Answer 30

CAS corrected for altitude and non-standard temperature; the speed of the airplane in relation to the air mass in which it is flying.

Question 31

What instruments operate off the pitot/static system?

Answer 31

Altimeter, Vertical speed indicator, and airspeed indicator.

Question 32

What instruments contain gyroscopes?

Answer 32

The turn coordinator, the heading indicator, the attitude indicator.

Question 33

Magnetic compass errors: Acceleration error

Answer 33

On East or west headings, while accelerating, the magnetic compass shows a turn to the north, and when decelerating it shows a turn to the south.

Remember ANDS

A ccerlerate
N orth
D ecelerate
S outh

Question 34

Magnetic compass errors: northerly turning error

Answer 34

The compass leads in the south half of a turn, and lags in the north half of a turd.

Remember: UNOS

U ndershoot
N orth
O vershoot
S outh

Question 35

AHRS

Answer 35

Attitude and heading reference system. Composed of three axis sensors that provide heading, attitude, and yaw information for aircraft. AHRS are designed to replace traditional mechanical gyroscopic flight instruments and provide superior reliability and accuracy.

Question 36

ADC

Answer 36

Air data computer. An aircraft computer that receives and processes pitot pressure, static pressure, and temperature to calculate precise altitude, indicated airspeed, true airspeed, vertical speed, and air temperature.

Question 37

During a preflight briefing, will the FSS prefer automatically provide a pilot with GPS NOTAMs?

Answer 37

No. You must specifically request GPS/WAAS NOTAMs

Question 38

If it becomes apparent that you cannot locate your position, what action is recommended at this point?

Answer 38

The FAA recommends the use of “for C’s”

Climb, communicate, confess, comply.

Question 39

14 CFR 91.103

Answer 39

Pilots must familiarize themselves with all available information concerning that flight, including runway lengths at airports of intended use, and takeoff and landing distance data under existing conditions.

Question 40

What is the order of right of way as applied to the different categories of aircraft?

Answer 40

Remember BGAAR (BIG “R”)

Balloons 
Gliders 
Airships 
Airplanes 
Rotorcraft

Question 41

What is the minimum safe altitude that an aircraft may be operated over a congested area of the city?

Answer 41

1000 feet above the highest obstacle with in a horizontal radius of 2000 feet of the aircraft

Question 42

If the aircraft radio fails in flight under VFR while operating into a tower control the airport, what conditions must be met before a landing may be made at the airport?

Answer 42

A. Weather conditions must be at or above a basic VFR weather minimums

B. Visual contact with the tower is maintained; and

C. A clearance to land is received

Question 43

What are the basic dimensions of class C airspace?

Answer 43

Generally consist of a five nautical mile radius core surface area that extends from the surface up to 4000 feet. And a 10 nautical mile radius shelf area that extends from 1200 feet to 4000 feet above the airport elevation. The outer area radius will be 20 nautical miles, with some variations based on site specific requirements.

Question 44

What are the “basic” VFR weather minimums required for operation of an aircraft into class B, Class C, Class D, or a class C airspace?

Answer 44

1000 foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility