Previous Exam/Kahoot Questions Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following can be used to measure aerobic exercise intensity?

a) Metabolic equivalents (METs)
b) Heart rate
c) Rating of perceived exertion (RPE)
d) All of the above

A

D)

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2
Q
  1. The amount of blood pumped around the body each minute is called the _________.
    a) Capillary load
    b) Cardiac output
    c) Stroke volume
    d) Heart rate reserve
A

B)

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3
Q
  1. Which hormone regulates the movement of glucose from the blood into cells?
    a) Glucagon
    b) Insulin
    c) Thyroxine
    d) Cortisol
A

B

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4
Q

Which of the following is a monosaccharide?

a) Galactose
b) Maltose
c) Sucrose
d) Sorbitol

A

A

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5
Q
  1. Vitamin C is also known as _________?
    a) Citric acid
    b) Pantothenic acid
    c) Linoleic acid
    d) Ascorbic acid
A

D

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6
Q

Where does most digestion of dietary carbohydrate occur?

a) Mouth
b) Stomach
c) Small intestine
d) Large intestine

A

C - (in the Duodenum)

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following is produced by bacterial fermentation in the large intestine and used for energy by the epithelial cells of the colon when dietary carbohydrate passes undigested through the small intestine?
    a) Tyrosine
    b) Butyrate
    c) Glycerol
    d) Lycopene
A

B -

Butyrate, a four-carbon short-chain fatty acid, is produced through microbial fermentation of dietary fibers in the lower intestinal tract

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8
Q
  1. Which of the following is an essential fatty acid?
    a) Arachidonic acid
    b) Eicosapentaenoic acid
    c) Alpha-Linolenic acid
    d) Stearic acid
A

C

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9
Q
  1. When prescribing exercise to enhance cardiorespiratory fitness, which of the following is the most appropriate exercise intensity for individuals that have good/excellent cardiorespiratory fitness.
    a) 40-55% of heart rate reserve
    b) 55-65% of heart rate reserve
    c) 60-75% of heart rate reserve
    d) 70-85% of heart rate reserve
A

C

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10
Q
  1. How many carbon atoms in linoleic acid?
    a) 12
    b) 14
    c) 16
    d) 18
A

D

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following dietary assessment methods involves asking participants how often they consume a specific list of food items?
    a) 24hr recall
    b) Food record
    c) Diet history
    d) Food frequency questionnaire
A

D

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following biomarkers was collected in the most recent Australian Health Survey to estimate the prevalence of iron deficiency?
    a) Fasting triglycerides
    b) Glycated haemoglobin (HbA1c)
    c) Serum folate
    d) Serum ferritin
A

D

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13
Q
  1. What is the acronym that refers to a food composition database commonly used in nutrition surveys in Australia?
    a) FSANZ
    b) AUSNUT
    c) NUTTZ
    d) NDAUS
A

B

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14
Q
  1. According to the Australian Dietary Guidelines (2013), reduced fat milks are not suitable for which age group?
    a) Pregnant women aged 20-35
    b) Children under 2
    c) Adults over 70
    d) Adolescents aged 14-19
A

B

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15
Q
  1. The current physical activity and sedentary behaviour guidelines for Australian adults recommend muscle strengthening activities on at least how many days of the week?
    a) 1
    b) 2
    c) 3
    d) 4
A

B

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16
Q
  1. What is the term given to the gradual increase in heart rate during a steady state bout of aerobic exercise?
    a) Cardiovascular slope
    b) Cardiovascular drift
    c) Coronary lag
    d) Cardiovascular span
A

B

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17
Q
  1. John’s maximum heart rate is 208 bpm and his resting heart rate is 75 bpm. What is his target heart rate when exercising at an intensity that corresponds to 65% of his heart rate reserve?
    a) 86
    b) 133
    c) 161
    d) 185
A

B

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18
Q
  1. Oleic acid is a ___________ fatty acid?
    a) Saturated
    b) Monounsaturated
    c) Polyunsaturated
    d) None of the above
A

B

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19
Q
  1. One slice of ham and pineapple pizza contains 6g fat, 30g carbohydrate and 10g protein. Approximately how many kilojoules are in one slice?
    a) 710
    b) 900
    c) 1130
    d) 1640
A

B

Remember
Fats 37kj
Carbs 17kj
Protein 17kj

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20
Q
  1. Niacin can be synthesised from which amino acid?
    a) Methionine
    b) Tryptophan
    c) Glycine
    d) Alanine
A

B

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21
Q
  1. Which of the following carotenoids is classed as provitamin A because it can be converted to retinol?
    a) Lycopene
    b) Lutein
    c) Zeaxanthin
    d) Alpha-cryptoxanthin
A

D

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22
Q
  1. Which of the following are functions of vitamin C?
    a) Synthesis of collagen
    b) Vision
    c) Fluid regulation
    d) Calcium absorption
A

A

It’s involved in many body functions, including formation of collagen, absorption of iron, the immune system, wound healing, and the maintenance of cartilage, bones, and teeth

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23
Q
  1. The condition beri beri is associated with deficiency of which vitamin?
    a) Thiamin
    b) Riboflavin
    c) Niacin
    d) Pantothenic acid
A

A

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24
Q
  1. Which of the following is most likely to be TRUE about riboflavin?
    a) Deficiency results in pellagra
    b) It is involved in calcium absorption
    c) It is highly unstable when exposed to ultra-violet light
    d) Deficiency is associated with neural tube defects
A

C

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25
Q
  1. Which of the following vitamins is essential for the formation of coenzyme A?
    a) Thiamin
    b) Riboflavin
    c) Niacin
    d) Pantothenic acid
A

