Prenatal / Normal pregnancy 2 Flashcards

(83 cards)

1
Q

postterm infants

A

Infants born at > 42 weeks gestation

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2
Q

Risk factors for postterm birth

A

primigravidity, prior postterm pregnancy, maternal obesity, older maternal age, male fetal gender, and certain congenital conditions (e.g., adrenal gland hypoplasia, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, placental sulfatase deficiency)

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3
Q

Macrosomia

A

infant weight > 4,500 grams

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4
Q

common finding in post-term neonates

A

macrosomia

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5
Q

Complications associated with macrosomia

A

prolonged labor, clavicular fracture, brachial plexus palsy, cephalopelvic disproportion, and shoulder dystocia

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6
Q

physical findings in post term neonates

A

Physiological desquamation of the skin may be seen at 1 week of age
Meconium staining
Vernix caseosa and lanugo hair are typically decreased or absent
Dry and parchment-like peeling skin
Loose skin
Scalp hair is increased and the nails are usually long
Alert/Wide eyed appearance

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7
Q

Naegele rule

A

method of dating the pregnancy and helping to calculate the estimated due date

Naegele rule calculates the estimated due date by establishing the last menstrual period, subtracting 3 months, and adding 7 days

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8
Q

Limitations of Naegele rule

A

It assumes a 28-day menstrual cycle with ovulation on day 14

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9
Q

when can doppler US detect fetal heart tones

A

10 weeks

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10
Q

initial lab tests at first prenatal visit

A

A Pap smear should be taken at the initial visit if this has not been performed in the past year
ABO and Rh typing and antibody screen
immunoglobulin testing for varicella and rubella immunity if not otherwise documented
human immunodeficiency virus testing
RPR
Hep B
chlamydial testing for patients under 25 or those over 25 years with risk factors for sexually transmitted infection

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11
Q

when is a fetal US first performed

A

20 weeks

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12
Q

Pregnant uterus on PE

A

typically soft and globular

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13
Q

how long does the uterus remain in the pelvis during pregnancy

A

until about 12 weeks

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14
Q

where can the fundus be palpated at 12 weeks

A

pubic symphysis

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15
Q

where can the fundal height be palpated at 20 weeks

A

umbilicus

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16
Q

where can the fundus be palpated at 36 weeks

A

xiphoid process

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17
Q

What factors reduce the diagnostic accuracy of physical exam-based gestational age assessment?

A

Leiomyoma, obesity, and pregnancies of multiple gestation

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18
Q

lab findings in hyperemesis gravidarum

A

weight loss, dehydration, starvation ketosis, hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis, hypokalemia, and transient liver enzyme elevation

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19
Q

in what population is hyperemesis gravidarum MC

A

multiple fetuses
hydatidiform molar pregnancy
hyperthyroidism

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19
Q

tx hyperemesis gravidarum

A

Hydration and electrolytes should be maintained through parenteral fluids and vitamin supplementation (if hospitalized)
Administer antiemetics

After discharge - eat small meals

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19
Q

Common antiemetics for pregnancy

A

promethazine
metoclopramide
ondansetron

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20
Q

at what level can serum tests detect pregnancy

A

1–2 mIU/mL

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21
Q

at what level can urine tests detect pregnancy

A

20–50 mIU/mL

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22
Q

when do hCG values double

A

every 29–53 hours during the first 30 days following implantation of a normal intrauterine pregnancy

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23
hCG levels that are rising slowly suggest
either an ectopic pregnancy or an early embryonic death
24
when are hCG levels useful in estimating fetal gestational age
the first 1 to 3 weeks postconception
25
The range of normal hCG at 8–10 weeks of gestation
5,000 to 150,000 mIU/mL
26
when do hCG levels decline
following 8–10 weeks
27
when do hCG levels plateau
20 weeks
28
hCG levels remain relatively constant between _______ from 20 weeks-term
2,000–50,000 mIU/mL
29
Fetal quickening
the perceived fetal motion by the mother
30
when is fetal quickening first noted - primiparity vs prior pregnancies
It is often first detected in primiparous women at 18–20 weeks gestation. In women with prior pregnancies, fetal quickening can be felt much earlier, as early as 14 weeks gestation
31
Unilateral lower abdominal pain that transpires early in pregnancy is often caused by
round ligament pain
32
leukorrhea
Clear or thick white vaginal secretions
33
when do Braxton hicks contractions usually occur
after 28 weeks
34
What is the Chadwick sign?
bluish discoloration of the vulva, vagina, and cervix that occurs as the result of increased blood flow around 8–12 weeks gestation
35
Hegar sign
characterized by a softening of the uterus
36
Osiander sign
Pulsations felt through the lateral vaginal fornices Occur around 8 weeks Associated w lateral implantation
37
Goodell sign
softening of the cervix occurs around 4-6 weeks
38
Piskacek sign
Asymmetrical enlargement of uterus in case of lateral implantation
39
drugs that are C/I in pregnancy
angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors androgens carbamazepine phenytoin valproic acid cyclophosphamide diethylstilbestrol methimazole misoprostol oral retinoids tetracycline thalidomide warfarin methotrexate
40
Ophthalmia neonatorum is also known as
neonatal conjunctivitis
41
when does neonatal conjunctivitis often occur
within 4 weeks of life
42
MC cause of neonatal conjunctivitis
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
43
what can neonatal conjunctivitis ultimately lead to
blindness
44
prevention neonatal conjunctivitis
erythromycin ointment to both eyes within 2 hours of birth
45
Routine procedures for newborns
erythromycin ointment on both eyes within 2 hours of birth vitamin K1 to prevent vitamin K deficiency bleeding hep B vaccine umbilical cord care to prevent infection monitoring for hyperbilirubinemia and hypoglycemia
46
When is ophthalmia neonatorum most likely to appear in a newborn?
2-5 days after birth
47
untreated infections in pregnancy increase the risk of
neonatal infection (e.g., conjunctivitis, pneumonia), preterm birth, low birth weight, and congenital defects
48
should you screen for chlamydia and gonorrhea in pregnancy
Screening for chlamydia and gonorrhea with nucleic acid amplification testing is recommended in all pregnant women < 25 years of age and pregnant women ≥ 25 years of age at increased risk for sexually transmitted infections
49
antibiotic treatment for chlamydia in pregnancy
zithromycin 1 g PO in a single dose
50
antibiotic tx for gonorrhea or both chlamydia and gonorrhea in pregnancy
azithromycin 1 g PO in a single dose and ceftriaxone 500 mg IM in a single dose Patients who weigh ≥ 150 kg should receive ceftriaxone 1 g IM in a single dose
51
should you do a test of cure or repeat testing for chlamydia or gonorrhea
a test of cure is indicated in all pregnant women 3–4 weeks after treatment is completed repeat testing for chlamydia and gonorrhea is recommended 3 months after the test of cure
52
Routine vaccinations during pregnancy
tetanus, diphtheria, acellular pertussis (Tdap) vaccine, and the influenza vaccine
53
when should pregnant person get the flu vaccine
should be given in the first trimester if the patient is pregnant during the flu season,
54
when should pregnant person get Tdap
between 27–36 weeks gestation
55
what additional vaccines can be given in pregnancy but are not given routinely
Pneumococcal pneumonia, meningococcal meningitis, and hepatitis A vaccines may be given as indicated during pregnancy. Patients at high risk for hepatitis B may be given the hepatitis B vaccine during pregnancy
56
what types of vaccines should be avoided in pregnancy
live vaccines
57
examples of live vaccines that should be avoided in pregnancy
measles, mumps, rubella, varicella, yellow fever, smallpox, Bacillus Calmette-Guéerin, the live attenuated influenza vaccine, and the live zoster vaccine
58
pregnancy weight gain: BMI of 18.5–24.9 kg/m2
25–35 lbs over the course of the entire pregnancy
59
pregnancy weight gain: BMI < 18.5 kg/m2
should gain 28–40 lbs during pregnancy
60
pregnancy weight gain: BMI of 25.0–29.9 kg/m2
should gain 15–25 lbs during pregnancy
61
pregnancy weight gain: BMI ≥ 30.0 kg/m2
should gain 11–20 lbs during pregnancy
62
caloric need in second and third trimester
The caloric need of the mother increases by approximately 340 kcal/day in the second trimester and 450 kcal/day in the third trimester
63
protein recs in pregnancy
1.1 g/kg/day
64
carb recs in pregnancy
175 g/day
65
fiber recs in pregnancy
28 g/day
66
micronutrient recommendations during pregnancy
iron 27 mg calcium 1,000 mg vitamin D 600 IU folate 600 mcg iodine 220 mcg
67
adequate intake of what micronutrient can decrease the risk of HTN in pregnancy
calcium
68
folate intake recs for women who have had a previous neural tube defect-affected pregnancy
4,000 mcg of folic acid daily
69
which US is preferred in pregnancy
TVUS
70
when is the gestational sac visible on TVUS
4.5–5 weeks
71
when can the yolk sac be visualized on TVUS
5–6 weeks
72
when is fetal pole with cardiac activity visualized on TVUS
5.5–6 weeks
73
what is the smallest gestational sac size that can be visualized on TVUS
2–3 mm
74
what is the first structure to appear within the gestational sac
yolk sac
75
what confirms intrauterine pregnancy
visualization of the yolk sac
76
when does the yolk sac degrade
between 10-12 weeks
77
In patients with a gestational sac but no yolk sac, what signs increase the likelihood of an intrauterine pregnancy
double decidual sac sign or intradecidual sign Absence of these signs does not exclude intrauterine pregnancy
78
The double decidual sac sign
intrauterine fluid collection surrounded by two concentric echogenic rings, with the inner ring representing the decidua capsularis and the outer ring representing the decidua parietalis
79
The intradecidual sign
intrauterine fluid collection with an echogenic rim located inside a thickened decidua on one side of the uterine cavity and deviation of the central endometrial echo
80
Most accurate assessment of gestational age
measuring the crown-rump length of an embryo with cardiac activity
81