Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CPNRE > Prep 1 > Flashcards

Prep 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What size needle is recommended for a subcutaneous injection?

A

25G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

True or False:

You should massage skin after an intradermal injection

A

False.

Can irritate the site and interfere with results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Technique for administering intradermal injection includes…

A

Hold the syringe almost flat against the patients skin (15 degrees) with the bevel up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How does a mother know her new born is getting enough milk?

A

6-8 wet diapers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does APGAR stand for?

A

Activity, Pulse, Grimace, Appearance, and Respirations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Normal response to Moro Reflex?

A

Moro reflex may involve the infant suddenly splaying their arms and moving their legs before bringing their arms in front of their body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A nurse has obtained packed red blood cells from the blood bank to administer to a client. The nurse should begin to administer the blood product within

A

30 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The nurse is caring for a client who needs a medication to decrease the acidity of the stomach. What class of medications would the nurse expect to use?

A

Proton pump inhibitors, antacids, Histamine 2 blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of warfarin to a client. Based on the nurse’s knowledge of this drug, the nurse knows to monitor for which of the following side effects?

A

Signs of bleeding, and Black stools (manifested by blood in GI system)

Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that prevents blood clots. Because of its anticoagulant effects, the risk of bleeding is also increased. The nurse should teach the client to watch for signs of bleeding, which in the gastrointestinal system can manifest as black stools

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The nurse is caring for a client who has become lethargic. A friend at the bedside reports that the client takes alprazolam. The nurse should prepare which medication?

A 
Romazicon
Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine. Romazicon is the antidote to reverse the effects of this class of drugs.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

client is prescribed a selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitor and the nurse knows that a benefit of taking an SSRI over other anti-depressants is

A

An SSRI affects only one neurotransmitter instead of several
Tricyclic antidepressants affect norepinephrine and serotonin neurotransmitters. MAOIs affect norepinephrine, epinephrine, serotonin, and dopamine. SSRIs selectively affect the neurotransmitter serotonin, which means SSRIs have less side effects than MAOIs and tricyclic antidepressants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A client has a family history of myocardial infarction and has been experiencing multiple episodes of chest pain. The client is prescribed a medication to prevent heart attacks. Which class of medications is appropriate for this condition?

A

Beta blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Cycloplegic – eye drop that causes paralysis of the ciliary muscle, resulting in loss of accommodation for 2-48hrs. Doctors use this to allow them to..

A

measure pts vision problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Miotic – eye drop does what? used to treat?

A

that constricts the pupil. Used to treat glaucoma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Mydriatic – eye drop does what? used to for/treat?

A

dilates the pupil. Used for certain eye exams and tx of eye inflammations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the THerapeutic class of donepezil (Aricept) pharm class- cholinergics (cholinesterase inhibitors)

A

anti-Alzheimers’s agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the therapeutic class of erythropoietin (Eprex) – (Epoetin)

A

antianemics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

fluoxetine (Prozac) is an SSRI - what is its therapeutic class? other treatments used for?

A

antidepressants
• Major depressive disorder.
• Obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD).
• Bulimia nervosa.
• Panic disorder.
• Acute treatment of depressive episodes associated with bipolar I disorder (when used with olanzapine).
• Treatment-resistant depression (when used with olanzapine).
• Premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Factors affecting metabolism are: (4)

A

Liver failure
 Genetics
 Environment and other drugs
 Age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

adrenergic receptors produce what kind of effect in the ANS?

Cholinergic receptors produce what kind of effect in the ANS?

A

1)Produce fight or flight response; Mimics sympathetic neurotransmitters (epinephrine and norepinephrine)

2)mimic the parasympathetic neurotransmitter acetylcholine.
 Direct-acting (muscarinic agonists): Directly bind and activate nicotinic and muscarinic receptors eventually increase smooth muscle tone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are some possible side effects of iron supplementation?

A

 Constipation and can decrease absorption of vitamin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

• What vitamin is given with calcium to enhance absorption?

A

vit D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

• What are some side effects of magnesium? What GI issue may it be used to treat?

A
  • Used as a laxative for constipation. Side effects may include diarrhea.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Differences between thrombolytic drugs, anti-platelets, and anti-coagulants.

A

o Anticoagulants prevent clot formation
o Antiplatelet suppress platelet aggregation
o Thrombolytic are clot busters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Hypothyroidism is treated by

A

by replacement therapy with T3 or T4.
standard replacement regimen consists of levothyroxine (T4; Eltroxin, Synthroid), although combined therapy with levothyroxine plus liothyronine (T3; Cytomel) is an option

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Hyperthyroidism Medications given to reduce secretion of

A

thyroid hormones (thiomides)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what are glucocorticoids used to treat? examples

A 
Anti-inflammatory: suppresses acute inflammatory response by preventing cell –mediated immune reaction.
oExamples: 
	short-acting: hydrocortisone
	intermediate-acting: prednisone
	long-acting: dexamethasone

-These medication are given frequently in autoimmune diseases or condition where inflammation are dangerous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is the appearance (Clear or cloudy) and the peak for Short-acting/Regular insulin (Humulin R) ?

A

clear, peak 2-4hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is the appearance (Clear or cloudy) and the peak for intermediate-acting (Humulin N)?

A

cloudy, peak 5-8hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what are often the first-line medications for HTN because they have few side effects and can control minor to moderate hypertension?

A

diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the S&S of septic shock?

A

• Cool, pale arms and legs, high or very low temperature, chills, little or no urine, low BP especially when standing, palpitations, rapid heart rate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

• What is the antigen-antibody relationship?

A

o Antibodies bind with the specific matching antigen, destroying it. This specificity of antigen for antibody, similar to a key opening a lock, is a significant factor in the development of immunity to various diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Lymphocytes (primary cells in the immune response) : B-cells vs T-cells?

A

1- A B lymphocyte is a type of white blood cell that develops in the bone marrow and makes antibodies.

2-Type of white blood cell that is involved with the immune system. T lymphocytes mature in the thymus and differentiate into cytotoxic, memory, helper and regulatory T cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

urinalysis: Proteinuria, albuminuria indicates

A
  • Proteinuria (albuminuria) is a condition of having too much protein in the urine which results from damage within the kidneys. Proteinuria in diabetes will usually be the result of either long term hyperglycemia (high blood sugar levels) or hypertension (high blood pressure).
  • -(had before: leakage of albumin or mixed plasma proteins due to inflammation and increased glomerular permeability)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

urinalysis: Bacteria – bacteriuria – and pus – pyuria – indicates

A

UTI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

urinalysis: Very low specific gravity (dilute urine) Indicates

A

kidney/renal failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

urinalysis: Glucose and ketones present indicates

A

uncontrolled diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is Blood Urea Nitrogen? What does it test for?

A

o BUN test measures the amount of nitrogen in your urine. It evaluates kidney function.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is Creatinine? What does it test for?

A

o Creatinine tests kidney function. Creatinine is a chemical waste. Creatine is a substance that is found naturally in muscle cells. It helps your muscles produce energy during heavy lifting or high-intensity exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

• What is dialysis?

A

o “artificial kidney” Dialysis is a procedure that performs many of the normal duties of the kidneys, like filtering waste products from the blood, when the kidneys no longer work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Medical term for broken bone?

A

Fracture. Break in the rigid structure and continuity of a bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is a soft tissue injury to the tendon called?

What is tendon connective tissue for?

A

STRAIN

- connects muscle to bone and is capable of withstanding tension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

• What is a soft tissue injury to the ligament called?

A

sprain

44
Q

what are the 4 main complications of bone healing?

A

1) muscle spasm
2) Ischemia
3) Compartment syndrome
4) Fat emboli

45
Q

What is osteoporosis?
SandS?
some TX?

A

Bone disease - results in Decrease in bone mass and density
S/S:
- Back pain
- Kyphosis and scoliosis with accompanying loss of height
- Spontaneous fractures
TX:
- Dietary (calcium, vitamin D, protein) and fluoride supplements
-regular weight-bearing exercise
- Bisphosphonates (ex. Fosamax) – short term option to inhibit osteoclast activity and bone resorption
- Hormone therapy – inject human parathyroid hormone (PTH) to decrease bone resorption

46
Q

What is osteoarthritis (OA)?
signs and symptoms?
tx?

A
  • Degenerative, ”wear and tear” joint disease
  • Weight-bearing joints (hips, knees) damaged and lost from excessive mechanical stress

S/S:
- Aching pain with weight-bearing and movement
- Limited joint movement => predisposition to falls, difficulty with mastication, speaking, yawning
TX:
• Minimized stress on the joint, rest, support to facilitate movement (canes, walkers)
• PT, OT, massage therapy, orthotic inserts
• Glucosamine-chondroitin supplements
• Injection of synthetic synovial fluid
• Analgesics, NSAIDs
• Joint replacement

47
Q

What is Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)?
signs and symptoms?
tx?

A

Autoimmune disorder causing chronic systemic inflammatory disease

SS:
• Inflammation first in the fingers/wrists (bilateral)
• Joints red, swollen, and sensitive to touch
• Joint stiffness following rest; subsides with mild activity
• Impaired joint movement
• Malocclusion of the teeth with TMJ involvement
• Marked systemic effects during exacerbation (fatigue, anorexia, mild fever, generalized lymphadenopathy, generalized aching)

TX:
• Balance between rest and moderate activity
• PT, OT
• NSAIDs, glucocorticoids, DMARDs
• DMARD – disease modifying antirheumatic drugs – blocks inflammation; each works differently (some restrict immune system broadly, some block pathways, some block cytokines)
• Heat and cold

48
Q

What is hemostasis?

A

o is a process to prevent and stop bleeding, meaning to keep blood within a damaged blood vessel (the opposite of hemostasis is hemorrhage). It is the first stage of wound healing. This involves coagulation, blood changing from a liquid to a gel.

49
Q

• What is hemolysis?

A

o the rupture or destruction of red blood cells.

50
Q

what is is polycythemia?

A

o When the body produces an excessive number of RBC

51
Q

what is hemophilia?

A

o An inherited inability to produce certain clotting factors

52
Q

what is leukemia

A

o Uncontrolled WBC production in the bone marrow

o Leukemic cells infiltrate the lymph nodes, spleen, liver, brain, and other organs

53
Q

What is pruritus? TX?

A

• Severe itching of the skin, can be treated by glucocorticoids or antihistamines - but more importantly the removal of the irritant

54
Q

Common skin infections include..
c___
I____
F___

A

cellulitis: skin appears swollen and red and is typically painful and warm to the touch.

impetigo: highly contagious skin infection that mainly affects infants and children.
- Impetigo usually appears as red sores on the face, especially around a child’s nose and mouth, and on hands and feet. The sores burst and develop honey-colored crusts

Furuncles: also known as a boil, is a painful infection that forms around a hair follicle and contains pus.

55
Q

what is the eye disorder known as “pink eye” - a superficial inflammation or infection involving the conjunctiva lining the eyelids and covering the sclera

A

conjunctivitis

56
Q

what is the eye disorder that results from increased intraocular pressure; .SandS: blurred vision, appearance of “halos”, mild eye discomfort, eye pain, nausea and headaches develop

A

Glaucoma

57
Q

what is the eye disorder that is a a progressive clouding of the lens; patient experiences blurred vision that progresses over the visual field and the field becomes darker, damaged lens can be surgically replaced

A

Cataracts

58
Q

what is the eye disorder that results in a black spot or “dark curtain” in the visual field, there is no pain and it needs to be repaired by surgery

A

Detached Retina

59
Q

what eye disorder is is a common cause of visual disturbance in older adults and causes the centre of vision to be lost first , depth perception is also affected.

A

macular degeneration

60
Q

Petechiae and purpura are common signs of:

A

Increased bleeding

61
Q

What class is Prednisone and what does it do?

A

Corticosteroid
- decreases your immune system’s response to various diseases to reduce symptoms such as swelling and allergic-type reactions.

62
Q

extension vs flexion

A

extension - straightening out a joint

flexion - bending a joint

63
Q

What are signs of pulmonary edema?

A
  • cough that produces frothy sputum that may be tinged with blood
  • orthopnea, rales—in mild cases
  • dyspnea
  • Wheezing or gasping for breath
  • cold, clammy skin
  • A rapid, irregular heartbeat (palpitations
64
Q

What is a TIA?

signs and symps?

A

Transient Ischemic Attacks - Temporary localized reduction of blood flow
-TIA Signs and Symptoms
o Arm/leg muscle weakness
o Visual disturbance (double vision, blurred vision, or loss of vision in one eye)
o Numbness in face
o Transient aphasia
o Transient confusion

65
Q

with progressive dementias, such as Alzheimer’s, initial memory loss includes

A

the ability to distinguish fine categories, such as species of animals or types of objects, but, over time, this lack of discrimination extends to broader, more general categories.

66
Q

signs of MS?