D

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26
Q
  1. Which form of vitamin A is involved in vision?
    a) Retinoic acid
    b) Beta-carotene
    c) Retinal
    d) Lycopene
A

B

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27
Q
  1. How does vitamin C enhance iron absorption?
    a) Converting iron from its ferric state (Fe3+) to its ferrous state (Fe2+)
    b) Converting iron into the haem form
    c) Opening up iron transport channels in the epithelial cells of the small intestine
    d) All of the above
A

A

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28
Q
  1. Vitamin D can be synthesised in the body from which of the following lipids?
    a) Chylomicrons
    b) Oleic acid
    c) Linoleic acid
    d) Cholesterol
A

D

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29
Q
  1. Tocopherols and tocotrienols are forms of which vitamin?
    a) A
    b) C
    c) D
    d) E
A

E

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30
Q
  1. The current dietary guidelines and Australian guide to healthy eating recommend how many serves of vegetables for women aged 19-50?
    a) 5
    b) 6
    c) 7
    d) 8
A

A

For men, it’s 6 for 19-50 and above 50 it’s 5.5 serves

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31
Q
  1. The DASH diet was initially developed to address which condition?
    a) Obesity
    b) Stroke
    c) Type 2 diabetes
    d) Hypertension
A

D

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32
Q
  1. Russell is 184cm tall and weighs 99kg. According to his body mass index (BMI), Russell falls into which weight classification?
    a) Underweight
    b) Healthy weight
    c) Overweight
    d) Obese
A

C

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33
Q
  1. One serve of chicken curry with rice contains 15g fat, 64g carbohydrate and 23g protein. Approximately how many kilojoules are in one serve of chicken curry with rice?
    a) 1330
    b) 1680
    c) 2030
    d) 2450
A

C

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34
Q
  1. What does the term ‘basal metabolic rate’ mean?
    a) The amount of energy expended from consuming foods and drinks
    b) The amount of energy expended in normal physiological processes at rest such as
    digestion, cell transport and circulation
    c) The amount of energy expended during physical activities such as walking,
    running and cycling
    d) The increase in the amount of energy expended to fight illness and disease
A

B

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35
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding the use of short questions as a method of dietary assessment?
    a) They involve low respondent burden
    b) They provide information about food patterns
    c) They are often used in population based surveys
    d) They can provide accurate information on nutrient intake
A

D

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36
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is NOT included in the current Dietary Guidelines for Australian Adults?
    a) Care for your food: prepare and store it safely
    b) Encourage, support and promote breast feeding
    c) Limit intake of foods and drinks containing added salt
    d) Evenly distribute protein throughout the day
A

D

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37
Q
  1. Jason consumes 160g of cooked chicken breast for dinner. How many serves of meat has Jason consumed?
    a) 1
    b) 1.5
    c) 2
    d) 2.5
A

C

80g of poultry per serve
65g of red meat per serve

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38
Q
  1. How many different amino acids are incorporated into proteins in the human body?
    a) 16
    b) 20
    c) 24
    d) 28
A

B

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39
Q
  1. Muscle actions that involve the muscle lengthening while exerting force are called __________ contractions.
    a) Concentric
    b) Eccentric
    c) Isometric
    d) Hypertrophic
A

B

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40
Q
  1. Which element is found in protein, but not in fat or carbohydrate?
    a) Nitrogen
    b) Oxygen
    c) Carbon
    d) Hydrogen
A

A

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41
Q
  1. Pectin is a type of ____________.
    a) Essential amino acid
    b) Polyunsaturated fatty acid
    c) Dietary fibre
    d) Water soluble vitamin
A

C

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42
Q
  1. What percentage of a person’s body weight is typically made up of protein?
    a) 16%
    b) 33%
    c) 50%
    d) 66%
A

A

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43
Q
  1. How much energy is derived from a gram of fat?
    a) 9kJ
    b) 17kJ
    c) 29kJ
    d) 37kJ
A

D

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44
Q
  1. According to the Australian Health Survey, how many Australians aged 15 years and over reported that they were on a diet to lose weight or for other health reasons?
    a) 1 million
    b) 2.3 million
    c) 3.4 million
    d) 5.2 million
A

B

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45
Q
  1. Timothy consumes 1 cup of baked beans for breakfast. This is equivalent to how many serves of meat?
    a) 1
    b) 1.5
    c) 2
    d) 2.5
A

A

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46
Q
  1. Approximately what proportion of Australian adults consume the recommended number of serves of vegetables?
    a) 80%
    b) 50%
    c) 30%
    d) less than 10%
A

D

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47
Q
  1. According to the Australian Health Survey, what proportion of total energy was consumed from ‘discretionary foods’?
    a) 10%
    b) 35%
    c) 55%
    d) 80%
A

B

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48
Q
  1. Which method of dietary assessment is considered the most precise method available to estimate the food and nutrient intake of individuals?
    a) Diet history interview
    b) Food frequency questionnaire
    c) Weighed food records
    d) 24hr recall
A

C

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49
Q
  1. One serve of beef lasagne contains 10g fat, 56g carbohydrate and 20g protein. Approximately how many kilojoules are in one serve of beef lasagne?
    a) 1230
    b) 1660
    c) 2230
    d) 2540
A

B

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50
Q
  1. What percentage of individuals in the US National Weight Control Registry weigh themselves at least once a week?
    a) 32%
    b) 47%
    c) 75%
    d) 92%
A

C

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51
Q
  1. Oxygen consumption during endurance exercise is rarely used as a measure of exercise intensity because ____________.
    a) It is not accurate enough
    b) It requires expensive equipment
    c) It can only be conducted on elite athletes
    d) It can have harmful side effects
A

B

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52
Q
  1. Compared with a sedentary individual, an endurance athlete is likely to have which of the following?
    a) A similar maximal heart rate
    b) A lower stroke volume at rest
    c) A higher cardiac output at rest
    d) All of the above
A

A

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53
Q
  1. Which of the following types of muscle actions is most likely to cause delayed onset muscle soreness (DOMS).
    a) Concentric
    b) Eccentric
    c) Isometric
    d) Isokinetic
A

B

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54
Q
  1. The acronym FITT refers to which components of the exercise prescription?
    a) Flexibility, intensity, time, type
    b) Frequency, intensity, threshold, type
    c) Flexibility, intermittent, threshold, time
    d) Frequency, intensity, time, type
A

D

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55
Q
  1. Which of the following is an unbranched polysaccharide that is digested relatively slowly?
    a) Amylopectin
    b) Galactose
    c) Amylose
    d) Fructose
A

A

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56
Q
  1. Which of the following transport dietary fat around the body immediately after absorption?
    a) Glycerol
    b) Tryptophan
    c) Amylase
    d) Chylomicrons
A

D

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57
Q
  1. Which of the following can occur when athletes have low energy availability?
    a) Impaired menstrual function
    b) Reduced bone density
    c) Disruptions in the endocrine and immune systems
    d) All of the above
A

D

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58
Q
  1. The thin filaments in muscle are called _______.
    a) Actin
    b) Myosin
    c) Globin
    d) Adiponectin
A

A

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59
Q
  1. Completing one set of seated back rows followed immediately by one set of barbell chest press during a resistance training session is an example of ___________.
    a) Compound sets
    b) Super-setting
    c) Pre-exhaustive sets
    d) Fartlek training
A

B

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60
Q
  1. Which of the following factors influence flexibility?
    a) Age
    b) Previous injury
    c) Tissue temperature
    d) All of the above
A

D

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61
Q
  1. Steven consumes I cup of cooked carrot and half a cup of cooked broccoli with dinner. How many serves of vegetables has Steven consumed?
    a) 1.5
    b) 2
    c) 2.5
    d) 3
A

D

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62
Q
  1. Which of the following provides a good source of fluid, protein and carbohydrate for recovery after exercise?
    a) Apple juice
    b) Vegetable soup
    c) Flavoured milk
    d) Oranges
A

C

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63
Q
  1. Which of the following soft-tissue factors provides most resistance to movement?
    a) Muscle
    b) Joint capsule
    c) Tendons
    d) Skin
A

B

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64
Q
  1. What type of flexibility training involves stretching a muscle to the point of mild tension or discomfort and then holding it at that point for an extended period?
    a) Static stretching
    b) Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF)
    c) Dynamic stretching
    d) Myofascial release
A

B

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65
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes the feelings of satiation and satiety?
    a) Satiation tells us to ‘stop eating’ and satiety reminds us to ‘not start eating again’
    b) Satiation tells us to ‘commence eating’ and satiety reminds us to ‘continue
    eating’
    c) Satiation tells us to ‘continue eating’ and satiety reminds us to ‘stop eating’
    d) None of the above
A

A

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66
Q
  1. Which of the following is a gastrointestinal hormone that is involved in the regulation of food intake?
    a) Cortisol
    b) Thyroxine
    c) Noradrenaline
    d) Cholecystokinin
A

D

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67
Q
  1. Omega-3 fatty acids are named because?
    a) They have three carbon atoms
    b) They have the first double bond on the third carbon from the methyl end
    c) They have double bonds on every third carbon atom
    d) They were the third class of fatty acids to be discovered
A

B

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68
Q
  1. Approximately how much does the thermic effect of food (TEF) contribute to total energy expenditure?
    a) 10%
    b) 25%
    c) 50%
    d) 75%
A

A

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69
Q
  1. David is 188cm tall and weighs 92kg. What is the minimum number of kilograms that David would need to lose to get his body mass index (BMI) into the healthy weight rage?
    a) 4
    b) 8
    c) 10
    d) 12
A

A

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70
Q
  1. Fat stored in which area of the body is most likely to cause health problems?
    a) Arms
    b) Hips
    c) Thighs
    d) Abdomen
A

D

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71
Q
  1. Which enzyme promotes fat storage in adipose cells?
    a) Phospholipase
    b) Lipoprotein lipase
    c) Linoleic acid
    d) Adipose transferase
A

B

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72
Q
  1. What percentage of individuals in the US National Weight Control Registry exercise for at least one hour each day?
    a) 37%
    b) 55%
    c) 76%
    d) 90%
A

D

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73
Q
  1. Which of the following molecules acts as a hormone to promote negative energy balance by supressing appetite and increasing energy expenditure?
    a) Ghrelin
    b) Insulin
    c) Oxytocin
    d) Leptin
A

D

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74
Q
  1. In sports nutrition, the term ‘energy availability’ is defined as _________.
    a) Energy intake minus the energy expended in exercise
    b) Energy intake minus total energy expenditure
    c) Energy intake minus the thermic effect of feeding
    d) Energy intake minus resting energy expenditure
A

A

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75
Q
  1. Which of the following is used to measure body composition?
    a) DEXA
    b) MESA
    c) METs
    d) BXA
A

A

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76
Q
  1. Which of the following is a disaccharide?
    a) Fructose
    b) Sucrose
    c) Galactose
    d) Glucose
A

B

The others are your three main monosaccharides

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77
Q
  1. Carbohydrate ingestion during endurance exercise lasting 60 minutes or less is likely to enhance performance by which mechanism?
    a) Prevention of muscle glycogen depletion
    b) Prevention of liver glycogen depletion
    c) Sensory effects associated with carbohydrate in the mouth
    d) Increased blood glucose
A

D

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78
Q
  1. Which of the following characterises observational research in nutrition?
    a) Highly controlled experiments examining the mode of action in the biological context
    b) All studies must be conducted in a controlled human context
    c) Provision of indirect evidence on the relationships between dietary practices and
    health outcomes
    d) Provision of direct evidence of effects of food on health
A

C

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79
Q
  1. Which of the following is most likely to result in optimal endurance performance when consumed during exercise tasks lasting longer than 3 hours?
    a) 60g/hr glucose + 30g/hr fructose
    b) 90g/hr glucose
    c) 120g/hr glucose
    d) 150g/hr glucose
A

A

90g of carbs; best to have a mixture

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80
Q
  1. Fat oxidation during exercise can be as high as _____ in some individuals after adaptation to a high fat diet.
    a) 10g/hr
    b) 50g/hr
    c) 75g/hr
    d) 100g/hr
A

D

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81
Q
  1. Optimal gains in muscle mass and strength after a resistance training program are achieved when daily protein intake is approximately _______.
    a) 0.8-1.0g/kg body mass
    b) 1.2-1.4g/kg body mass
    c) 1.6-2.0g/kg body mass
    d) 2.4-2.8g/kg body mass
A

C

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82
Q
  1. Dietary carbohydrate digestion occurs by the action of which of the following enzymes?
    a) Lipase
    b) Amylase
    c) Pepsin
    d) Trypsin
A

B

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83
Q
  1. Which of the following nutrients enhance fluid retention when added to beverages consumed after exercise?
    a) Sodium
    b) Carbohydrate
    c) Protein
    d) All of the above
A

D

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84
Q
  1. What is the mechanism responsible for the ergogenic effect of dietary nitrate supplementation on endurance exercise performance?
    a) More efficient use of oxygen during exercise
    b) Buffering acid in the muscle
    c) Increasing energy substrate stores
    d) Enhancing phosphate turnover
A

A

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85
Q
  1. The association between physical activity and the risk of developing cancer is strongest for which types of cancer?
    a) Breast and endometrial
    b) Breast and colon
    c) Lung and prostate
    d) Breast and prostate
A

B

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86
Q
  1. How much of a reduction in diabetes incidence was achieved as a result of the lifestyle intervention in the diabetes prevention trial (Knowler et al., 2002)?
    a) 26%
    b) 47%
    c) 58%
    d) 73%
A

C

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87
Q
  1. What is the mechanism responsible for the ergogenic effect of beta-alanine supplementation on high intensity exercise performance?
    a) More efficient use of oxygen during exercise
    b) Buffering acid in the muscle
    c) Increasing energy substrate stores
    d) Enhancing phosphate turnover
A

B

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88
Q
  1. Exercise is defined as:
    a) any movement that works larger muscles of the body such as the arm, leg and back muscles
    b) planned, structured and repetitive bodily movement done to maintain or improve physical fitness
    c) any activity that involves competition between two or more individuals or teams
    d) the amount of energy expended during physical activity
A

B

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89
Q
  1. Cohort studies, case-control studies and non-randomised experimental trials are categorised as which level of evidence?
    a) Level I
    b) Level II
    c) Level III-2
    d) Level IV
A

C

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90
Q
  1. Flexibility training programs have been found to reduce:
    a) The risk of diabetes
    b) Blood glucose
    c) Low back pain
    d) LDL cholesterol
A

C

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91
Q
  1. Which of the following is considered to be one serve of vegetables?
    a) Half a cup of cooked zucchini
    b) One cup of lettuce
    c) Half a cup of baked beans
    d) All of the above
A

D

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92
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE about the RDI for a nutrient?
    a) The RDI is an estimate of the average requirement of the nutrient
    b) The RDI is set to be well above the average requirement of the nutrient
    c) The RDI most likely underestimates that actual requirements for the nutrient
    d) none of the above
A

B

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93
Q
  1. Which of the following is true about protein requirements of athletes?
    a) athletes don’t require additional protein compared with non-athletes
    b) athletes can require twice as much protein as non-athletes
    c) all athletes should take liquid protein supplements
    d) none of the above
A

B

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94
Q
  1. Which of the following molecules acts as a hormone to promote positive energy balance by stimulating appetite and promoting efficient energy storage?
    a) Ghrelin
    b) Cortisol
    c) Thyroxine
    d) Leptin
A

A

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95
Q
  1. The initial increase in strength seen with resistance training is primarily due to:
    a) Hypertrophy
    b) Hyperplasia
    c) Weight gain
    d) Neural factors
A

D

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96
Q
  1. The weakest level of evidence to support the use of a nutrition or exercise intervention comes from _____________.
    a) Systematic reviews of randomised controlled trials
    b) Cohort studies
    c) Pseudo-randomised controlled trials
    d) Expert opinion
A

D

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97
Q
  1. Which of the following shows the clearest dose-response relationship between physical activity and risk of early death from all causes?
    a) Intensity of physical activity
    b) Duration of physical activity
    c) Frequency of physical activity
    d) Amount of energy expended in physical activity
A

A

98
Q
  1. Early studies that initially demonstrated the relationship between physical activity and reduced risk of disease observed which population?
    a) Train workers in Paris
    b) Bus workers in London
    c) Ship workers in New York
    d) Airport workers in Amsterdam
A

B

99
Q
  1. What percentage of individuals in the US National Weight Control Registry eat breakfast every day?
    a) 62%
    b) 72%
    c) 78%
    d) 92%
A

C

100
Q
  1. What types of studies are mostly used as evidence for the benefit of physical activity in reducing the risk of cardiovascular disease?
    a) Randomised controlled trials
    b) Cohort studies
    c) Case studies
    d) None of the above
A

B

101
Q
  1. Which food is a good source of vitamin A?
    a) Capsicum
    b) Bread
    c) Salt
    d) Water
A

A

102
Q
  1. Which concept suggests that the sum of the parts of a food may have more of an effect on health than the individual components themselves?
    a) Nutrigenomics
    b) Food components theory
    c) Food synergy
    d) Nutrition balance
A

C

103
Q
  1. How much caffeine should endurance athletes consume before exercise to enhance performance?
    a) 3mg/kg
    b) 35mg/kg
    c) 100mg/kg
    d) 250mg/kg
A

C

As my tutor says; think No-Doz

104
Q
  1. Appetite is primarily controlled in which part of the brain?
    a) Frontal lobe
    b) Cerebellum
    c) Hypothalamus
    d) Occipital lobe
A

C

105
Q
  1. Which type of research is most commonly used to explain how the isolated compounds in food might act on physiological and biochemical processes?
    a) Randomised controlled trials
    b) Mechanistic research
    c) Observational studies
    d) Literature reviews
A

B

106
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a statement in the current Australian physical activity guidelines for adults?
    a) Doing any physical activity is better than doing none
    b) Be active on most, preferably all, days every week
    c) Accumulate 150-300 minutes of moderate intensity physical activity each week
    d) Do 20 minutes of vigorous exercise at least 3 days of the week
A

D

107
Q
  1. The dietary intake of which nutrient is INVERSELY associated with blood pressure?
    a) Folic acid
    b) Sodium
    c) Potassium
    d) Calcium
A

C

108
Q
  1. Which of the following dietary patterns is most associated with a reduced risk of chronic disease?
    a) The DASH diet
    b) The CSIRO Total Wellbeing Diet
    c) The Mediterranean diet
    d) The Atkins diet
A

C

109
Q
  1. According to the National Health and Medical Research Council’s reviews of the scientific evidence, intake of which food group is associated with a reduced risk of type 2 diabetes?
    a) Grains (wholegrain)
    b) Dairy and/or alternatives
    c) Fruit
    d) Meat and/or alternatives
A

A

110
Q
  1. Which food group is the largest contributor to intakes of long-chain omega-3 polyunsaturated fatty acids in the Australian diet?
    a) Fish/seafood
    b) Meat
    c) Cereals
    d) Vegetables
A

A

111
Q
  1. What is the World Health Organization’s definition of nutrition?
    a) The study of the vital biological functions of plants and animals
    b) A substance consumed as part of a meal or snack to provide energy and nutrients
    for sustaining health
    c) The intake of food, considered in relation to the body’s dietary needs
    d) The relationship between food and health
A

B

112
Q
  1. Which of the following is not considered a nutrient?
    a) Flavonoids
    b) Protein
    c) Fat
    d) Calcium
A

A

113
Q
  1. Which type of research provides direct evidence of the effects of food consumption or physical activity on health in a human context?
    a) Mechanistic research
    b) Observational study
    c) Epidemiological trial
    d) Randomised controlled trial
A

D

114
Q
  1. Which nutrition tool converts information on food into nutrients?
    a) Food composition database
    b) Nutrient reference values
    c) Dietary assessment methods such as diet histories
    d) The Australian Dietary Guidelines
A

A

115
Q
  1. Which of the following nutrients is considered the most satiating?
    a) Carbohydrate
    b) Fat
    c) Sodium
    d) Protein
A

D

116
Q
  1. What is the current name of the body which develops standards regarding the types of ingredients that can go into foods and the information that can be provided on labels?
    a) Food Standards Australia and New Zealand
    b) Australia and New Zealand Food Authority
    c) The Department of Health and Ageing
    d) The Heart Foundation
A

A

117
Q
  1. The Metabolic Equivalent (MET) approach to quantifying exercise intensity assumes that oxygen consumption at rest is ______________.
    a) 3.5ml/kg/min
    b) 5.6ml/kg/min
    c) 17ml/kg/min
    d) 42ml/kg/min
A

A

118
Q
  1. Which of the following components of physical fitness are associated with better health and improved quality of life?
    a) Cardiorespiratory fitness
    b) Muscular strength
    c) Flexibility
    d) All of the above
A

D

119
Q
  1. Urinary nitrogen can be used to assess the validity of reported intakes of which nutrient?
    a) Folate
    b) Fat
    c) Protein
    d) Sodium
A

C

120
Q
  1. Which nutrition tool provides values for nutrient intakes to support the health of most people in the population?
    a) Food composition databases
    b) Nutrient reference values
    c) The Australian Dietary Guidelines
    d) The Australian Optimal Nutrient Values
A

C

121
Q

Kahoot: A cohort study is considered to be what level of evidence?

A

III-2

122
Q

Kahoot: What is the name of a large cohort study investigating factors contributing to CVD?

A

Framingham Heart Study

123
Q

Kahoot: Which of the following is true about observational studies?

A) Provide indirect evidence
B) Provide direct evidence, but can’t explain mechanisms
C) Involve highly controlled experiments
D) Involve random allocating intointervention or control group

A

A

124
Q

Kahoot: Which life stage requires food and nutrients for growth, development and obesity prevention?

A

Childhood and adolescence

125
Q

Kahoot: Where is energy balance regulated?

A

Hypothalamus

126
Q

Kahoot: Which food groups are associated with a reduced risk of CVD?

A

Fruit, Vegetables and Dairy foods

127
Q

Kahoot: What foods are emphasised in the Mediterranean diet?

A

Olive oil vegetables, nuts and seeds

128
Q

Kahoot: According to the ‘Hungry Planet’ project, which country spends the least on food?

A

Chad

129
Q

Kahoot: Which food is typically fortified with iodine?

A

Salt

130
Q

Kahoot: What are key community sectors within nutritional health?

A

Food industry
Nutrition research
Health services

131
Q

Kahoot: Going from ___ to ___ levels of physical activity will have the biggest health benefit

A

Sedentary to low

132
Q

Kahoot: Exercise is:

A

Planned, structures and repetitive

A sub-category of physical activity

Designed to improve physical fitness

133
Q

Kahoot: The MET method of measuring exercise intensity assumes ____ oxygen at rest

A

3.5ml//kg/min

134
Q

Kahoot: MET value for walking at very brisk pace?

A

5

135
Q

Kahoot: How much can regular physical activity reduce progression to dementia and alzheimers disease?

A

50%

136
Q

Kahoot: Physical activity is more effective at reducing risk of diabetes than which drug treatment?

A

Metformin

137
Q

Kahoot: Physical activity is associated with how much of a reduction in CVD risk?

A

20-30%

138
Q

Kahoot: How much physical activity is required for the primary prevention of weight gain?

A

At least 60mins/day of moderate intensity physical activity

139
Q

Kahoot: Approximately how much time do adults spend sitting and watching TV each day?

A

7-10 hours per day sitting; 2-3 hours spent watching TV

140
Q

Kahoot: Domains of physical activity?

A

Occupation, Transport and Leisure

141
Q

Kahoot: The ___ is the highest daily nutrient intake likely to pose no adverse health effects

A

Upper Level of Intake (UI)

142
Q

Kahoot: In the Nutrient Reference Values, what does AMDR stand for?

A

Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range

143
Q

Kahoot: Which dietary pattern is associated with better health?

A

Mediterranean Diet

144
Q

Kahoot: Which diet assessment is not good for individuals with poor memory?

A

24-hour recall

145
Q

Kahoot: Short questions is an appropriate diet assessment method for…?

A

Most macronutrients and alcohol

146
Q

Kahoot: What proportion of Australians meet RDI for fruit?

A

31%

147
Q

Kahoot: What proportion of Australians meet RDI for meat?

A

14%

148
Q

Kahoot: How much physical activity is recommended for children ages 5-12 years?

A

60 mins of moderate-vigorous intensity activity each day

149
Q

Kahoot: How much use of electronic media for entertainment is recommended for young people ages 13-17?

A

No more than two hours per day

150
Q

Kahoot: Australian adults are advised to do what activity twice a week?

A

Muscle strengthening

151
Q

Kahoot: What enzymes break down CHO into molecules that can be used for energy in the body

A

Pancreatic enzymes
Bacterial enzymes
Brush border enzymes

152
Q

Kahoot: After digestion, dietary short and medium chain fatty acids are absorbed:

A

Directly into the portal circulation

153
Q

Kahoot: Trypsin is an enzyme secreted by the ___ to break down protein in the small intenstine

A

Pancreas

154
Q

Kahoot: 1g of fat provides ___kj of energy

A

37

155
Q

Kahoot: ____ is a highly branched polysaccharide which is digested and absorbed quickly

A

Amylopectin

156
Q

Kahoot: How many carbon atoms in a molecule of stearic acid?

A

18

157
Q

Kahoot: Functions of proteins in body?

A

Structure and support

Immune functions

Hormones

158
Q

Kahoot: Layman (2009) suggests that ___ protein in a meal fully stimulates muscle protein synthesis

A

30 grams

159
Q

Kahoot: Which of the following is a type of dietary fibre?

Oligosaccharides
Pectins
Fructans

A

All of them

160
Q

Kahoot: A serve of almonds (30g) contains approximately how much fat?

A

16g

161
Q

Kahoot: Beta-carotene is a precursor to which vitamin?

A

A

162
Q

Kahoot: Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome is associated with a deficiency in which vitamin?

A

Thiamin

163
Q

Kahoot: Which vitamin is highly unstable when exposed to ultra-violet light?

A

Riboflavin

164
Q

Kahoot: Which vitamin is required for the formation of coenzyme A?

A

Pantothenic acid

165
Q

Kahoot: What vitamin is essential for collagen synthesis?

A

Vitamin C

166
Q

Kahoot: What foods are good sources of folate?

A

Citrus fruits, leafy green vegetables and liver

167
Q

Kahoot: Which vitamin is only found in animal origin?

A

B12

168
Q

Kahoot: What vitmain is involved in the regulation of calcium balance in the body?

A

Vitamin D

169
Q

Kahoot: Which mineral is required for synthesis of thyroid hormones?

A

Iodine

170
Q

Kahoot: What population group has the highest requirement for iron?

A

Pregnant women

171
Q

Kahoot: ___ is the art of modifying exercise training variables from general through to specific

A

Linear periodisation

172
Q

Kahoot: What are the signs/symptoms of over-training?

A

Muscle soreness
Reduced appetite
Distributed sleep

173
Q

Kahoot: What occurs when Delayed Onset Muscle Soreness (DOMS) is experienced?

