Preflight Flashcards

1
Q

An applicant for an instrument rating must have at least how much and what type of flight time as a pilot?

A

A. 50 hours of x-country time as PIC, of which 10 hours must have been in an airplane

B. 40 hours of actual/simulated instrument time in Part 61 operations, of which 15 hours must have been received from an authorized instructor who holds an instrument airplane rating, and the instrument time includes:

   1. 3 hours of instrument flight training from an authorized instructor in an airplane that is appropriate to the instrument-airplane rating within 2 calendar months before the date of the practical test
   2. Instrument flight training on x-country procedures, including x-country flight in an airplane with an authorized instructor, that is performed under IFR, when a flight plan has been filed with an ATC facility, and that involves a flight of 250 NM along airways or ATC directed routing, an instrument approach at each airport, and 3 different kinds of approaches with the use of navigations systems.
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2
Q

When is an instrument rating required?

A

A. Under instrument flight rules

B. In Wx conditions less than the minimum for VFR flight

C. In Class A airspace

D. Under special VFR within Class B, Class C, Class D and Class E surface areas between sunset and sunrise

E. When carrying Pax for hire on x-country flights in excess of 50 NM or at night.

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3
Q

What are the recency of experience requirements to be PIC of a flight under IFR?

A

A. A flight review

B. To carry Pax, 3 takeoffs and landings within the preceding 90 days in an aircraft of the same category, class and type, if a type rating is required (landings must be to a full stop at night or in a tailwheel)

C. Within the 6 calendar months preceding the month of the flight, performed and logged in actual Wx conditions or under simulated conditions, at least the following tasks in an airplane:

   1. Six instrument approaches
   2. Holding procedures and tasks
   3. Intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigational electronic systems
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4
Q

If a pilot allows her instrument currency to expire, what can be done to become current again?

A

The pilot is current following the first 6 months following their checkride or proficiency check. If the pilot has not completed 6 approaches within the first 6 months, she is no longer legal to file IFR. To become legal again, the reg allows a “grace period” in which the pilot may get current by flying with an appropriately rated safety pilot and in simulated IFR conditions only, acquire 6 approaches, etc. If the 2nd 6 month period also passes without accomplishing the minimum, a pilot may reinstate her currency by accomplishing an instrument proficiency check given by an examiner, an authorized instructor, or an FAA approved person.

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5
Q

Explain the difference between being “current” versus being “proficient”?

A

Being “current” means that a pilot has met the minimum requirements within a specific time period. It means you’re legal to make a flight. A proficient pilot is capable of making a flight with a high degree of competence.

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6
Q

What are the required qualifications to act as a safety pilot?

A

A. Possess at least a PPL with category and class ratings appropriate to the aircraft being flown.

B. Possess an appropriate medical certificate

C. If the flight is being conducted on a IFR flight plan, the person acting as PIC of the flight must hold an instrument rating and be instrument current

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7
Q

As an instrument rated pilot, can you fly IFR under BasicMed?

A

Pilots can fly as BasicMed (in covered AC) under VFR or IFR.

Must hold an instrument rating and be IFR current to act as PIC under IFR

AC must be approved for IFR operations when flying in IMC conditions

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8
Q

What conditions are necessary for a pilot to log instrument time?

A

A person may log instrument time only for that flight time when the person operates the aircraft solely by reference to instruments under actual OR simulated IFR

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9
Q

When logging instrument time, what should be included in each logbook entry?

A

Each entry must include the location and type of each instrument approach accomplished and the name of the safety pilot, if required.

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10
Q

What conditions must exist in order to log “actual” IFR time?

A

The FAA has never defined the term “actual”

A reasonable guideline would be any flight time that is accumulated in IMC (ie. below VFR minimums) with flight conducted solely by reference to instruments

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11
Q

What is the definition of the term “flight time”?

A

Pilot time that commences when an aircraft moves under its own power for the purpose of flight and ends when th aircraft comes to rest after landing

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12
Q

What requirements must be met before a pilot can log an IAP for currency or training?

A
  1. When conducted in an aircraft, sim, flight training device, the pilot must operate that AC or authorized training device solely by reference to instruments
  2. When conducted in an AC, sim, flight training device, the pilot must be established on each required segment of the IAP to the minimum decent altitude (MDA) or decision altitude/height (DA/DH)
  3. When conducted in an AC simulating instrument flight conditions, a sim, or flight training device, or aviation training device, the simulated IMC must continue to MDA or DA/DH.
  4. When conducted in an aircraft, the flight must be conducted under actual or simulated instrument flight conditions
  5. When conducted in an aircraft maneuvering in IMC, the aircraft transitions from IMC to visual flight conditions on the final approach segment of the IAP prior to or upon reaching MDA or DA/DH.
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13
Q

What are the four methods a pilot may use to conduct and then log IAPs?

A
  1. Actual IMC flown in an AC
  2. Simulated IMC, using a view limiting device, flown in an AC with a safety pilot
  3. Simulated IMC conducted in an FAA approved sim
  4. A combination of methods 1 thru 3
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14
Q

Is a pilot required to fly the entire approach procedure in order to log it for currency?

A

Except when being radar vectored to the final approach course, or otherwise directed through an appropriate ATC clearance to a specific IAP commencing at an IAF or associated feeder route and fly the initial segment of an IAP. If the pilot completes these segments, or receives vectors to the final approach course, they may log the IAP.

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15
Q

When flying an IAP in IMC, does the FAA require the ceiling to be at MDA or DA/DH before the approach may be logged?

A

No;

The two possible outcomes are the AC will transition from IMC to VMC allowing a landing, or the AC will remain in IMC and execute the missed approach at the MAP or DA/DH.

In both cases, the pilot may log the IAP.

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16
Q

How can the use of “PAVE” during preflight help a pilot assess and mitigate risk?

A

Use of PAVE provides pilots with a simple way to remember each category to examine for risk during flight planning.

Pilot
Aircraft
enVironment
External pressures

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17
Q

Explain how the use of a “personal minimums” checklist can help a pilot control risk?

A

It coincides with understanding the difference between “legal” versus “safe” or “smart”.

Personal minimums are limits unique to the pilot and their experience level

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18
Q

What information must a PIC be familiar with before flight?

A
Notams
Wx
Known ATC delays
Runway lengths
Alternates available 
Fuel requirements
Takeoff and landing distances
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19
Q

What are the fuel requirements for flight in IFR conditions?

A

Must carry enough fuel to complete flight to the first airport of intended landing, fly from that airport to an alternate, and fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruise speed.

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20
Q

Before conducting an IFR flight using GPS equipment for NAV, what basic preflight requirements must be conducted?

A

A. Verify that GPS is properly installed and certified for the planned IFR course

B. Verify database currency

C. Review GPS and WAAS NOTAMs

D. Review RAIM availability for non-WAAS receivers

E. Review operational status of ground based NAVAIDs and related AC equipment appropriate to the route of flight, terminal operations, instrument approaches, at the destination, and alternate approaches at ETA

F. Determine that the GPS receiver operation manual supplement is on board and available for use

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21
Q

Explain the function of RAIM

A

RAIM is a self-monitoring function performed by a TSO-129 certified GPS receiver to ensure that adequate GPS signals are being received at all times.

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22
Q

When is a RAIM check required?

A

TSO-C129 (non-WAAS) equipped AC - If TSO-C129 equipment is used solely to satisfy RNAV and RNP requirement, GPS RAIM availability must be confirmed

TSO-C145/146 (WAAS) equipped AC - If used to satisfy RNAV and RNP requirements, it is not necessary to perform RAIM prediction if WAAS coverage is confirmed to be available along entire route.

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23
Q

What are several methods a pilot can use to satisfy the prediction of RAIM requirement?

A

A. Contact a FSS (not DUATS) to obtain non-precision approach RAIM. Briefers will provide RAIM info for a period of 1 hour before and 1 hour after ETA

B. Service Availability Prediction Tool online

C. Third party interface

D. Use the receivers installed RAIM prediction capability to provide non-precision approach RAIM

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24
Q

What AC instruments/equipment are required for IFR ops?

