Prenatal / Normal pregnancy 2 Flashcards

1
Q

postterm infants

A

Infants born at > 42 weeks gestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Risk factors for postterm birth

A

primigravidity, prior postterm pregnancy, maternal obesity, older maternal age, male fetal gender, and certain congenital conditions (e.g., adrenal gland hypoplasia, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, placental sulfatase deficiency)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Macrosomia

A

infant weight > 4,500 grams

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

common finding in post-term neonates

A

macrosomia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Complications associated with macrosomia

A

prolonged labor, clavicular fracture, brachial plexus palsy, cephalopelvic disproportion, and shoulder dystocia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

physical findings in post term neonates

A

Physiological desquamation of the skin may be seen at 1 week of age
Meconium staining
Vernix caseosa and lanugo hair are typically decreased or absent
Dry and parchment-like peeling skin
Loose skin
Scalp hair is increased and the nails are usually long
Alert/Wide eyed appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Naegele rule

A

method of dating the pregnancy and helping to calculate the estimated due date

Naegele rule calculates the estimated due date by establishing the last menstrual period, subtracting 3 months, and adding 7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Limitations of Naegele rule

A

It assumes a 28-day menstrual cycle with ovulation on day 14

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

when can doppler US detect fetal heart tones

A

10 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

initial lab tests at first prenatal visit

A

A Pap smear should be taken at the initial visit if this has not been performed in the past year
ABO and Rh typing and antibody screen
immunoglobulin testing for varicella and rubella immunity if not otherwise documented
human immunodeficiency virus testing
RPR
Hep B
chlamydial testing for patients under 25 or those over 25 years with risk factors for sexually transmitted infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

when is a fetal US first performed

A

20 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Pregnant uterus on PE

A

typically soft and globular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

how long does the uterus remain in the pelvis during pregnancy

A

until about 12 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

where can the fundus be palpated at 12 weeks

A

pubic symphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

where can the fundal height be palpated at 20 weeks

A

umbilicus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

where can the fundus be palpated at 36 weeks

A

xiphoid process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What factors reduce the diagnostic accuracy of physical exam-based gestational age assessment?

A

Leiomyoma, obesity, and pregnancies of multiple gestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

lab findings in hyperemesis gravidarum

A

weight loss, dehydration, starvation ketosis, hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis, hypokalemia, and transient liver enzyme elevation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

in what population is hyperemesis gravidarum MC

A

multiple fetuses
hydatidiform molar pregnancy
hyperthyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

tx hyperemesis gravidarum

A

Hydration and electrolytes should be maintained through parenteral fluids and vitamin supplementation (if hospitalized)
Administer antiemetics

After discharge - eat small meals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Common antiemetics for pregnancy

A

promethazine
metoclopramide
ondansetron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

at what level can serum tests detect pregnancy

A

1–2 mIU/mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

at what level can urine tests detect pregnancy

A

20–50 mIU/mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

when do hCG values double

A

every 29–53 hours during the first 30 days following implantation of a normal intrauterine pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

hCG levels that are rising slowly suggest

A

either an ectopic pregnancy or an early embryonic death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

when are hCG levels useful in estimating fetal gestational age

A

the first 1 to 3 weeks postconception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The range of normal hCG at 8–10 weeks of gestation

A

5,000 to 150,000 mIU/mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

when do hCG levels decline

A

following 8–10 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

when do hCG levels plateau

A

20 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

hCG levels remain relatively constant between _______ from 20 weeks-term

A

2,000–50,000 mIU/mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Fetal quickening

A

the perceived fetal motion by the mother

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

when is fetal quickening first noted - primiparity vs prior pregnancies

A

It is often first detected in primiparous women at 18–20 weeks gestation. In women with prior pregnancies, fetal quickening can be felt much earlier, as early as 14 weeks gestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Unilateral lower abdominal pain that transpires early in pregnancy is often caused by

A

round ligament pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

leukorrhea

A

Clear or thick white vaginal secretions

33
Q

when do Braxton hicks contractions usually occur

A

after 28 weeks

34
Q

What is the Chadwick sign?

A

bluish discoloration of the vulva, vagina, and cervix that occurs as the result of increased blood flow around 8–12 weeks gestation

35
Q

Hegar sign

A

characterized by a softening of the uterus

36
Q

Osiander sign

A

Pulsations felt through the lateral vaginal fornices
Occur around 8 weeks
Associated w lateral implantation

37
Q

Goodell sign

A

softening of the cervix
occurs around 4-6 weeks

38
Q

Piskacek sign

A

Asymmetrical enlargement of uterus in case of lateral implantation

39
Q

drugs that are C/I in pregnancy

A

angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors
androgens
carbamazepine
phenytoin
valproic acid
cyclophosphamide
diethylstilbestrol
methimazole
misoprostol
oral retinoids
tetracycline
thalidomide
warfarin
methotrexate

40
Q

Ophthalmia neonatorum is also known as

A

neonatal conjunctivitis

41
Q

when does neonatal conjunctivitis often occur

A

within 4 weeks of life

42
Q

MC cause of neonatal conjunctivitis

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

43
Q

what can neonatal conjunctivitis ultimately lead to

A

blindness

44
Q

prevention neonatal conjunctivitis

A

erythromycin ointment to both eyes within 2 hours of birth

45
Q

Routine procedures for newborns

A

erythromycin ointment on both eyes within 2 hours of birth
vitamin K1 to prevent vitamin K deficiency bleeding
hep B vaccine
umbilical cord care to prevent infection
monitoring for hyperbilirubinemia and hypoglycemia

46
Q

When is ophthalmia neonatorum most likely to appear in a newborn?