A

Reduced muscle force generating capacity

Impaired glycogen synthesis

Structural damage to the muscle

174
Q

Kahoot: What is the limitation of the 220-age formula for prediction of MHR?

A

It overestimates MHR in young people

(from qs) It doesn’t overestimate MHR in athletes or older people

175
Q

Kahoot: What is the advantage of using the Karvonen method for exercise intensity?

A

It accounts for variations in resting heart rate

176
Q

Kahoot: Training at what tempo is recommended for enhancing muscular endurance?

A

4:1:2

177
Q

Kahoot: Benefits of improving flexibility?

A

Decreased risk of low back pain

Relief from muscle cramps

Reduced stress

178
Q

Kahoot: Which of the following soft tissues contribute most to movement resistance?

A

Joint capsule (and ligaments)

179
Q

Kahoot: What method of stretching modality involves isometric holds and alternating contractions?

A

Proprioceptive neuro-muscular facilitation (PNF)

180
Q

Kahoot: Components of total daily energy expenditure?

A

Thermic effect of food
Basal metabolism
Physical activity

181
Q

Kahoot: The number of kilojoules a food provides is measured by what device?

A

A Bomb calorimeter

182
Q

Kahoot: What three main things decrease BMR?

A

Aging, fasting and malnutrition

183
Q

Kahoot: How is BMI calculated?

A

Weight divided by height squared

184
Q

Kahoot: Whose equation can be used to estimate energy requirements?

A

Schofield

185
Q

Kahoot: Which of the following is true about abdominal fat?

  • Men have more abdominal fat than women
  • It is estimated by measuring waist circumference
  • It is associated with increased risk of disease
A

All of them

186
Q

Kahoot: Lipoprotein lipase activity is most likely to be highest in which individual?

A

Obese peeps

187
Q

Kahoot: What does brown adipose tissue do?

A

Releases stored energy as heat

188
Q

Kahoot: Orlistat is a drug that can reduce body weight by ___?

A

Inhibiting fat digestion and absorption

189
Q

Kahoot: Weight loss of ____ is considered to be clinically significant

A

> 5%

190
Q

Kahoot: What mechanism is responsible for the ergogenic effect of beta-alanine suplementation?

A

Enhanced muscle buffer capacity

191
Q

Kahoot: ___ is the amount of energy available to the body after the cost of exercise is subtracted

A

Energy availability

192
Q

Kahoot: What is the mechanism responsible for the ergogenic effects of nitrate supplementation?

A

Enhanced efficiency of oxygen use during exercise

193
Q

Kahoot: Optimal muscle glycogen storage before an endurance event is achieved by:

A

Reducing training load and carbohydrate intake of 8-10 kg/day

194
Q

Kahoot: What is the mechanism responsible for the ergogenic effects of caffeine supplementation?

A

Reduced perception of effort

195
Q

Kahoot: The maximal rate of fat oxidation occurs at approximately what exercise intensity?

A

50% VO2max

196
Q

Kahoot: What is the mechanism responsible for the ergogenic effects of bicarbonate supplementation?

A

Enhanced blood buffer capacity

197
Q

Kahoot: What forms of carbohydrate is most likely to be ergogenic?

A

Gel, liquid and solid are all similarly ergogenic

198
Q

Kahoot: Daily protein intake required by athletes undertaking resistance training is

A

1.6-2.0g per kg

199
Q

Kahoot: What nutrients are likely to enhance fluid retention after exercise?

A

Carbohydrates, protein and sodium

200
Q

Kahoot: Three ways to measure aerobic exercise intensity?

A

MET
HR
Rating or Perceived Exertion (RPE)

201
Q

Kahoot: Which of the following is a form of Vitamin A?

a) retinol
b) tryptophan
c) niacin
d) riboflavin

A

Retinol

202
Q
  1. Which of the following dietary assessment methods involves the prospective recording of all food items consumed over a specified period?
    a) 24hr recall
    b) Food record
    c) Diet history
    d) Food frequency questionnaire
A

B

203
Q
  1. The evidence report for the Australian dietary guidelines suggests that the level of evidence to support the statement ‘Consumption of each additional daily serve of vegetables is associated with a reduced risk of coronary heart disease’ is graded as _________.
    a) A
    b) B
    c) C
    d) D
A

B

204
Q
  1. A deficiency of riboflavin in the diet would result in:
    a) dehydration
    b) bone loss
    c) decreased oxygen transport
    d) cracking at the corners of the mouth
A

D

205
Q
  1. Which of the following shows the clearest dose-response relationship between physical activity and risk of early death from all causes?
    a) Intensity of physical activity
    b) Duration of physical activity
    c) Frequency of physical activity
    d) Amount of energy expended in physical activity
A

C

206
Q
  1. The most recent version of the Australian Dietary Guidelines was released in 2013. In which year was the previous Dietary Guidelines for Adults released?
    a) 1995
    b) 2003
    c) 2009
    d) 2012
A

B

207
Q
  1. What is the name of the ongoing longitudinal study that began in 1948 in the USAand led to the identification of risk factors and other related medical and psychosocial issues associated with CVD?
    a) The Framingham Heart Study
    b) The Wastewater Study
    c) The Schofield CVD Study
    d) The Western Diet Study
A

A

208
Q
  1. Sarah consumes one cup of cooked broccoli with her dinner. How many serves of vegetables has Sarah consumed?
    a) 1
    b) 2
    c) 3
    d) 4
A