A
Generator/alternator
Radios
Altimeter (sensitive)
Ball
Clock
Attitude indicator
Rate of turn
Directional gyro
DME or RNAV (for at/above FL240 if VOR equipment required for route)
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25
Q

What are the required tests and inspections to be performed on an AC?

A
Annual 
AD’s
VOR
100 hour
Altimeter (pitot static system)
Transponder
ELT
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26
Q

During preflight in AC that doesn’t have MEL, you notice INOP equipment. How do you determine if the AC is still airworthy?

A

A. Are INOP instruments/equipment part of VFR day-type certification?

B. Are INOP instruments/equipment listed as “required” on the AC equipment list or “Kinds of Operations Equipment List” for type of operation being conducted

C. Are they required by part 91.205, 91.207, or any other part 91 rule for the type of operation being conducted (VFR/IFR/dat/night ops)

D. Are they required by AD?

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27
Q

May portable electronic devices be operated on board an AC?

A

No person may operate portable electronic devices:

A. On AC operated by an air carrier or commercial operator

B. On any other AC while it is operated under IFR

Exceptions: Voice recorders, hearing aids, pace makers, electric shavers, or any device that will not cause interference with NAV/Comm systems

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28
Q

Are electronic chart systems approved for use as a replacement for paper charts?

A

Yes, when it is functional equivalent of paper charts, is current, up-to-date, and valid

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29
Q

What documents are required on board an AC prior to flight?

A
Airworthiness certificate
Registration
Radio License (if international)
Operating limitations - AFM/POH
Weight and balance

Compass deviation card
External data plate/SN

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30
Q

What additional documentation should be on board an AC equipped with an IFR approved GPS?

A

Airplane Flight Manual Supplement and Cockpit Reference Guide

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31
Q

How often are GPS databases required to be updated?

A

NAV - Every 28 days

Obstacle databases - Every 56 days

Terrain - As needed

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32
Q

Can a GPS with expired database be used for IFR operations?

A

Must be current if used for IFR approaches

Some units allow enroute IFR ops if waypoints are manually verified with paper charts

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33
Q

Can a pilot perform the required database updates or must the action be accomplished by Mx?

A

Updates may be performed by the pilot if they can be initiated from the flight deck, don’t require disassembly, without use of tools.

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34
Q

When utilizing GPS for IFR navigation , are you required to have an alternate means of navigation appropriate for the route of flight?

A

AC using non-WAAS navigation equipment under IFR must be equipped with an approved/operational alternate means of navigation appropriate to the route. Ensure the equipment is onboard, operational, and all required checks have been performed. Active monitoring is not required when RAIM is available, but is required when RAIM is lost.

AC equipped with WAAS receiver may use WAAS as primary navigation. No alternate means is necessary.

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35
Q

How can a pilot determine what type of ops a GPS receiver is approved for?

A

Reference the AFM and AFM supplement.

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36
Q

Can a handheld GPS receiver be used for IFR navigation?

A

VFR and handheld GPS systems are not authorized for IFR navigation, IAP, or as a principal instrument flight reference. ONLY for situational awareness.

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37
Q

When must a pilot file an IFR flight plan?

A

Prior to departure from within or prior to entering controlled airspace, a pilot must complete, file and receive clearance from ATC if Wx is below minimums.

The pilot should file at least 30 minutes prior to ETD.

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38
Q

When will ATC delete from the system a departure flight plan that has not been activated?

A

A minimum of 2 hours after proposed departure time. If delayed more than 2 hours, pilot should notify ATC

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39
Q

When can you cancel your IFR flight plan?

A

At any time the flight is operating in VFR conditions outside of Class A airspace.

Pilots must be aware that other procedures may be applicable to a flight that cancels an IFR flight plan within an area where a special program, such as TRSA, Class C airspace, or Class B airspace has been established.

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40
Q

After filing an IFR flight plan, can you depart VFR and pick up your IFR clearance in the air?

A

A VFR departure can be used as a tool that allows you to get off the ground without having to wait for a time slot in the IFR system.

Departing VFR with intent of receiving an IFR clearance in the air may present hazards. A VFR departure changes takeoff responsibilities for you and ATC:

  1. Upon receiving clearance for a VFR departure, you are cleared to depart; however you must maintain separation between yourself and other traffic.
  2. You are responsible for maintaining terrain and obstruction clearance as well as remaining in VFR Wx. You can not fly into IMC without receiving IFR clearance.
  3. Departing VFR relieves ATC of these duties and requires them only to provide you with safety alerts as workload permits.
  4. You must maintain VFR until you have obtained IFR clearance and have ATC approval to proceed on course in accordance with your clearance. If you accept this clearance and are below minimum IFR altitude for ops in the area, you accept responsibility for terrain/obstruction clearance until you reach that altitude.
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41
Q

The requested altitude on an FAA flight plan form represents which altitude for the route of flight - the initial, lowest, or highest?

A

Enter only the initial altitude requested. When more than one IFR altitude or flight level is desired along the route of flight, it is best to make a subsequent request direct to the controller

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42
Q

What are the alternate airport requirements?

A

1-2-3 rule

If from one hour before to one hour after your planned ETA at the destination airport, the Wx is forecast to be at least 2,000-foot ceilings and 3-mile visibilities, no alternate is required.

If less than 2,000-foot ceilings/3 mile visibilities, an alternate is required using the following criteria:

A. If an IAP is published for the airport, the alternate minimums specified in that procedure or, if none are specified, the following minimums:

 - Precision Approach Procedure:     600-foot ceiling/2 SM visibility
 - Non-Precision Approach Procedure:     800-foot ceiling/2 SM visibility

B. If no IAP has been published for that airport, the ceiling and visibility minimums are those allowing a decent from the MEA, approach, and landing under basic VFR.

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43
Q

During preflight planning, you notice that your destination airport has no published IAP. The Wx is forecast to be 3,000-foot ceilings with 5 SM visibility within 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA.

Are you required to file an alternate airport?

A

Yes;

Each person filing IFR flight plan must include in it:

A. Info required under 14 CFR 91.153 (VFR flight plan)

B. An alternate airport

An alternate MUST be included unless:

  1. The first airport of intended landing has a SIAP or special IAP, and
  2. Appropriate Wx reports or forecasts, or a combination of them, indicate the following for at least 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA, the ceiling will be at least 2,000-feet and visibility will be at least 3 SM.
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44
Q

What is the definition of the term “ceiling”?

A

Height above the earth’s surface of lowest layer of clouds or obscuring phenomena reported as “broken” or “overcast”, or “obscuration” and not classified as “thin” or “partial”.

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45
Q

What minimums are to be used on arrival at the alternate?

A

If an IAP has been published for that airport, the minimums specified in that procedure are used.

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46
Q

What restrictions apply concerning filing an airport as an alternate when using TSO-C129/TSO-C196 (non-WAAS) GPS equipment?

A

Non-WAAS GPS users may file a flight plan for a GPS-based IAP at either the destination or the alternate airport, but not both locations.

At the alternate airport, pilots may plan for applicable alternate airport Wx minimums using:

A. LNAV or circling MDA
B. LNAV/VNAV DA, if equipped with and using approved baro-VNAV equipment
C. RNP 0.3 DA on an RNAV (RNP) IAP if specifically authorized with approved baro-VNAV equipment

To take advantage of this option the pilot must:

A. Ensure the navigation system has fault detection and exclusion (FDE) capability
B. Perform preflight RAIM prediction at the airport where the RNAV (GPS) approach will be flown
C. Have proper knowledge and any required training and/or approval to conduct a GPS-based IAP

If the above conditions cannot be met, any required alternate airport must have an approved IAP other than GPS that is not anticipated to be operational and available at the ETA, and which the AC is equipped to fly.

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47
Q

What IAP may you flight plan to use as the planned approach at the required alternate when using WAAS equipment?

A

PIlots with WAAS receivers may flight plan to use any IAP authorized for use with their WAAS avionics as the planned approach at a required alternate, with certain restrictions.

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48
Q

What restrictions apply to flight planning when using WAAS avionics at the alternate airport?

A

When using WAAS avionics at an alternate airport, flight planning must be based on flying RNAV (GPS) LNAV or circling minima line, or minima on a GPS approach procedure, or conventional approach procedure with “or GPS” in the title. 14 CFR Part 91 non-precision Wx requirements must be used for planning.

Upon arrival at an alternate, when the WAAS nav system indicates that LNAV/VNAV or LPV service is available, then vertical guidance may be used to complete the approach using the displayed level of service.

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49
Q

What are preferred routes and where can they be found?

A

Preferred routes are those established between busier airports to increase system efficiency and capacity. Preferred routes are listed in the Chart Supplement U.S.

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50
Q

What are Enroute Low Altitude Charts?

A

Provide aeronautical info for navigation under IFR conditions below 18,000 MSL. These charts are revised every 56 days. All courses are magnetic and distances are nautical miles.

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51
Q

What are Enroute High Altitude Charts?

A

Designed for navigation at or above 18,000 feet MSL. This four color chart series includes the jet route structure; VHF NAVAIDs with frequency, identification, channel, geographic coordinates; selected airports; reporting points. Revised every 56 days.

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52
Q

What are “area charts”?

A

Show congested terminal areas at a large scale. They are included with subscriptions to any conterminous U.S. set Low. Revised every 56 days.

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53
Q

Where can updated information be obtained about changes to charts that occurred between chart publication dates?

A

The Chart Supplement U.S. provides a means for pilots to update visual charts between edition dates. Chart Supplement is issued every 56 days while sectional and VFR terminal area charts are generally revised every 6 months

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54
Q

What other useful information can be found in the Chart Supplement U.S. which might be helpful in route planning?

A

A. Special notices

B. ARTCCs

C. FSS frequencies

D. Routes/waypoints

E. GPS Q routes

F. VOR receiver checkpoints

G. Aeronautical chart bulletins

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55
Q

How does a pilot determine the type and status of an instrument approach light system at the destination airport?

A

The pilot should check the Chart Supplement US and any NOTAMs to determine the availability and status of any lighting systems, intensities, and radio controlled light system frequencies. An FSS briefer will also have access to any recent changes in the status of airport lighting systems.

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56
Q

What are NOTAMs?

A

Notice to Airmen

Time critical information, which is either temporary or not known sufficiently in advance to permit publication on charts or other publications, receives immediate dissemination via the NOTAM system.

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57
Q

Explain the following types of NOTAMs:

(D) NOTAMs

FDC NOTAMs

Pointer NOTAMs

Military NOTAMs

SAA NOTAMs

A

(D): Info that requires wide dissemination via telecommunications, regarding enroute NAVAIDs, civil public use airports listed in Chart Supplement US, facilities, services, and procedures.

FDC: Flight info that is regulatory in nature including, but not limited to, changes to IFR charts, procedures, and airspace usage.

Pointer: Issued by FSS to highlight another NOTAM.

Military: These pertain to US Air Force, Army, Marine, and Navy NAVAIDs/airports that are part of the NAS.

SAA: Issued when Special Activity Airspace will be active outside the published schedule times and when required, SAA includes special use airspace (restricted area, MOA, warning area, and alert area airspace), instrument and visual military training routes, aerial refueling tracks and anchors.

FICON: (Field condition) provide contamination measurements for paved RWYs

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58
Q

All (D) NOTAMs will have keywords contained within the first part of the text. What are several examples of these keywords?

A

RWY, TWY, APRON, AD, OBST, NAV, COM, AIRSPACE, ODP, SID, STAR, CHART, DATA, IAP, VFP, ROUTE…

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59
Q

Where can NOTAM info be obtained?

A

A. FSS

B. DUATS vendors

C. Notices to Airman publication

D. FAA website

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60
Q

How can a pilot obtain the latest GPS NOTAMs?

A

A pilot can specifically request GPS aeronautical information from a FSS during preflight briefing. Also, NOTAMs about known GPS service disruptions can be found online.

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61
Q

What do the NOTAM terms “UNRELIABLE” and “MAY NOT BE AVAILABLE” indicate when used in conjunction with GPS and WAAS NOTAMs?

A

The terms are advisories to pilots indicating the expected level of service may not be available. “UNRELIABLE” does not mean there is a problem with GPS signal integrity. If GPS service is available, pilots may continue ops. If the LNAV or LNAV/VNAV service is available, pilots may use the displayed level of service to fly the approach. When flying an approach at a location NOTAM’d “WAAS MAY NOT BE AVBL”, if the WAAS avionics indicate LNAV/VNAV or LPV service is available, then vertical guidance may be used to complete the approach using the displayed level of service. Should an outage occur during an approach, reversion to LNAV minima or an alternate IAP may be required.

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62
Q

When flight planning an RNAV route, where should your route begin and end?

A

Plan the random route portion of the flight to plan to begin and end over appropriate arrival and departure transition fixes or appropriate NAVAIDs for the altitude stratum within which the flight will be conducted. The use of normal or preferred departure and arrival routes (DP/STAR), where established, is recommended.

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63
Q

What instruments operate from the pitot/static system?

A

The altimeter, VSI, and airspeed indicator. All 3 instruments receive static air pressure. The airspeed indicator receives both static and pitot pressure.

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64
Q

How does the altimeter work?

A

In an altimeter, aneroid wafers expand and contract as atmospheric pressure changes, and through a shaft and gear linkage, rotate pointers on the dial of the instrument.

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65
Q

What type of errors is the altimeter subject to?

A

A. Mechanical errors: Differences between ambient temperature and pressure can cause erroneous indication on the altimeter

B. Inherent errors: Non-standard temperature and pressure

 -     Warmer than standard: Air is less dense and the pressure levels are farther apart.  
 Pressure level for a given altitude is higher than it would be in air at standard temperature, and the     
 AC is higher than it would be if the air were cooler.  True altitude is higher than indicated when  
 temperature is warmer than ISA.  

 -     Colder than standard:     Air is more dense at pressure levels are closer together.  
 The pressure level for a given altitude is lower than it would be in air at ISA, and the AC is lower than 
 it would be if the air were warmer.  True altitude is lower than indicated altitude when the   
 temperature is colder than ISA.

C. Extreme Cold Altimeter Errors: A correctly calibrated pressure altimeter indicates true altitude above MSL when operating within ISA parameters of pressure and temperature. When operating in extreme cold, pilots may wish to compensate for the reduction in terrain clearance by adding a cold temperature correction.

D. High pressure to low pressure: In an AC is flown from an area of high pressure to an area of lower pressure without adjusting the altimeter, the true altitude will be lower than indicated.

E. Low pressure to high pressure: If an AC is flown from an area of low pressure to high pressure, the true altitude will be higher than indicated.

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66
Q

For an IFR flight, what is the maximum allowable error for an altimeter?

A

75 feet of field elevation

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67
Q

Define and state how to determine Indicated Altitude

A

Read directly from the altimeter when set to the current altimeter setting

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68
Q

Define and state how to determine true altitude

A

The vertical distance of the AC above MSL.

Airport, terrain, and obstacle elevations on aeronautical charts are true altitudes.

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69
Q

Define and state how to determine Absolute Altitude

A

The vertical distance of an AC above the terrain, or above ground level (AGL). It may be read on a radio/radar altimeter.

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70
Q

Define and state how to determine pressure altitude

A

Indicated altitude with an altimeter set to 29.92 in. Hg. Pressure altitude is used to compare density altitude, true altitude, TAS and other performance data.

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71
Q

Define and state how to determine Density Altitude

A

Pressure altitude corrected for variations from standard temperature

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72
Q

Does adjusting the altimeters Kollsman window have any effect on the altitude that is displayed to an ATC controller? Why?

A

No, encoding altimeter measures the pressure referenced to 29.92” Hg and delivers this data to the transponder. When a pilot adjusts the barometric scale to the local altimeter setting, the data sent to the transponder is not affected. This is too ensure that all Mode C aircraft are transmitting altitude data referenced to a common pressure level. ATC equipment adjusts the displayed altitudes to compensate for local pressure differences allowing display of targets at correct altitudes.

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73
Q

How does the airspeed indicator operate?

A

It measures the difference between RAM pressure from the pitot and atmospheric pressure from the static source.

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74
Q

What are the limitations the airspeed indicator is subject to?

A

Position error, density error, & compressibility error

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75
Q

Describe position errors in airspeed indicator

A

Caused by static ports sensing erroneous static pressure; slipstream flow causes disturbances at the static port preventing actual atmospheric pressure measurement. It varies with airspeed, altitude, configuration and may be a plus or minus value.

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76
Q

Describe density error in an airspeed indicator

A

Changes in altitude and temperature are not compensated for by the instrument

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77
Q

Describe compressibility error in airspeed indicators

A

Caused by the packing of error into the pitot tube at high airspeeds, resulting in higher than normal indications. It usually occurs above 180 KIAS.

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78
Q

What are the different types of aircraft speeds?

A

Indicated Airspeed (IAS), Calibrated Airspeed (CAS), Equivalent Airspeed (EAS), and True Airpeed (TAS)

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79
Q

What is indicated airspeed (IAS)?

A

Shown on the dial of the instrument, uncorrected for instrument or system errors

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80
Q

What is Equivalent Airspeed (EAS)?

A

CAS corrected for compression of the air inside the pitot tube. EAS is the same as CAS in standard atmosphere at sea level. As the airspeed and pressure altitude increase, the CAS becomes higher than it should be, and a correction for compression must be subtracted from the CAS.

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81
Q

What is calibrated airspeed (CAS)?

A

The speed at which the AC is moving through the air, which is found by correcting IAS for instrument and position errors. The POH/AFM has a chart to correct IAS for these errors and provide the correct CAS for the various flap and gear settings.

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82
Q

What is true airspeed (TAS)?

A

CAS corrected for nonstandard pressure and temperature. TAS and CAS are the same in standard atmosphere at sea level. Under nonstandard conditions, TAS is found by applying a correction for pressure altitude and temperature to the CAS.

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83
Q

What airspeeds is indicated by the white arc found on the dial of an airspeed indicator?

A

Flap operating range

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84
Q

What airspeed is indicated by the lower limit of the white arc on the airspeed indicator (Vso)?

A

Stall speed or minimum steady flight speed in landing configuration (gear and flaps down)

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85
Q

What airspeed is indicated by the upper limit of the white arc on the dial of the airspeed indicator?

A

Max speed with the flaps extended

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86
Q

What airspeed is indicated by the green arc on the dial of the airspeed indicator?

A

Normal operating range

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87
Q

What airspeed is indicated by the lower limit of the green arc (Vs1) on the dial of the airspeed indicator?

A

Stall speed or minimum steady flight speed obtained in a specified or clean configuration

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88
Q

What airspeed is indicated by the upper limit of the green arc (Vno) on the dial of the airspeed indicator?

A

Maximum structural cruising speed. Do not exceed this speed except in smooth air

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89
Q

What airspeed is indicated by the yellow arc on the dial of the airspeed indicator?

A

Caution range; fly within this range only in smooth air, and then, only with caution

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90
Q

What airspeed is indicated by the red line (Vne) on the dial of the airspeed indicator?

A

Never exceed speed; operating above this speed is prohibited; may result in damage or structural failure.

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91
Q

How does the VSI work?

A

Rate of pressure change instrument that gives an indication of any deviation from a constant pressure level. Inside the VSI case is an aneroid. Both the inside of the aneroid and the inside of the case are vented to the static system. The case is vented through a calibrated orifice that causes the pressure inside the case to change more slowly than the pressure inside the aneroid. Changing pressures inside the case and aneroid compress and expand the aneroid, moving the pointer up or down.

92
Q

What are the limitations of the VSI?

A

It is not accurate until the AC is stabilized. Sudden or abrupt changes in the AC attitude will cause erroneous instrument readings as airflow fluctuates over the static port. These changes are not reflected immediately by the VSI due to the calibrated leak.

93
Q

What instruments are affected when the pitot tube ram air inlet and drain hole freeze?

A

Only the airspeed indicator will be affected. It will act as an altimeter - read higher as the aircraft climbs and lower as the aircraft descends. It reads lower than actual speed in level flight.

94
Q

What instruments are affected when the static port freezes?

A

Airspeed indicator, altimeter, and VSI are all impacted.

95
Q

How does the airspeed indicator read if the static ports are frozen?

A

Accurate at the altitude frozen as long as static pressure in the indicator and the system is equal to outside pressure. In descent, it will read high. In climb, it will read low.

96
Q

How does the altimeter read if the static ports are frozen?

A

Indicates the altitude at which the system is blocked

97
Q

How does the VSI read if the static ports are frozen?

A

Will indicate level flight

98
Q

If the air temperature is +6 degrees Celcius at an airport elevation of 1,200 feet and a standard (average) temperature lapse rate exists, what will be the approximate freezing level?

A

4,200 feet MSL; 6 degrees Celsius at the surface divided by the average temperature lapse rate of 2 degrees Celcius results in a 3,000-foot freezing level, converted to sea level by adding the 1,200 foot airport elevation.

99
Q

What corrective action is needed if the pitot tube freezes? If the static port freezes?

A

For pitot tube, turn on the pitot heat. For static ports, use alternate air, if available, or break the face of the static instrument

100
Q

What indications should you expect while using alternate air?

A

Altimeter will indicate higher than the actual altitude. Airspeed will indicate greater than the actual airspeed. VSI will show a momentary climb, then stabilize, if in level flight.

101
Q

What instruments contain gyroscopes?

A

The attitude indicator, heading indicator, and turn coordinator

102
Q

Name several types of power sources commonly used to power the gyroscopic instruments

A

Electrical, pnuematic, venturi tube, wet-type vacuum pump, and dry air pump systems. Redundancy is designed into instrument systems to prevent failure of one power source to prevent failure of all gyro instruments. Typically, the heading indicator and attitude indicator will be vacuum driven and the turn coordinator is electrically driven.

103
Q

How does the vacuum system operate?

A

The vacuum or pressure system spins the gyro by drawing a stream of air against the rotor vanes to spin the rotor at high speeds, essentially the same as a water wheel or turbine operates. The amount of vacuum or pressure required for instrument operation varies. It is usually between 4.5 to 5.5” Hg. One source of vacuum for the gyros installed in a light AC us the vane type engine driven pump, mounted on the accessory case of the engine.

104
Q

What are to important characteristics of gyroscopes?

A

Rigidity in space and precession

A. Rigidity: Prevents its axis of rotation tilting as the earth rotates; attitude and heading instruments operate on this principle

B. Precession: Causes an applied force to be felt, not at the point of application, but 90 degrees from that point in the direction of rotation. Rate instruments such as the turn coordinator use this principle

105
Q

How does the turn coordinator operate?

A

The turn part of the instrument uses precession to indicate direction and approximate rate of turn. A gyro reacts by trying to move in reaction to the force applied, thus moving the miniature AC in proportion to the rate of turn. The inclinometer in the instrument is a black glass ball sealed inside a curved glass tube that is partially filled with a liquid. The ball measures the relative strength of the force of gravity and the force of inertia caused by a turn.

106
Q

What information does the turn coordinator provide?

A

The miniature AC in the TC displays the rate of turn, the rate of roll and direction of turn. The ball in the tube indicates the quality of turn (slip or skid).

Slip - Ball on the inside of the turn; not enough rate of turn for the amount of bank.

Skid - Ball on the outside of the turn, too much rate of turn for the amount of bank.

107
Q

What is the source of power for the turn coordinator?

A

Can be driven electrically or by air. Some are dual-powered.

108
Q

How does the heading indicator work?

A

Works on the principle of rigidity in space. The rotor turns in a vertical plane, and fixed to the rotor is a compass card. Since the rotor remains rigid in space, the points on the card hold the same position in space relative to the vertical plane. As the instrument case and the airplane revolve around the vertical axis, the card provides clear and accurate heading info.

109
Q

What are the limitations of the heading indicator?

A

They vary with the particular design. Some indicators in light airplanes, the limits are approximately 55 degrees of pitch and bank. When either of these are exceeded, the instrument “tumbles” and no longer gives the correct indication until reset.

110
Q

What type of error is the heading indicator subject to?

A

Because of precession (caused by friction), the heading indicator will drift from the heading it is set to. The amount depends on instrument condition. The gyro is oriented in space and the earth rotates in space at a rate of 15 degrees in 1 hour; therefore, discounting precession caused by friction, the heading indicator may indicate as much ass 15 degrees of error per every hour of operation

111
Q

How does the attitude indicator work?

A

The gyro is mounted on a horizontal plane and depends upon rigidity. The horizon bar represents the true horizon and is fixed to the gyro; it remains in a horizontal plane as the airplane is pitched or banked about its lateral or longitudinal axis, indicating the attitude of the airplane relative to the true horizon.

112
Q

What are the limitations of an attitude indicator?

A

Depend upon make and model of the instrument. Bank limits are usually 100 to 110 degrees. Pitch limits are usually 60 to 70 degrees. If either limit is exceeded, the instrument will tumble or spill and will give incorrect indications until restabilized.

113
Q

Is the attitude indicator subject to errors?

A

Free from most errors. There may be slight nose-up indication during rapid acceleration and nose down indications during rapid deceleration. Also a possibility of a small bank angle and pitch error after a 180 degree turn. On rollout from a 180 degree turn, the AI will indicate a slight climb and turn in the opposite direction of rollout. These inherent errors are small and correct themselves within a minute or so after returning to straight and level flight.

114
Q

How does the magnetic compass work?

A

Magnets mounted on the compass card align themselves parallel to the Earth’s lines of magnetic force.

115
Q

What limitations does the magnetic compass have?

A

The jewel-and-pivot type mounting gives the float freedom to rotate and tilt up to approximate 18 degrees angle of bank. At steeper bank angles, the compass indications are erratic and unpredictable.

116
Q

What are the various compass errors?

A

Oscillation error, deviation error, variation error, dip errors ( acceleration, northerly, and southerly turning errors)

117
Q

What is oscillation error in a magnetic compass?

A

Erratic movement of the compass card caused by turbulence or rough control technique

118
Q

What is deviation error in a magnetic compass?

A

Due to electrical and magnetic disturbances in AC

119
Q

What is variation error in magnetic compasses?

A

Angular difference between true and magnetic north

120
Q

What are the different dip errors in magnetic compasses?

A

A. Acceleration errors: On east or west headings, while accelerating, the magnetic compass shows a
turn to the north, and when decelerating, it shows a turn to the south

    ANDS - Accelerate North, Decelerate South

B. Northerly turning error: When turning in a northerly direction, the compass float assembly leads
rather than lags resulting in a false northerly turn indication. Because of this lead of the compass
card, or float assembly, a northerly turn should be stopped prior to arrival at the desired heading.

C. Southerly turning error: When turning in a southerly heading direction, the compass float
assembly lags rather than leads resulting in a false southerly turn indication. The compass card
should be allowed to pass the desired heading prior to stopping the turn.

UNOS - Undershoot North, Overshoot South

121
Q

Describe the function of the PFD?

A

A primary flight display provides increased situational awareness by replacing the traditional six instruments used for instrument flight with an easy to scan display that provides the horizon, altitude, VSI, trend, trim, and rate of turn.

122
Q

Describe the function of the MFD?

A

A multifunction display presents info such as nav data, moving maps, AC systems info, or PFD info.

123
Q

Describe the function of the AHRS

A

The attitude and heading reference system is composed of three-axis sensors that provide heading attitude and yaw info. GPS, solid state magnetometers, solid state accelerometers, and digital air data signals are combined in an AHRS to compute and output highly reliable information to the cockpit PFD.

124
Q

Describe the function of the ADC

A

The air data computer processes ram air, static air, and temperature and provides altitude, IAS, vertical speed, and wind direction/velocity

125
Q

Describe the function of the FMS

A

The flight management system contains a database to allow programming of routes, approaches, and departures that can supply navigation data to the flight director/autopilot from various sources, and can calculate flight data such as fuel consumption, time remaining, possible range, and other values

126
Q

Describe the function of the FD

A

The flight director is an electronic flight calculator that analyzes the navigational selections, signals, and AC parameters. It presents steering instructions on the flight display as command bars or crossbars for the pilot to position the nose of the AC over or follow.

127
Q

Describe the function of TAWS

A

The terrain awareness and warning system uses the ACs GPS navigation signal and altimetry systems to compare the position and trajectory of the AC against a more detailed terrain and obstacle database. This database attempts to detail every obstruction that could pose a threat to an AC in flight.

128
Q

Describe the function of TIS

A

The traffic information service is a ground based advanced avionics traffic display system which receives transmissions on locations of nearby AC from radar equipped ATC facilities and provides alerts and warnings to the pilot.

129
Q

What is the function of the magnetometer?

A

A device that measures the strength of the earth’s magnetic field to determine the AC heading. It provides this info digitally to the AHRS, which relays it to the PFD.

130
Q

Does an AC have to remain stationary during AHRS system initialization?

A

Some AHRSs must be initialized on the ground prior to departure. The initialization procedure allows the system to establish a reference attitude used as a benchmark for all future attitude changes. Other systems are capable of initialization while taxiing as well as in flight.

131
Q

If a failure of one of the displays occurs in an AC with an electronic flight display, what will happen to the remaining operative display?

A

In the event of a display failure, some systems offer a “reversion” capability to display the primary flight instruments and engine instruments on the remaining operative display.

132
Q

When a display failure occurs, what other system components will be affected?

A

In some systems, failure of a display will also result in partial loss of navigation, comms, and GPS capability. Reference your AFM/POH

133
Q

What display information will be affected when an ADC failure occurs?

A

INOP airspeed, altitude, and VSI on the PFD indicate the failure of the air data computer

134
Q

What display info will be lost when an AHRS failure occurs?

A

An INOP attitude indicator on a PFD indicates failure of the AHRS

135
Q

How will the loss of a magnetometer affect the AHRS?

A

Heading information will be lost

136
Q

At what rate does the atmospheric pressure decrease with an increase in altitude?

A

Decreases approximately 1” Hg per 1,000 feet

137
Q

What are the standard temperature ad pressure values for sea level?

A

15 degrees Celsius and 29.92” Hg

138
Q

State the general characteristics in regard to the flow of air around high and low pressure systems in the northern hemisphere

A

Low pressure: Air flows inward, upward, and counterclockwise

High pressure: Air flows outward, downward, and clockwise

139
Q

If your route of flight takes you towards a low pressure system, what kind of weather in general can you expect? What if you were flying towards a high pressure system?

A

Low pressure: Rising air conducive to cloudiness, precipitation, and bad weather

High pressure: Descending air which tends to favor dissipation of cloudiness and good weather

140
Q

Describe a cold front

A

Occurs when a mass of cold, dense and stable air advances and replaces a body of warmer air

141
Q

Describe an occluded front

A

A frontal occlusion occurring when a fast moving cold front catches up to a slow moving warm front. There are two types, a cold front occlusion and a warm front occlusion

142
Q

Describe a warm front

A

The boundary area formed when a warm air mass contacts and flows over a colder air mass

143
Q

Describe a stationary front

A

When the forces of 2 air masses are relatively equal, the boundary or front that separates them remains stationary and influences local weather for days. The weather is typically a mixture of both warm and cold fronts.

144
Q

What are the general characteristics of Wx that would be encountered near a cold front?

A

Towering cumulus or cumulonimbus, heavy rain, lightening, thunder and/or hail, tornadoes possible. During passage, poor visibility, winds variable and gusting, temperature/due point and barometric pressure drop rapidly

145
Q

What are the general characteristics of Wx that would be encountered near a warm front?

A

Can include stratiform clouds, drizzle, low ceilings, poor visibility, variable winds, and a rise in temperature.

146
Q

What is a “trough”?

A

An elongated area of relatively low pressure. At the surface when the air converges into a low, it cannot go outward against the pressure gradient, nor can it go downward into the ground. It must go upward. Therefore, a low or trough is an area of rising air.

Rising air is conducive to cloudiness and precipitation.

147
Q

What is a “ridge”?

A

An elongated area of relatively high pressure. Air moving out of a high depletes the quantity of air, therefore these are areas of descending air. Descending air favors dissipation of clouds.

148
Q

What causes the winds aloft to flow parallel to the isobars?

A

Coriolis force

149
Q

Why do surface winds generally flow across the isobars at an angle?

A

Surface friction

150
Q

When temperature and dew point are close together, what type of weather is likely?

A

Visible moisture in the form of clouds, dew and fog.

151
Q

What factor primarily determines the type and vertical extent of clouds?

A

The stability of the atmosphere

152
Q

Explain the difference between a stable atmosphere and an unstable atmosphere. Why is atmospheric stability important?

A

The stability of the atmosphere depends on its ability to resist vertical movement. A stable atmosphere makes vertical movement difficult. In an unstable atmosphere, small vertical disturbances become larger, resulting in turbulence and convective activity.

Instability can lead to significant turbulence, extensive vertical clouds, and severe weather.

153
Q

How do you determine the stability of the atmosphere?

A

When temperature decreases uniformly and rapidly as you climb, you have an indication of unstable air (approaching 3 degrees Celsius per 1,000 feet). When the air near the surface surface is warm and moist, suspect instability.

If the temperature remains unchanged or decreases only slightly with altitude, the air tends to be stable.

154
Q

List the affects of stable air on clouds, turbulence, precipitation, and visibility?

A

A. Clouds: Stratiform

B. Turbulence: Smooth

C. Precipitation: Steady

D. Visibility: Fair to poor

155
Q

List the affects of unstable air on clouds, turbulence, precipitation, and visibility?

A

A. Clouds: Cumuliform

B. Turbulence: Rough

C. Precipitation: Showery

D. Visibility: Good

156
Q

What are the main types of icing AC may encounter?

A

Structural, induction system, and instrument icing

157
Q

Name the three types of structural ice that may occur

A

Clear ice, rime ice, and mixed icing.

158
Q

What is clear icing?

A

Glossy, clear ice formed by relatively slow freezing of large, supercooled water droplets. Typical with warmer temperatures, higher liquid water contents, and larger droplets.

Typically occurs in temperatures warmer than -10 degrees Celsius

159
Q

What is rime icing?

A

A rough, milky, opaque icing formed by instantaneous freezing of small, supercooled water droplets. Favors colder temperatures, lower liquid content, and small droplets.

Typically occurs in conditions colder than -15 degrees Celsius

160
Q

What is mixed icing?

A

A mixture of clear and rime icing. Appears as layers of relatively clear and opaque ice when examined from the side.

Typically occurs between -10 to -15 degrees Celsius.

161
Q

Describe the types of icing found in stratiform clouds?

A

Both rime and clear ice. Icing in middle and low-level stratiform clouds is confined, on average, to a layer between 3,000 to 4,000 feet thick. A change in altitude of only a few thousand feet may take the AC out of icing conditions, even if it remains in clouds. The main hazard lies in the great horizontal extent of stratiform cloud layers.

162
Q

Describe the types of icing found in cumuliform clouds

A

Usually clear or mixed with rime in upper levels. The icing layer is smaller horizontally, but greater vertically than stratiform clouds. Icing is more variable because the factors conducive to icing depend on the particular clouds stage of development. Intensities may range from a trace in small cumulus to severe in large towering cumulus/cumulonimbus, especially in the upper portion of the cloud where the updraft is concentrated and super-cooled droplets are plentiful.

163
Q

What is necessary for structural icing to occur?

A

The AC must be flying through visible water such as rain or cloud droplets; temperature must be at a point where moisture strikes the AC at 0 degrees Celsius or colder.

164
Q

What are the intensity categories of AC structural icing?

A

Trace, light, moderate, and severe

165
Q

Describe trace icing

A

Ice becomes perceptible; rate of accumulation slightly greater than sublimation; deicing/anti-icing equipment is not used unless encountered for extended period (over 1 hour)

166
Q

Describe light icing

A

Rate of accumulation may create a problem if flight is prolonged in this environment (over 1 hour). Occasional use of de-icing/anti-icing equipment removes or prevents accumulation

167
Q

Describe moderate icing

A

The rate of accumulation is such that even short encounters become potentially hazardous; use of de-icing/anti-icing equipment or diversion necessary

168
Q

Describe severe icing

A

Rate of accumulation is such that de-icing/anti-icing equipment fails to reduce or control the hazard. Immediate diversion is necessary

169
Q

During preflight planning, what type of meteorological info should you be aware of with respect to icing?

A

A. Location of fronts

B. Cloud layers

C. Freezing level

D. Air temperature and pressure

E. Precipitation

170
Q

What is the definition of “freezing level” and how can you determine where that level is?

A

It is the lowest altitude in the atmosphere over a given location at which the air temperature reaches 0 degrees Celsius. It is possible to have multiple freezing layers when a temperature inversion occurs above the defined freezing level.

Potential sources of icing info for determining its location are:

A. Area forecasts

B. PIREPs

C. SIGMETs

D. AIRMETs

E. Convective SIGMETs

F. Low level significant Wx charts

G. Surface analysis

H. Winds and Temperatures Aloft

I. Graphical data including freezing level graphics, the current icing production, and forecast icing
product available online

171
Q

What are the factors necessary for a thunderstorm to form and what are the three stages of thunderstorm development?

A

Must have sufficient water vapor, an unstable lapse rate, and in initial lifting action

A. Cumulus: Characterized by strong updraft

B. Mature: Precipitation beginning to fall from the cloud base signals that a downdraft has
developed

C. Dissipating: Downdrafts characterize this stage. Storm dies rapidly.

172
Q

What are squall line thunderstorms?

A

A non-frontal, narrow band of active thunderstorms. Often develop ahead of a cold front in moist, unstable air, but it may also develop in unstable air far removed from any front. The line may be too long to easily detour and too wide and severe to penetrate. It often contains severe steady-state thunderstorms and presents the single most intense weather hazard to AC. It usually forms rapidly, reaching max intensity during late afternoon and the first few hours of darkness.

173
Q

State 2 basic ways fog may form

A

A. By cooling air to dew point

B. By adding moisture to the air near the ground

174
Q

Name several types of fog

A

Radiation, advection, upslope, frontal/precipitation induced, steam

175
Q

What causes radiation fog?

A

A clear sky, little or no wind, and small temperature/dew point spread. The fog forms almost exclusively at night or near daybreak

176
Q

What is advection fog and where is it most likely to form?

A

When moist air moves over colder ground, or water. It is most common along coastal areas but often develops deep in continental areas.

Unlike radiation fog, it may occur with winds, cloudy skies, over wide geographical area, and at any time of day or night. It deepens as wind speed increases up to about 15 knots; wind much stronger than 15 knots lifts the fog into a layer of low stratus or stratocumulus.

177
Q

Define upslope fog

A

Moist stable air being cooled adiabatically as it moves up sloping terrain. Once upslope wind ceases, the fog dissipates.

Unlike radiation fog , it can form under cloudy skies. It is common along the eastern slopes of the Rockies and somewhat less frequent east of the Appalachians. Can also be quite dense and extend to high altitudes.

178
Q

How does steam fog form?

A

When very cold air moves across relatively warm water, enough moisture may evaporate from the water surface to produce saturation. As the rising water vapor meets cold air, it immediately re-condenses and rises with the air that is being warmed from below. Because the air is destabilized, fog appears as rising filaments or streamers that resemble steam.

Commonly observed over lakes and streams on cold autumn mornings, and over the ocean during the winter when cold air masses move off the continents and ice shelves.

179
Q

Explain how frontal (or precipitation induced) fog forms

A

When warm, moist air is lifted over a front, clouds and precipitation may form. If the cold air below is near its dew point, evaporation from the precipitation may saturate the cold air and form fog.

Frontal fog can become quite dense, continue for extended periods, and extend over large areas. It is most commonly associated with warm fronts but can occur with other fronts as well.

180
Q

Other than fog, what are several other examples of IFR Wx producers?

A

Low clouds, haze, smoke, blowing obstructions to vision, and precipitation.

181
Q

Explain the process you will use to obtain a good weather briefing prior to your flight

A
  1. Get the big picture of weather patterns several days prior to flight (Windy.com, etc)
  2. Day or evening before flight, obtain outlook briefing from FSS, or download forecast charts online
  3. As close to departure as possible, call FSS or online for a standard briefing. (Foreflight, etc).
  4. If standard briefing is several hours before flight or weather is questionable, call FSS for
    abbreviated briefing
182
Q

What are some examples of other sources of weather information?

A

A. Telephone Information Briefing Service (TIBS) (FSS)

B. Weather and aeronautical information available from private industry sources

C. DUATS and Lockheed Martin Flight Services via the internet

D. In Alaska, transcribed weather broadcast

183
Q

What pertinent info should a weather briefing include?

A
A.     Adverse conditions
B.     VFR flight not recommended
C.     Synopsis
D.     Current conditions
E.     Enroute forecast
F.     Destination forecast
G.     Winds aloft
H.     NOTAMs
I.     ATC delays

May also request info on special use airspace, a review of printed NOTAM publications, approximate density altitude, customs/immigrations procedures, ADIZ rules, SARs, RAIM availability, etc.

184
Q

While en route, how can a pilot obtain updated Wx info?

A
A.     FSS on 122.2 and RCO frequencies
B.     ATIS broadcasts
C.     HIWAS
D.     Datalink Wx (FIS-B)
E.     ATC (workload permitting)
185
Q

What is HIWAS?

A

Hazardous Inflight Wx Advisory Service

Automated continuous broadcast of inflight Wx advisories, provided by FSS over select VOR outlets. Will include AWW, SIGMET, convective SIGMET, CWA, text AIRMET or graphical AIRMET, urgent PIREPs.

186
Q

What is Flight Information Service and how does it work?

A

FIS-B is a ground broadcast service provided through ADSB services. Provides pilots and crews of ADSB equipped AC with a flight deck display of Wx and aeronautical info.

187
Q

What is a METAR?

A

Wx observers interpretation of Wx conditions at a given site and time. Includes routine METARs, transmitted every hour, and Speci METARs which can be given at any time to update the METAR for rapidly changing conditions

188
Q

Describe the basic elements of a METAR

A
A.     Type of report
B.     Station identifier
C.     Date and time of report
D.     Modifier (as required):     
E.     Wind (referenced in true north)
F.     Visibility
G.     RVR (as required)
H.     Wx phenomena
I.     Sky condition
J.     Temperature/Dew Point
K.     Altimeter
L.     Remarks (as required)
189
Q

What are several types of Wx observing programs?

A

A. Manual
B. AWOS
C. AWOS Broadcasts
D. ASOS/AWSS

190
Q

Describe AWOS Wx observing programs

A

Automated Wx Observing System, various sensors a processor, a computer generated voice, and a transmitter broadcast local, minute-by-minute weather data. Observations include the prefix “AUTO”

191
Q

Describe AWOS Broadcasts

A

Computer generated voice used to automate the broadcast of minute-by-minute Wx observations

192
Q

Describe ASOS/AWSS

A

Automated Surface Observing System/Automated Weather Sensor System, the primary US Wx observing system.

AWSS is a follow on program that provides identical data to ASOS. Provides continuous minute-by-minute observations generating METARs and other Wx info, transmitted over VHF or the voice portion of a local NAVAID

193
Q

What are PIREPs and where are they found?

A

Pilot report providing info about conditions as they actually exist in the air. Can be routine or urgent. Given to ground facility with which communications are established (FSS, ARTCC, etc).

Altitudes are reported as MSL, visibilities in SM, and distances in NM. Available from ATC, FSS, and the internet

194
Q

What is a TAF?

A

Expected conditions significant to aviation for a specified time period, within 5SM radius from center of an airports runway complex. Use the following format:

A. Type of report
B. ICAO station identifier
C. Date and time of origin
D. Valid period date and time
E. Forecast: Wind, visibility, sig. and vicinity Wx, cloud and vertical obscurations, non-convective low
level wind shear, forecast change indicators

195
Q

What is an aviation area forecast?

A

Forecast of specified Wx phenomena covering a large area. Should be used to determine forecast en route Wx and to interpolate conditions at airports without a TAF.

Issued 3 times daily for each of the 6 areas in the contiguous US. Also issued for the Gulf of Mexico, teh Caribbean, Hawaii, and Alaska.

196
Q

What information is provided by an area forecast?

A

Cover the airspace between the surface to 45,000’ AMSL. They include:

A. Synopsis
- Discussion of weather affecting the area during the 18 hour valid period
B. Clouds and Wx
- Description of clouds and Wx for the first 12 hour period, including cloud amount, cloud bases
and tops, precipitation, visibilities and obscurations to visibility, and sustained surface winds 20
knots or greater.
C. 12 - 18 hour categorical outlook

197
Q

What is a graphical forecast?

A

Intended to provide necessary Wx info as a complete picture of the Wx that may impact flight in the continental US. Webpage includes observational data, forecasts, and warnings that can be viewed from 14 hours in the past to 15 hours in the future.

198
Q

What are the four types of Inflight Aviation Wx Advisories?

A

Forecasts to advise enroute AC of development of potentially hazardous Wx. SIGMETs, AIRMETs, convective SIGMETs, and Center Wx Advisories. Heights are referenced in MSL, except ceilings, which are referenced in AGL.

199
Q

What is a convective SIGMET?

A

Implies severe or greater turbulence, severe icing, and LLWS. May be issued for any convective situation that may be hazardous to ALL AC. Bulletins are issued hourly at H+55. Special bulletins are issued any time as required. Text consists of either an observation and a forecast, or just a forecast which is valid for up to 2 hours.

A. Severe TS due to
- Surface winds greater than or equal to 50 knots
- Hail at the surface greater than or equal to 3/4 inches in diameter
- Tornadoes
- Embedded TS
- A line of TS
- TS producing greater than or equal to heavy precipitation that affects 40 percent or more of an
area at least 3,000 square miles

200
Q

What is a SIGMET?

A

Non-convective Wx that is hazardous to all AC. Issued for 6 areas corresponding to FA areas. The maximum forecast period is 4 hours. Issued when:

A. Severe icing not associated with TS
B. Severe or extreme turbulence or CAT not associated with TS
C. Dust storms or sand storms lowering surface or in flight visibility to below 3 miles
D. Volcanic ash

201
Q

What is an AIRMET?

A

Advisories of significant Wx phenomena but describe conditions at lower intensities than those which require issuance of SIGMETs. Intended for preflight and en route phase to enhance safety. Available textually or graphically. Issued every 6 hours beginning at 0245 UTC. Contain details about IFR, extensive mountain obscurations, turbulence, strong surface winds, icing, and freezing levels.

202
Q

What are the different type of AIRMETs?

A

Sierra, Tango, and Zulu.

203
Q

What is AIRMET Sierra?

A

AIRMETs regarding IFR conditions and/or extensive mountain obscurations

204
Q

What is AIRMET Tango?

A

Describes moderate turbulence, sustained surface winds of 30 knots or greater, and/or convective LLWS

205
Q

What is AIRMET Zulu?

A

Describes moderate icing and provides freezing level heights

206
Q

What is a winds and temperatures aloft forecast?

A

Computer prepared forecasts of wind direction, wind speed, and temperature at specified times, altitudes, and locations. They are produced 4 times daily. Amendments are not issued. Wind forecasts not issued for altitudes within 1,500’ of locations elevation.

A. Header includes date and time observations collected, valid date and time, and time period during which the forecast is to be used

B. Altitudes up to 15,000’ referenced to MSL; Altitudes at or above 18,000’ are referenced in FL

C. Temperatures indicated in Celsius for levels from 6,000’ to 24,000’. Above 24,000’ minus sign is omitted since temps are always negative. Temp forecasts are not issued for altitudes within 2,500’ of a locations elevation.

D. Wind direction indicated in tens of degrees with reference to true north. Wind speed is given in knots. Light and variable or wind speeds less than 5 knots are expressed by 9900. Forecast wind speeds of 100 through 199 knots are indicated by subtracting 100 from the speed and adding 50 to the coded direction. Forecast of wind speeds 200 knots or greater are indicated as a forecast speed of 199 knots.

207
Q

What valuable info can be determined from a winds and temperatures aloft forecast?

A

Most favorable altitude, areas of possible icing, temperature inversions, and turbulence

208
Q

What is a Center Weather Advisory?

A

An aviation warning to anticipate and avoid adverse weather conditions in the en route and terminal environments. Not a flight planning product. Reflects current conditions expected at the time of issuance, and/or is a short range forecast expected to begin within 2 hours from that time. Valid for a maximum of 2 hours.

209
Q

Give examples of Wx charts you will use during the flight planning process

A
A.	Surface analysis chart
B.	Wx depiction chart
C.	Significant Wx prognostic chart
D.	Short range surface prognostic chart
E.	Convective outlook chart
F.	Constant pressure analysis chart
G.	Freezing level grahics
210
Q

What is a surface analysis chart?

A

An Analyzed chart of surface weather observations, which depicts the distribution of several items including SLP, the positions of highs and lows, ridges and troughs, the location and character of fronts, the boundaries of drylines, outflow boundaries, sea-breeze fronts, and convergence lines.

Produced 8 times daily

211
Q

What information does a weather depiction chart provide?

A

A plot of weather conditions at selected METAR stations and an analysis of weather flying categories. Designed primarily as a briefing tool to alert aviation interests to the location of critical or near critical operational minimums at terminals in the US and surrounding land areas. Issued 8 times daily.

212
Q

Define LIFR

A

LOW IFR: Ceiling less than 500 feet and/or visibility less than 1 mile

213
Q

Define IFR conditions

A

Ceiling 500 to less than 1,000 feet and/or Visibility 1 to less than 3 miles

214
Q

Define MVFR conditions

A

Marginal VFR: Ceiling 1,000 to 3,000 feet and/or Visibility 3 to 5 miles inclusive

215
Q

Define VFR conditions

A

Ceiling greater than 3,000 feet and visibility greater than 5 miles

216
Q

What are short range surface prognostic charts?

A

Provide a forecast of surface pressure systems, fronts, and precipitation for a 2 1/2 day period. They cover the 48 contiguous states. Divided in 12, 18, 24, 48, and 60 hour forecast periods. Charts are issued 4 times daily.

217
Q

Describe a US Low Level Sig. Wx Prog chart

A

Forecast of aviation Wx hazards. Covers continental US and coastal waters for FL240 and below. Depicts a snapshot of expected weather at the specified valid time. Depicts flying categories, turbulence, and freezing levels. Issued 4 times daily. 12 and 24 hour forecasts offered.

218
Q

Describe a mid level significant Wx chart

A

Forecast of significant en route Wx phenomena from 10,000 feet MSL to FL450. Depicts a snapshot of expected weather at the specified valid time and depicts Wx elements that can be hazardous. Provides 24 hour forecast issued 4 times daily.

219
Q

What info may be obtained from the US high level significant Wx prognostic chart?

A

Provide a forecast of significant en route Wx phenomena from FL250 to FL630, and associated surface Wx features. Depicts a snapshot of Wx expected at the specified valid time. Conditions appearing on chart include:

A.	TS and cumulonimbus clouds
B.	Moderate and severe turbulence
C.	Moderate to severe icing
D.	Jet streams
E.	Tropopause heights
F.	Tropical cyclones
G.	Severe squall lines
H.	Volcanic eruption sites
I.	Widespread sandstorms/dust storms
220
Q

What is a convective outlook chart?

A

Narrative and graphical outlook providing potential for severe (tornado, wind gusts 50 knots or greater, or hail 1 inch in diameter or greater) and non-severe convective activity, and specific severe Wx threats during the following 8 days. Defines areas of marginal, slight, enhanced, moderate, and high risk of severe Wx based on a probability percentage.

221
Q

What are constant pressure analysis charts?

A

Any surface of equal pressure in teh atmosphere is a constant pressure surface. A constant pressure analysis chart is an upper air weather map where all info depicted is at the same specified pressure of the chart. From these charts, you can approximate the observed air temperature, wind, and temperature/dew point spread along a proposed route. They also depict highs, lows, troughs, and ridges aloft by the height contour patterns resembling isobars on a surface map. Issued twice daily at five different pressures.

222
Q

What significance do height contour lines have on a constant pressure chart?

A

Heights of the specified pressure for each station are analyzed through the use of solid lines called contours to give a height pattern. The contour depicts highs, lows, troughs, and ridges aloft. In the same manner as isobars on a surface chart. Also, closely spaced contours mean strong winds, as do closely spaced isobars.

223
Q

What significance do isotherms have on a constant pressure chart?

A

Isotherms (dashed lines) drawn at 5 degree intervals show horizontal temperature variations at chart altitude. By inspecting isotherms, you can determine if your flight will be toward colder or warmer air. Subfreezing temperatures and a temperature/dew point spread of 5 degrees Celsius or less suggest possible icing.

224
Q

Describe a constant pressure level forecast

A

Used to provide an overview of Wx patterns at specified times and pressure altitudes, and are the source of winds and temperatures aloft forecasts. When considered together, they describe the three-dimensional aspect of pressure systems, the patterns of which cause and characterize much of the weather.

Typically troughs and lows are associated with clouds and precipitation. Highs and ridges are associated with fair weather. The location and strength of the jet stream can be viewed at 300 MB, 250 MB, and 200 MB levels.

Issued 4 times daily.

225
Q

What is the significance of the isotach lines on a constant pressure chart?

A

Isotachs are lines of constant wind speed analyzed on the 300 and 200 mb charts. They separate higher wind speeds from lower wind speeds. Used to map wind speed variations over the surface.

Isotachs are drawn at 20 knot intervals and begin at 10 knots. Identify the magnitude of wind speed variations. Strong gradients are closely spaced isotachs and identify large wind speed variations. Weak gradients are loosely spaced and identify small wind speed variations.

226
Q

What information does a freezing level graphics chart provide?

A

Used to assess the lowest freezing level heights and their values relative to flight paths. The chart uses colors to represent the height in hundreds of feet above MSL of the lowest freezing levels. The initial analysis and 3 hour forecast graphics are updated hourly. The 6, 9, and 12 hour forecast graphics are updated every three hours.

227
Q

What information can a pilot obtain from current (CIP) and forecast (FIP) icing products?

A

A. CIP: provides an hourly three dimensional diagnosis of icing environments. Info is displayed on a suite of 12 graphics. CIP is a supplementary Wx product fr enhanced situational awareness only. Issued hourly 15 minutes after the hour by AWC.

B. FIP: Provides a three dimensional forecast of icing potential using numerical weather prediction model output. May be used as a higher resolution supplement for AIRMETs/SIGMETs but is not a substitute. Issued every hour and generates an hourly forecast for 3 hours in the future.