A

o Manifestations determined by areas of demyelination
o Blurred vision, weakness in legs
o Diplopia (double vision), scotoma (spot in visual field)
o Dysarthria
o Paresthesia, areas of numbness, burning, tingling
o Progressive weakness and paralysis extending to the upper limbs
o Loss of coordination, bladder, bowel and sexual dysfunction, chronic fatigue

67
Q

what is autonomic dysreflexia

A

sudden onset of excessively high blood pressure. It is more common in people with spinal cord injuries that involve the thoracic nerves of the spine or above (T6 or above).

68
Q

most common trigger of autonomic dysreflexia (SNS) in spinal cord injuries?

A
  • most common triggers are over-distension of the bowel or bladder
69
Q

Huntington’s disease is an inherited disorder that results in…

A

death of brain cells

70
Q

What are the “3-Ps” of hyperglycemia?

A

1) Polyuria – frequent passage of large volumes of urine (excess glucose spills into the urine and is excreted. This causes water to follow the higher osmotic pressure of the urine (increased water loss)
2) Polydipsia- “condition of much thirst”. (Fluid loss through polyuria draws out water from the cells, leading to dehydration)
3) Polyphagia- “condition of much eating”. (Lack of nutrients (specifically glucose) entering the cells stimulates appetite in order to increase the amount of nutrients taken in )

71
Q

Water Seal Chamber commonly used for chest tubes: what does Continuous bubbling in water-sealed chamber indicate? steps?

A

Indicates leak between patient and water seal
o Assess and tighten all connections
o Notify health care provider

72
Q

Why is it important to release the suction on a bulb drain (Jackson-Pratt or Blake) prior to removal

A

will damage tissue (prevent trauma to tissue)

73
Q

12-hour post op dressing is bleeding through the initial pot op dressing. What are your immediate actions?

A

a. Reinforce (2)
b. Check VS for hemorrhage
c. Outline (1)
d. Do not remove (4)
e. Monitor (3)
f. Call dr. if concerned about excess drainage (5)

74
Q

What is PICC line?

A

a. Gives meds straight into the heart
b. PICC (peripherally inserted central venous catheters) lines are therefore delivering the med faster to the heart and the arterial blood circulation because of the area of insertion

75
Q

While caring for a patient with IV therapy, the nurse should recognize the following as a first symptom of an air embolism

A

a. Cyanosis (Symptoms of an air embolism: cyanosis, dyspnea, hypotension, weak rapid pulse, and chest, shoulder & back pain)

76
Q

What part of the heart delivers unoxygenated blood to the lungs?

A

pulmonary artery

77
Q

true or False: The bicuspid/mitral valve is located on the left side of the heart.

A

true

78
Q 
blood enters on the left side of the heart through the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and enters the left atrium. It then passes through the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_to enter the left ventricle.
A. pulmonary vein, bicuspid valve
B. pulmonary artery, mitral valve
C. pulmonary vein, tricuspid valve 
D. pulmonary artery, aortic valve
A

A. pulmonary vein, bicuspid valve

79
Q 
What part of the heart delivers richly oxygenated blood to the body?
A. Tricuspid Valve
B. Superior Vena Cava
C. Aorta 
D. Pulmonary artery
A

c. aorta

80
Q

True or False: Pulmonary veins take unoxygenated blood away from the heart.

A

false

81
Q

True or False: Blood flows in the following sequence in the heart: Superior vena cava/Inferior vena cava, right atrium, tricuspid valve, right ventricle, pulmonic valve, pulmonary artery, lungs, pulmonary veins, left atrium, bicuspid valve, left ventricle, aortic valve, aorta

A

true

82
Q 
What part of the heart delivers oxygenated blood to the heart?
A. Pulmonary artery
B. Pulmonary vein 
C. Aorta
D. Tricuspid Valve
A

B. Pulmonary vein

83
Q

On the right side of the heart, blood flows from the right ventricle to the ____ to the ____?

A

Pulmonic valve to the pulmonary artery

84
Q

True or False: The atriums are located below the ventricles.

A

false

85
Q

Signs a patient needs to be suctioned may include (4)

A

1-gurgling respirations
2-respiratory distress
3-low oxygen-saturation levels
4- coarse crackles on auscultation.

86
Q

Oropharyngeal/nasopharyngeal VS Orotracheal/nasotracheal

A

oropharyngeal and nasopharyngeal: used when client is able to cough effectively but is unable to clear secretions by coughing or swallowing

Orotracheal/nasotracheal: when client is unable to cough and manage their own secretions. Sterile procedure.