B

209
Q
  1. What percentage of individuals in the US National Weight Control Registry weigh themselves at least once a week?
    a) 32%
    b) 47%
    c) 75%
    d) 92%
A

C

210
Q
  1. In the context of dietary assessment, biomarker data is used to:
    a) Provide an objective measure of nutritional status
    b) Validate data collected using dietary assessment methods
    c) Help individuals to recall dietary intakes accurately
    d) Both (a)and (b
A

D

211
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a type of dietary fibre?
    a) Pectin
    b) Lignin
    c) Cellulose
    d) Glycerol
A

D

212
Q
  1. Which of the following vitamins is fat soluble?
    a) Thiamin
    b) B12
    c) C
    d) K
A

D

213
Q
  1. 100mg of salt equates to how many mg of sodium?
    a) 1.5
    b) 40
    c) 60
    d) 150
A

B

214
Q
  1. Which of the following enhance the absorption of iron?
    a) Iron in the haem form
    b) Vitamin C
    c) An increased requirement for iron
    d) All of the above
A

B

215
Q
  1. Approximately what proportion of Australians over the age of 15 undertake sufficient physical activity for health benefits?
    a) 10%
    b) 25%
    c) 40%
    d) 65%
A

C

216
Q

62.Two amino acids joined together is called a:

A

Dipeptide

217
Q

65.Acid in the stomach helps digest proteins by _________.

A

Denaturing the protein

218
Q
  1. Compared with a sedentary individual, an endurance athlete is likely to have which of the following?
    a) A lower resting heart rate
    b) A higher stroke volume
    c) A higher maximal cardiac output
    d) All of the above
A

D

219
Q

70.One egg contains approximately how much protein?

A

12g

220
Q

71.In addition to providing energy, fat also acts to store:

A

Vitamins

221
Q

74.Dietary modelling identified which food item as the most suitable vehicle to fortify with dietary iodine in Australia

A

Bread

222
Q
  1. Which of the following vitaminsis involved in calcium absorption?
    a) A
    b) C
    c) D
    d) E
A

C

223
Q
  1. What percentage of individuals in the US National Weight Control Registry exercise for at least one hour each day?
    a) 37%
    b) 55%
    c) 76%
    d) 90%
A

D

224
Q
  1. Which nutrient is very important for the normal blood clotting?
    a) Folate
    b) Vitamin A
    c) Vitamin D
    d) Vitamin K
A

D

225
Q
  1. Peter’smaximum heart rate is 210 bpmand his resting heart rate is 80 bpm. What is his heart rate when exercising at an intensity that corresponds to 60% of his heart rate reserve?
    a) 78
    b) 126
    c) 158
    d) 170
A

C

226
Q
  1. An appropriate rate of perceived exertion (RPE) during exercise for a 22-year old man wanting to improve his cardio-respiratory fitness would be:
    a) 5-8
    b) 10-12
    c) 14-18
    d) 19-20
A

C

227
Q
  1. According to the article ‘A Call for an End to the Diet Debates’ by Pagoto and Appelhans (2013) the biggest future gains in understanding obesity will come from _____.
    a) studies examining the optimal ratio of fat, protein and carbohydrate for weight loss
    b) studies examining how people can adhere to weight loss interventions
    c) studies examining the effects of vegetarian diets on weight loss
    d) studies examining the diets of paleolithic man
A

B

228
Q
  1. Waist circumference measures above _____ are related to increased disease risk for men.
    a) 74cm
    b) 80cm
    c) 88cm
    d) 94cm
A

D

229
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT likely to contribute significantly to a comprehensive weight loss program?
    a) Setting weight loss goals
    b) Regularly measuring body weight
    c) Reducing kilojoule intake
    d) Improving muscle strength
A

D

230
Q
  1. Which of the following is most likely to prevent weight regain after a period of weight loss?
    a) A low carbohydrate diet
    b) Avoiding all fast food
    c) Having the support of a health professional
    d) Regular exercise for at least one hour each day
A

D

231
Q
  1. What percentage of individuals in the US National Weight Control Registry eat breakfast everyday?
    a) 62%
    b) 72%
    c) 78%
    d) 92%
A

C

232
Q
  1. Which of the following molecules acts as a hormone to promote positive energy balance by stimulating appetite and promoting efficient energy storage?
    a) Ghrelin
    b) Insulin
    c) Oxytocin
    d) Leptin
A

A

233
Q
  1. Consuming sodium bicarbonate one hour before high intensity exercise has the potential to improve exercise performance because _____________.
    a) it can improve exercise economy
    b) it reduces fatigue by buffering acid produced by the muscle
    c) it will provide more fuel for the creatine phosphate energy system
    d) it will increase blood flow to the muscles
A

B

234
Q
  1. Which of the following molecules acts as a hormone to promote negative energy balance by supressing appetite and increasing energy expenditure?
    a) Ghrelin
    b) Insulin
    c) Oxytocin
    d) Leptin
A

D

235
Q
  1. Each kilogram of weight loss during endurance exercise in the what corresponds to how much ml of fluid loss?
A

1000

236
Q
  1. What is the name of the main body responsible for developing the Australian Dietary Guidelines?
A

National Health and Medical Research Council

237
Q

Approximately what proportion of Australians consume sufficient serves of fruit?

A

50% (31% meet RDI)

238
Q

How many serves of vegies per men ages 19-50?

A

6

239
Q

What vitamin is involved with collagen SYNTHESIS?

A

Vitamin C

240
Q

Greatest loss of daily fluid si via:

A

Urine

241
Q

Which method of dietary assessment is least likely to be affected by social desirability bias?

A

Dietary biomarker analysis