A

2-5 days after birth

47
Q

untreated infections in pregnancy increase the risk of

A

neonatal infection (e.g., conjunctivitis, pneumonia), preterm birth, low birth weight, and congenital defects

48
Q

should you screen for chlamydia and gonorrhea in pregnancy

A

Screening for chlamydia and gonorrhea with nucleic acid amplification testing is recommended in all pregnant women < 25 years of age and pregnant women ≥ 25 years of age at increased risk for sexually transmitted infections

49
Q

antibiotic treatment for chlamydia in pregnancy

A

zithromycin 1 g PO in a single dose

50
Q

antibiotic tx for gonorrhea or both chlamydia and gonorrhea in pregnancy

A

azithromycin 1 g PO in a single dose and ceftriaxone 500 mg IM in a single dose

Patients who weigh ≥ 150 kg should receive ceftriaxone 1 g IM in a single dose

51
Q

should you do a test of cure or repeat testing for chlamydia or gonorrhea

A

a test of cure is indicated in all pregnant women 3–4 weeks after treatment is completed

repeat testing for chlamydia and gonorrhea is recommended 3 months after the test of cure

52
Q

Routine vaccinations during pregnancy

A

tetanus, diphtheria, acellular pertussis (Tdap) vaccine, and the influenza vaccine

53
Q

when should pregnant person get the flu vaccine

A

should be given in the first trimester if the patient is pregnant during the flu season,

54
Q

when should pregnant person get Tdap

A

between 27–36 weeks gestation

55
Q

what additional vaccines can be given in pregnancy but are not given routinely

A

Pneumococcal pneumonia, meningococcal meningitis, and hepatitis A vaccines may be given as indicated during pregnancy. Patients at high risk for hepatitis B may be given the hepatitis B vaccine during pregnancy

56
Q

what types of vaccines should be avoided in pregnancy

A

live vaccines

57
Q

examples of live vaccines that should be avoided in pregnancy

A

measles, mumps, rubella, varicella, yellow fever, smallpox, Bacillus Calmette-Guéerin, the live attenuated influenza vaccine, and the live zoster vaccine

58
Q

pregnancy weight gain: BMI of 18.5–24.9 kg/m2

A

25–35 lbs over the course of the entire pregnancy

59
Q

pregnancy weight gain: BMI < 18.5 kg/m2

A

should gain 28–40 lbs during pregnancy

60
Q

pregnancy weight gain: BMI of 25.0–29.9 kg/m2

A

should gain 15–25 lbs during pregnancy

61
Q

pregnancy weight gain: BMI ≥ 30.0 kg/m2

A

should gain 11–20 lbs during pregnancy

62
Q

caloric need in second and third trimester

A

The caloric need of the mother increases by approximately 340 kcal/day in the second trimester and 450 kcal/day in the third trimester

63
Q

protein recs in pregnancy

A

1.1 g/kg/day

64
Q

carb recs in pregnancy

A

175 g/day

65
Q

fiber recs in pregnancy

A

28 g/day

66
Q

micronutrient recommendations during pregnancy

A

iron 27 mg
calcium 1,000 mg
vitamin D 600 IU
folate 600 mcg
iodine 220 mcg

67
Q

adequate intake of what micronutrient can decrease the risk of HTN in pregnancy

A

calcium

68
Q

folate intake recs for women who have had a previous neural tube defect-affected pregnancy

A

4,000 mcg of folic acid daily

69
Q

which US is preferred in pregnancy

A

TVUS

70
Q

when is the gestational sac visible on TVUS

A

4.5–5 weeks

71
Q

when can the yolk sac be visualized on TVUS

A

5–6 weeks

72
Q

when is fetal pole with cardiac activity visualized on TVUS

A

5.5–6 weeks

73
Q

what is the smallest gestational sac size that can be visualized on TVUS

A

2–3 mm

74
Q

what is the first structure to appear within the gestational sac

A

yolk sac

75
Q

what confirms intrauterine pregnancy

A

visualization of the yolk sac

76
Q

when does the yolk sac degrade

A

between 10-12 weeks

77
Q

In patients with a gestational sac but no yolk sac, what signs increase the likelihood of an intrauterine pregnancy

A

double decidual sac sign or intradecidual sign

Absence of these signs does not exclude intrauterine pregnancy

78
Q

The double decidual sac sign

A

intrauterine fluid collection surrounded by two concentric echogenic rings, with the inner ring representing the decidua capsularis and the outer ring representing the decidua parietalis

79
Q

The intradecidual sign

A

intrauterine fluid collection with an echogenic rim located inside a thickened decidua on one side of the uterine cavity and deviation of the central endometrial echo

80
Q

Most accurate assessment of gestational age

A

measuring the crown-rump length of an embryo with cardiac activity

81
Q
A