87
Q

Chest tube: - Notify physician if drainage is greater than ___ml/hr or becomes bright red or increases suddenly

A

100ml/hr

88
Q

Maintenance of infusion therapy:

Change venipuncture site every __-__ hours, IV dressing every __ hours, IV tubing every __-__ hours

A

Change venipuncture site every 45-72 hours, IV dressing every 72 hours, IV tubing every 24-72 hours

89
Q
  • Promote fluid intake of ___-___ mL daily for average adult and an increased intake for clients at risk of UTI and renal calculi, and clients with catheters
A

1500-2000 mL

90
Q

what are the single most important indicator of fluid status

A

daily weights

91
Q

what is the purpose of NG tubes

A
  1. Decompression: removal of secretions from the GI tract for the prevention and relief of abdominal distension
  2. Feeding or gavage: instillation of liquid nutritional supplements into the stomach for clients unable to swallow
  3. Compression: internal application of pressure by means od inflated balloon to prevent internal esophageal or GI hemorrhage
  4. Lavage: irrigation of the stomach for active bleeding, poisoning, or gastric dilation
92
Q

Reposition q2h or more frequent if there are reddened areas. ______ position is best as it does not put direct pressure on the trochanter

A

30 degree lateral

93
Q

Trochanter rolls can be used to prevent

A

external hip rotation

94
Q
  • Braden Scale – measures risk for pressure ulcer and includes what 5 components?
    and needs to be used when?
A

sensory perception, moisture activity, mobility, nutrition, and friction and shear. Needs to be used preventively (on admission) and consistently (daily in high risk clients)

95
Q

what is the primary organs for regulating fluid and electrolyte balance. They selectively reabsorb or excrete water and electrolytes.

A

kidneys

96
Q

Hypotonic solution uses

A

raises total fluid volume - replace or prevent dehydration

97
Q

What is the quality of respirations of the newborn?

A

Shallow and irregular

98
Q

when does Phase 1 of newborn care occur? Initial care includes?

A

birth-1h
• Maintaining thermoregulation
• Maintaining cardiorespiratory function
• Observing for urination and passage of meconium
• Identifying the mother, father, and newborn
• Performing a brief assessment for major anomalies
• Encouraging bonding and breastfeeding

99
Q

what position and height is the uterus fundus immediately after placenta expelled? Descent rate?

A

can be felt midline, at or below umbilicus as a firm mass. After 24 hrs fundus begins to descend about 1 cm each day

100
Q

what order does lochia go in

alba, rubra, serosa

A

Lochia Rubra -> Lochia Serosa -> Lochia Alba

101
Q

Describe the color, consistency and time seen of lochia

A

Lochia Rubra: Red, Mostly blood, About 3 days
Lochia Serosa: pinkish, Blood and mucus, 3rd to 10th day
Lochia Alba: Clear/colorless or white, Mostly mucus, 10th to 21st day

102
Q

Signs of true labor

A
  • Contractions gradually develop a regular pattern
  • Contractions become stronger and more effective with walking
  • Discomfort in lower back or abdomen
  • Bloody show often present
  • Progressive effacement and dilation of cervix
103
Q

What is the first stage of labour

A

dilation and effacement (can last 4 to 6 hours)

3phases
•Latent phase: up to 3 cm of dilation (not very painful, happy. Contractions are far apart)
•Active (labor) phase: 4 to 7 cm of dilation (pain, not happy)
•Transition phase: 8 to 10 cm of dilation (lots of pain, not happy)
(dilate/contract cervix. Longest stage)

104
Q

what occurs in the second stage of labour

A

expulsion of fetus (30 minutes to 2 hours)

- ends with birth of infant

105
Q

what occurs in the third stage of labor? Nurses responsibilities?

A

expulsion of placenta (5 to 30 minutes) – sometimes theres a massage to help expulsion
- cord is cut
 Nurses responsibility to assess the placenta and monitor woman’s vital signs

106
Q

what is the fourth stage of labor and what is the nursing care?

A

Recover stage - 1-4 hrs after birth of placenta
Nursing care:
- Identifying and preventing hemorrhage
• Evaluating and intervening for pain
• Observing bladder function and urine output
• Evaluating recovery from anesthesia
• Providing initial care to the newborn infant
• Promoting bonding and attachment between the infant and family

CPNRE (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions