Arrival Flashcards

1
Q

What is a STAR?

A

Standard Terminal Arrival Route

An ATC coded IFR arrival route established for use by arriving IFR AC destined for certain airports. Its purpose is to simplify clearance delivery procedures and facilities transition between enroute and IAPs. Reference the Terminal Procedures Publication for availability of STARs.

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2
Q

If ATC issues your flight a STAR, must you accept it?

A

You are not required to accept a STAR, but if yo do, you must be in possession of at least the approved chart. RNAV STARs must be retrievable by the procedure name from the AC database and conform to the charted procedure. Pilots should notify ATC if they do not wish to use a STAR by placing “No STAR” in the remarks section of the flight plan, or by the less desirable method of verbally stating the same to ATC.

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3
Q

What is an RNAV STAR?

A

STARs designated RNAV serve the same purpose as conventional STARs but are only used by AC equipped with FMS or GPS. An RNAV STAR or STAR transition typically includes flyby waypoints, with fly-over waypoints used only when operationally required. These waypoints may be assigned crossing altitudes and speeds to optimize the descent and deceleration profiles.

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4
Q

What does the notation “RNAV1” on an RNAV STAR indicate?

A

RNAV 1 terminal procedures require that the ACs track keeping accuracy remain bound by +1 NM for 95 percent of the total flight time. All pilots are excepted to maintain route centerlines , as depicted by onboard lateral deviation indicators and/or flight guidance during all RNAV operations unless authorized to deviate by ATC or under emergency conditions. All public RNAV STARs are RNAV 1.

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5
Q

What does the clearance “descend via” authorize you to do when navigating on a STAR or RNAV STAR procedure?

A

Authorizes pilot to:

A. Descend at pilot’s discretion to meet published restrictions and laterally navigate on a STAR
B. When cleared to a waypoint depicted on a STAR, to descend from a previously assigned altitude at a
pilot’s discretion to the altitude depicted at the waypoint.
C. Once established on the depicted arrival, to descend and to meet all published or assigned altitude
and/or speed restrictions

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6
Q

What is a terminal arrival area?

A

A published or assigned track by which AC are transitioned from the en route structure to the terminal area. A terminal arrival area consists of a designated volume of airspace designed to allow AC to enter a protected area with obstacle clearance and signal reception guaranteed where the initial approach course is intercepted

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7
Q

How can a pilot determine which area of a TAA the AC will enter?

A

By selecting the IF/IAF to determine the magnetic bearing TO the center IF/IAF. That bearing should then be compared with the published bearings that define the lateral boundaries of the TAA areas.

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8
Q

Will all RNAV (GPS) approaches have a TAA?

A

No

The TAA will not be found on all RNAV procedures, particularly in areas of heavy concentration of air traffic. When the TAA is published, it replaces the MSA for that approach procedure.

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9
Q

How are fly-over and fly-by waypoints used in a GPS approach procedure?

A

A. Fly-by waypoints: Used when an AC should begin a turn to the next course prior to reaching the waypoint separating the two route segments. This is known as turn anticipation and is compensated for in the airspace and terrain clearances. Approach waypoints, except for the MAWP and the missed approach holding waypoint, are normally fly-by waypoints.

B. Fly-over waypoints: used when the AC must fly over the point prior to starting a turn. New approach charts depict fly-over waypoints as a circled waypoint symbol. Overlay approach charts and some early stand-alone GPS approach charts may not reflect this convention

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10
Q

When being radar-vectored for an approach, at what point may you start a descent form your last assigned altitude to a lower altitude if “cleared for the approach”?

A

Upon receipt of an approach clearance while an unpublished route or being radar vectored, a pilot will comply with the minimum altitude for IFR and maintain the last assigned altitude until established on a segment of the published route or IAP, at which time published altitudes apply.

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11
Q

Define the therm “Initial Approach Segment”

A

That segment between the initial approach fix and the intermediate fix, or the point where the AC is established on the intermediate course or final approach course.

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12
Q

Define the term “intermediate approach segment”

A

Between the intermediate fix or point and the final approach fix

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13
Q

Define the term “Final approach segment”

A

The segment between the final approach fix or point and the RWY, airport, or missed approach point.

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14
Q

Define the term “Missed approach segment”

A

The segment between the missed approach point or the point of arrival at DH and the missed approach fix at the prescribed altitude

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15
Q

What are the standard IFR separation minimums?

A

When radar is employed in the separation of AC at the same altitude, a minimum of 3 miles separation is provided between AC operating within 40 miles of the radar antenna site, and 5 miles between AC operating beyond 40 miles from the antenna site. These minima may be increased or decreased in certain specific situations.

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16
Q

What is the Minimum Vectoring Altitude (MVA)?

A

MVA is the lowest MSL at which an IFR AC will be vectored by a radar controller, except as otherwise authorized for radar approaches, departures, and missed approaches. The altitude meets IFR obstacle clearance criteria. It may be lower than the published MEA along an airway or J-route segment. It may be used for radar vectoring only upon the controller’s determination that an adequate radar return is being received from the AC being controlled. Charts depicting minimum vectoring altitudes are normally available only to the controllers ad not to the pilots.

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17
Q

Your approach chart indicated a MSA circle in the plan view. What is an MSA and when would you use it?

A

A minimum safe altitude circle depicts altitudes on approach charts that provide at least 1,000 feet of obstacle clearance within a 25 NM radius of the navigation facility, waypoint, or airport reference point upon which the MSA is predicated.

MSA’s are for emergency use only and do not assure acceptable navigational signal coverage. For RNAV approaches, the MSA is based on either the RWY waypoint, the MAWP for straight in approaches, or the airport waypoint for circling approaches.

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18
Q

What are feeder routes?

A

A route depicted on IAP charts to designate courses for AC to proceed from the enroute structure to the IAF. When a feeder route is designated, the chart provides the course, or bearing to be flown, the distance, and the minimum altitude. Enroute airway obstacle clearance criteria apply to feeder routes, providing 1,000 feet of obstacle clearance (2,000 feet in mountainous areas)

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19
Q

Is the ATC clearance “cleared for the visual,” a VFR clearance or an IFR clearance? What requirements must be met in order to accept such a clearance?

A

A visual approach is conducted on an IFR flight plan and authorizes a pilot to proceed visually and clear of clouds to the airport. The pilot must have either the airport or the preceding identified AC in sight. This approach must be authorized and controlled by the appropriate ATC facility. Reported weather at the airport must have a ceiling at or above 1,000 feet and visibility 3 miles or greater.

Visual approaches are an IFR procedure conducted under IFR in VMC. Cloud clearance requirement of 14 CFR 91.155 are not applicable.

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20
Q

Describe the term “contact approach”

A

An approach in which an AC on an IFR flight lan, having an ATC authorization, operating clear of clouds with at least 1 mile flight visibility and a reasonable expectation of continuing to the destination airport in these conditions, may deviate from the IAP and proceed to the destination airport by visual reference to the surface. This approach will only be authorized when requested and reported ground visibility is at least 1 SM.

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21
Q

When is a procedure turn not required?

A

SHARPTT

Straight in approach
Holding pattern replaces the procedure turn, the holding pattern must be followed
Arc
Radar vectored to final approach course
Procedure turn barb is absent in the plan view or “NoPT” is depicted on the initial segment being used
Timed approach
Teardrop is depicted and course reversal required

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22
Q

What are standard procedure turn limitations?

A

A. Turn on the depicted side
B. Adhere to depicted minimum altitudes
C. Complete the maneuver within the distance specified in the profile view
D. Maneuver at maximum speed not greater than 200 knots (IAS)

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23
Q

What procedure is followed when a holding pattern is specified in lieu of a procedure turn?

A

May be specified for a course reversal in some procedures: the holding pattern is established over an intermediate fix or final approach fix. The holding pattern distance or time specified in the profile view must be observed. Maximum holding airspeed limitations apply, as set forth for all holding patterns. The holding pattern maneuver is completed when the AC is established on the inbound course after executing the appropriate entry. If cleared for the approach prior to returning to the holding fix, and the AC is at the prescribed altitude, additional circuits of the holding pattern are not necessary nor expected by ATC. If pilots elect to make additional circuits to lose altitude or to become better established on course, it is their responsibility to so advise ATC upon receipt of their approach clearance.

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24
Q

What is a precision approach?

A

An instrument approach that is based on a navigation system that provides course and glidepath deviation info meeting precision standards of ICAO Annex 10.

PAR, ILS, and GLS are precision approaches.

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25
Q

What are the basic components of a standard ILS?

A

A. Guidance information: localizer, glideslope
B. Range information: marker beacons, DME
C. Visual information: approach lights, touchdown and centerline lights, RWY lights

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26
Q

Describe both visual and aural indications that a pilot would receive when crossing the outer, middle, and inner markers of a standard ILS

A
A.	Outer Marker:
	-	Blue light
	-	Dull tone
	-	Slow speed
	-	- - - - - - 
B.	Middle Marker
	-	Amber light
	-	Medium tone
	-	Medium speed
	-	- . - . - . - . 
C.	Inner Marker
	-	White light
	-	High tone
	-	High speed
	-	. . . . . . . .
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27
Q

What are the distances from the landing threshold of the outer, middle, and inner markers?

A

A. Outer marker: 4 to 7 miles from the threshold
B. Middle marker: 3,500 feet from the threshold
C. Inner Marker: Between middle marker and threshold

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28
Q

When is the inner marker used?

A

Ordinarily, there are two marker beacons associated with an ILS, the OM and MM. Locations with a Cat. II ILS also have an IM

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29
Q

While flying a 3 degree glideslope, which conditions should the pilot expect concerning airspeed, pitch attitude and altitude when encountering a wind shear situation where a tailwind shears to a calm or headwind?

A

Pitch Attitude: Increase
Required Thrust: Reduced, then increased
Vertical Speed: Decreases, then increases
Airspeed: Increases, then decreases
Reaction: Reduce power initially, then increase

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30
Q

While flying a 3 degree glideslope, which conditions should the pilot expect concerning airspeed, pitch attitude and altitude when encountering a wind shear situation where a headwind shears to a calm or tailwind?

A
Pitch Attitude:		Decreases
Required Thrust:	Increased, then reduced
Vertical Speed:		Increases
Airspeed:				Decreases, then increases
Reaction:				Increased power, then a decrease in power
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31
Q

Where is the localizer/transmitter antenna installation located in relation to the RWY?

A

The antenna is located at the far end of the approach runway

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32
Q

Where is the glideslope antenna located and what is its normal usable range?

A

Between 750 feet and 1,250 feet from the approach end of the runway (down the runway), and offset 250 feet to 650 feet from it. The glideslope is normally usable to a distance of 10 NM.

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33
Q

What range does a standard localizer have?

A

The localizer signal provides course guidance throughout the descent path to the RWY threshold from a distance of 18 NM from the antenna site.

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34
Q

What is the angular width of a localizer signal?

A

Adjusted to provide an angular width of between 3 to 6 degrees, as necessary to provide a linear width of 700 feet at the runway approach threshold.

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35
Q

What is the normal glideslope angle for a standard ILS?

A

Glideslope projection angle is normally 3 degrees above horizontal so that it intersects the MM at about 200 feet and the OM at about 1,400 feet above the RWY elevation.

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36
Q

What is the sensitivity of a CDI tuned to a localizer signal compared with a CDI tuned to a VOR?

A

Full left or full right defection occurs at approximately 2.5 degrees from the centerline of a localizer course, which is 4 times greater than when tuned to a VOR, where full scale deflection equals 10 degrees from the centerline.

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37
Q

Define the term “Decision Altitude”

A

A specified altitude on an IAP at which point the pilot must decide whether to continue an approach or initiate an immediate missed approach if the pilot does not see the required visual references.

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38
Q

When flying an IAP, when can the pilot descend below MDA or DA/DH?

A

A. The AC is continuously flying a stabilized approach (normal descent rate and using normal
maneuvers)

B. The flight visibility is not less than the visibility prescribed in the SIAP being used

C. When at least one of the following visual references for the intended RWY is distinctly visible and identifiable:

- Approach Light System 
	1. May not descend below 100 feet above TDZ elevation unless red terminating bars or red side 			row bars are also distinctly visible
- Threshold
- Threshold markings
- Threshold lights
- REILs
- VASI
- TDZ or TDZ markings
- TDZ lights
- RWY or RWY markings
- RWY lights
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39
Q

What are the legal substitutions for an INOP outer marker?

A
  • Compass locator
  • Precision Approach Radar (PAR) or airport surveillance radar (ADR)
  • DME, VOR, or NDB fixes authorized in the SIAP
  • Suitable RNAV system in conjunction with a fix identified in the SIAP
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40
Q

What are PAR and ASR approaches?

A

A. PAR: Type of radar approach in which a controller provides highly accurate nav guidance in
azimuth and elevation to the pilot (precision)

B. ASR: Type of radar approach in which a controller provides navigational guidance in azimuth only
(non-precision)

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41
Q

What is a “no-gyro” approach?

A

A radar approach/vector provided in case of a malfunctioning gyro-compass or DG. Instead of providing the pilot with headings to be flown, the controller observes the radar track and issues control instructions “Turn right/left” or “stop turn” as appropriate

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42
Q

What rate of turn is recommended during execution of a “no-gyro” approach procedure?

A

All turns should be standard rate until on final. Then one-half standard rate on final approach.

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43
Q

Are the minimums for an ASR approach expressed as DA or MDA?

A

MDA

Guidance in elevation is not possible but the pilot will be advised when to commence descent to the minimum descent altitude or, if appropriate, to an intermediate step-down fix minimum crossing altitude and subsequently to the prescribed MDA.

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44
Q

What is the definition of TDZE?

A

Touch Down Zone Elevation

The highest elevation in the first 3,000 feet of the landing surface. TDZE is indicated on the IAP chart when straight-in landing minimums are authorized.

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45
Q

What is the definition of “non-precision approach”?

A

An instrument approach based on a nav system that provides course deviation info but no glidepath info.

Examples: VOR, NDB and LNAV

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46
Q

Name the types of non-precision approach procedures available

A
LNAV
VOR
TACAN
NDB
LOC
ASR
LDA
SDF
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47
Q

Define MDA

A

Minimum descent altitude

Lowest altitude, expressed in feet above MSL, to which descent is authorized on final approach or during circle-to-land maneuvering, in execution of a SIAP where no electronic glideslope is provided

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48
Q

What is the definition of a “stabilized approach”?

A

Airplane must be stabilized by 1,000 feet above the airport elevation in IMC and by 500 feet above airport elevation during straight-in approaches in VMC. The FAA considers an approach to touchdown stabilized when the airplane meets all of the following:

A.	Glidepath:	On correct flight path, normally 3 degrees to the RWY TDZ, obstructions permitting

B.	Heading:		Tracking extended centerline to RWY with only minor heading/pitch changes to 
	correct for wind, turbulence, and maintain alignment.  Bank angle should not exceed 15 degrees 		on final

C.	Airspeed:		Maintains constant airspeed within +10/-5 KIAS of the recommended landing speed

D.	Configuration:	In correct landing configuration 

E.	Rate of Descent:	Is constant and no greater than 500 fpm; if a descent greater than 500 fpm is 		required due to approach considerations, it must be reduced prior to 300 feet AGL and well 		before the landing flare and touchdown phase.

F.	Power Setting:	Is appropriate for the airplane configuration and not below the minimum power 
	for approach

G.	Checklists/briefing:	all briefings and checklists completed prior to initiating the approach
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49
Q

Define “VDP”

A

Visual Descent Point

Defined point on the final approach course of a non-precision straight-in approach procedure from which a normal descent from the MDA to the RWY touchdown point may be commenced, provided the approach threshold of that RWY or approach lights or other markings identifiable with the approach end of that RWY, are clearly visible to the pilot.

Pilots not equipped to receive the VDP should fly the approach procedure as though no VDP has been provided. On an approach chart, a VDP is identified in the profile view by a “V”.

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50
Q

While flying the final segment of a non-precision approach with a VDP, a pilot breaks out of the clouds prior to the VDP and has the required visibility and necessary visual references available to begin the descent. Does the pilot have to wait until the VDP is reached before descending below the MDA?

A

The pilot should not descend below the MDA prior to reaching the VDP and acquiring the necessary visual references.

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51
Q

If no VDP is provided on an IAP, how can you compute your own VDP?

A

HAT/300 - VDP (in NM from threshold); or

10% of HAT = seconds to subtract from the time to MAP

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52
Q

What is a VDA?

A

Vertical Descent Angle

Found on non-precision approach charts provides the pilot with info required to establish a stabilized approach descent from the FAF or stepdown fix to the TCH. Pilots can use the published angle and estimated or actual ground speed to find a target rate of descent using the rate of decent in the back of the TPP.

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53
Q

Explain how you will use the published VDA on a non-precision approach chart to fly a stabilized descent to the MDA?

A

A. Determine the published vertical descent angle on the approach chart
Ex. 3.1 degrees
B. Determine your established or actual ground speed
Ex. 90 knots
C. Locate the rate of climb/descent table
D. The table indicates that a VDA of 3.1 degrees equates to a descent rate of 329 ft/NM
E. 329 ft/NM converts to a descent rate of 494 fpm at 90 knots groundspeed

To fly the VDA, at the FAF or step down fix, descend at the required descent rate and maintain your airspeed/groundspeed

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54
Q

what does the VDA guarantee on obstacle protection below the MDA?

A

Does not guarantee obstacle protection below the MDA in the visual segment. The presence of VDA does not change any non-precision approach requirements. Pilots must be aware tht the published VDA is for advisory info only and not to be considered instrument procedure derived vertical guidance. The VDA solely offers an aid to help pilots establish a continuous, stabilized decent during final approach.

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55
Q

Will SIAPs always have a FAF?

A

No,

When a FAF is not designated, such as on an approach that incorporates an on-airport VOR or NDB, a final approach point is designated and is typically here the procedure turn intersects the final approach course inbound.

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56
Q

If no FAF is published, where does the final approach segment begin on a non-precision approach?

A

Begins where the procedure turn intersects the final approach course inbound

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57
Q

Certain conditions are required for an IAP to have “straight-in” minimums published. What are they?

A

Straight in minimums are shown on the IAP when the final approach course is within 30 degrees of the runway alignment (15 degrees for GPS IAPs) and a normal descent can be made from the IFR altitude shown on the IAP to the runway surface

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58
Q

What is a step down fix?

A

Permits additional descent within a segment of an IAP by identifying a point at which a controlling obstacle has been safely overflown.

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59
Q

What does a VASI system provide?

A

Provides visual descent guidance during an approach to a runway; safe obstruction clearance within +/- 10 degrees of extended runway centerline up to 4 NM from the runways threshold. Two-bar VASIs normally provide a 3 degree visual glidepath.

60
Q

What are the major differences between SDF and LDA approaches?

A

In an SDF approach procedure, the SDF course may or may not be aligned with the runway; usable off-course indications are limited to 35 degrees either side of the course centerline. The SDF signal emitted us fixed at either 6 or 12 degrees.

The LDA compares utility and accuracy to a localizer, but it is not part of a complete ILS. The LDA course width is between 3 and 6 degrees and thus provides a more precise approach course than an SDF installation. Some LDAs are equipped with a GS. The LDA course is not aligned with the runway, but straight-in minimums may be published where the angle between the runway centerline ad the LDA course does not exceed 30 degrees. If this angle exceeds 30 degrees, only circling minimums are published.

61
Q

What criteria determines whether or not you may attempt an approach?

A

No regulation states that you cannot attempt an approach, if operating under Part 91 regs. But if you reach MDA or DA/DH and decide to descend to land, flight visibility must be at least equal to that published.

62
Q

What regulations require use of specified procedures by all pilots approaching for landing under IFR?

A

Specified procedures are required by 14 CFR Part 97

63
Q

What self-announced radio calls should you make when conducting an instrument approach to an airport without a control tower?

A

A. Initial call within 5-10 minutes of the ACs arrival at the IAF with AC location and approach intentions
B. Departing IAF, stating the approach that is being initiated.
C. Procedure turn, or equivalent, inbound
D. FAF inbound, stating intended landing runway and maneuvering direction if circling
E. Short final, giving traffic on the surface notification of imminent landing

64
Q

Describe the minima found on area navigation RNAV (GPA) instrument approach charts for LNAV

A

A. Lateral navigation only
B. Non-precision approach
C. Requires TSO-C129 (non-WAAS) or WAAS equipment
D. Minimums shown as MDA

65
Q

Describe the minima found on area navigation RNAV (GPA) instrument approach charts for LP

A

A. Localizer Performance
B. Non-Precision
C. Requires WAAS equipment
D. Minimums shows as MDA

66
Q

Describe the minima found on area navigation RNAV (GPS) instrument approach charts for LNAV/VNAV

A

A. Lateral Nav/Vertical Nav
B. APV approach
C. Requires approach approved Baro-VNAV or WAAS equipment
D. Minimums shown as DA

67
Q

Describe the minima found on area navigation RNAV (GPA) instrument approach charts for LPV

A

A. Localizer Performance and vertical guidance
B. APV approach
C. Requires WAAS equipment
D. Minimums shown as DA

68
Q

Describe the minima found on area navigation RNAV (GPS) instrument approach charts for GLS

A

A. GBAS landing system
- US Version of GBAS = LAAS (Local Area Augmentation System)
- Provides lateral and vertical guidance
B. Requires an AC GBAS receiver
C. Relatively new category of approach
D. Most RNAV (GPS) approach charts have had the GLS minima line replaced by a WAAS LPV line of minima

69
Q

What are the “APV” approaches, and give examples this type of approach

A

An instrument approach based on a nav system that is not required to meet the precision approach standards of ICAO Annex 10 but provides course and glidepath deviation info.

Examples: Baro-VNAV, LDA with glidepath, LNAV/VNAV, and LPV approaches

70
Q

What is indicated when a letter suffix is added the approach line? ( ie., RNAV GPS Z RWY 13C and RNAV (RNP) Y RWY 13C)

A

When two or more straight-in approaches with the same type of guidance exist for a RWY, a letter suffix is added to the title of the approach so that it can be more easily identified. These approach charts start with letter Z and continue in reverse alphabetical order.

71
Q

Will there be any significant differences when two straight-in approaches with the same type of guidance exist for a RWY (ie. RNAV GPS Z RWY 13C and RNAV (RNP) Y RWY 13C)?

A

Yes

The approach procedure labeled Z will have lower landing minimums than Y (some older charts may not reflect this. Although both of these approaches can be flown with GPS to the same RWY, they can be significantly different.

E.G., one may be “SPECIAL AC & AIR CREW AUTHORIZATION REQUIRED”; one may have circling minimums and the other no circling minimums; the minimums are different; and the missed approaches may not be the same.

72
Q

What is a LPV approach?

A

Localizer Performance with Vertical Guidance

A type of approach with vertical guidance (APV) that takes advantage of the high accuracy guidance and increased integrity provided by WAAS.

This WAAS-generated angular guidance allows the use of the same TERPS approach criteria used for ILS approaches. LPV minima may have a DA as low as 200 feet height above touchdown with visibility minimums as low as 1/2 mile, when the terrain and airport infrastructure support the lowest minima.

73
Q

How can you determine if your AC is equipped to fly a LPV approach procedure?

A

GPS/WAAS operation may be conducted IAW the FAA approved AFM or flight manual supplements. Flight manual supplements will state the level of approach procedure that the receiver supports. IFR approved WAAS receivers support GPS only operations as long as lateral capability at the appropriate level is functional.

74
Q

What does the acronym “LP” indicate in the minimums section of an RNAV (GPS) approach chart?

A

Localizer Performance

Approaches too LP lines of minima take advantage of the improved accuracy of WAAS to provide approaches with lateral and angular guidance. Angular guidance does not refer to a glideslope angle but rather a to an increased lateral sensitivity as the AC gets closer to the RWY, similar to localizer approaches.

LP minimums are only published if terrain, obstructions, or some other reason prevents publishing a vertically guided procedure. LP lines of minima MDAs. Also, LP is not a fail-down mode for an LPV. LP and LPV are independent.

75
Q

After selecting the approach procedure at your destination airport, what method will the GPS receiver use to select the appropriate minimums for the approach?

A

When an approach procedure is selected and active, the receiver will notify the pilot of the most accurate level of service supported by the combination of the WAAS signal, the receiver, and the selected approach, using the naming conventions on he minima lines of the selected approach procedure. For example, if an approach is published with LPV minima and the receiver is only certified for LNAV/VNAV, the equipment would indicate “LNAV/VNAV available”, even though the WAAS signal would support LPV.

76
Q

What is the significance of temperature limitations published on an approach procedure chart?

A

A minimum and maximum temperature limitation is published on procedures which authorize Baro-VNAV operation. These temperatures represent the airport temperature above or below which Baro-VNAV is not authorized to LNAV/VNAV minimums

Note: temperature limitations do not apply to flying the LNAV/VNAV line of minima using approach certified WAAS receivers when LPV or LNAV/VNAV are annunciated to be available

77
Q

What is the WAAs Channel Number/Approach ID found on the upper left corner of an approach procedure chart used for?

A

The WAAS Channel Number is an optional equipment capability that allows the use of a 5-digit number to select a specific final approach segment without using the menu method.

78
Q

What are the possible reasons your GPS receiver would fail to sequence from the “Armed” to “Approach” mode prior to the final approach waypoint?

A

The receiver performs a RAIM prediction by 2NM prior to the FAWP to ensure that RAIM is available at the FAWP as a condition for entering the approach mode. Failure to sequence may be an indication of the detection of a satellite anomaly, failure to arm the receiver (if required) or other problems which preclude completing the approach. The pilot should always ensure that the receiver has sequenced from “Armed” to “Approach” prior to the FAWP (normally occurs 2NM prior to the FAWP)

79
Q

If the GPS receiver does not sequence from “Armed” to “Approach” mode or a RAIM failure/status annunciation occurs prior to the FAWP, what procedure should the pilot follow?

A

If a RAIM failure/status annunciation occurs prior to the final approach waypoint, the approach should not be completed since GPS may no longer provide the required accuracy. The pilot should not descend to MDA, but should proceed to the MAWP via the FAWP, perform a missed approach, and contact ATC as soon as practical

80
Q

If a RAIM failure occurs after the FAWP, will the receiver provide a status annunciation to the pilot?

A

The receiver is allowed to continue operating without an annunciation for up to 5 minutes to allow completion of the approach (see receiver operating manual).

If the RAIM flag/status annunciation does appear after the FAWP, the missed approach should be executed immediately.

81
Q

What is the significance of the presence of a gray shaded line from the MDA to the RWY in the profile view of a RNAV (GPS) approach?

A

indication that the visual segment below the MDA is clear of obstructions on the 34:1 slope. Absence of the gray shaded area indicated the 34:1 OCS is not free of obstructions.

82
Q

What is indicated when a GPS receiver provides the annunciation “LNAV+V”?

A

Advisory vertical guidance is being provided.

Depending on the manufacturer, some GPS receivers will provide advisory vertical guidance when associated with LP or LNAV lines of minima. The system creates an artificial glide path to assist the pilot in flying a constant descent to the MDA.

Barometric altimeter info remains the primary altitude reference for complying with any altitude restrictions.

83
Q

How will rising terrain be depicted in the plan view of an IAP chart?

A

Depicted with contour lines in shades of brown in the plan view portion of all IAPs at airports that meet the following criteria:

A. If terrain within the plan view exceeds 4,000 feet above the airport elevation, or
B. If terrain within 6.0 NM radius of the airport reference Point rises at least 2,000 feet above airport
elevation

84
Q

What is a computer navigation fix(CNF)?

A

A point used for the purpose of defining the navigation track for an airborne computer system (i.e. GOS or FMS).

CNFs include unnamed DME fixes, beginning and ending points of DME arcs and sensor final approach fixes on some GPS overlay approaches. The CNF five letter name will be enclosed in parenthesis (i.e. CFBCD)

85
Q

What is the significance of the “negative W” symbol placed on some RNAV (GPS) approach charts?

A

Site specific, WAAS unreliable NOTAMs or Air Traffic advisories are not provided for outages in WAAS LNAV/VNAV and LPV vertical service. Vertical outages may occur daily at these locations due to being close to the edge of WAAS system coverage.

Use LNAV or circling minima for flight planning at these locations, whether as a destination or an alternate. For ops at these locations, when WAAS avionics indicate that LNAV/VNAV or LPV service is available, then vertical guidance may be used to complete the approach using the displayed level of service. If an outage occurs during the procedure, reversion to LNAV minima may be required.

86
Q

If a discrepancy exists between the info provided by a GPS navigation database and info published on an approach chart, which one takes precedence?

A

The published approach chart, supplemented by NOTAMs.

87
Q

When flying an RNAV (GPS) approach, most FMS require the pilot to choose whether to “load” or “activate” an IAP. Explain the difference.

A

Loading the approach adds its component waypoints to the end of the flight plan but does not make them active.

Activating an approach will cause FMS to immediately give course guidance to the initial approach fix or closest fix outside the final fix, depending on the units programming.

88
Q

What are circling-to-land approaches?

A

Not technically an approach, but a maneuver initiated by a pilot to align the AC with the RWY for landing when a straight-in landing is not possible or desirable. At tower-controlled airports, this maneuver is made only after ATC authorization has been obtained and the pilot has established required visual reference to the airport

89
Q

What is indicated when an approach procedure title (VOR-A) is followed only by a letter (no RWY designation)?

A

The type of approach followed by a letter identifies approaches that do not have straight-in landing minimums and only have circling minimums. The first approach of this type is created at the airport is labeled with the letter A, and continues in alphabetical order.

90
Q

Why do certain airports have only circling minimums published?

A

When either the normal rate of descent or the runway alignment factor of 30 degrees (15 degrees for GPS IAPs) is exceeded, a straight-in minimum is not published and a circling minimum applies.

91
Q

Can a pilot make a straight-in landing if using an approach procedure having only circling minimums?

A

Yes

The fact that a straight in minimum is not published dies not preclude pilots from landing straight-in, if they have the active runway in sight and have sufficient time to make a normal approach to landing.

Under such conditions and when ATC has cleared them for landing on that runway, pilots are not expected to circle, even though only circling minimums are published

92
Q

If cleared for a “straight-in VOR-DME 34 approach,” can a pilot circle to land, if needed?

A

Yes

A “straight-in approach” is an instrument approach wherein final approach is begun without first having executed a procedure turn. Such an approach is not necessarily completed with a straight-in landing or made to straight-in minimums

93
Q

When can you begin your descent to the runway during a circling approach?

A

Three conditions are required before descent from the MDA can occur:

A. The AC is continuously in a position from which a descent to an landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers

B. The flight visibility is not less than the visibility prescribed in the standard instrument approach being used.

C. At least one of the specific runway visual references for the intended runway is distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot.

94
Q

While circling to land you lose visual contact with the runway environment. At the time visual contact is lost, your approximate position is a base leg at the circling MDA. What procedure should be followed?

A

If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, the pilot should make an initial climbing turn toward the landing runway and continue the turn until established on the missed approach course. Since the circling maneuver may be accomplished in more than one direction, different patterns will be required to become established on the prescribed missed approach course, depending on the AC position at the time visual reference is lost.

Adherence to the procedure will ensure that an AC will remain within the circling and missed approach obstacle clearance areas.

95
Q

What obstacle clearance are you guaranteed during a circling approach maneuver?

A

In all circling approaches, the circling minimum provides 300 feet of obstacle clearance within the circling approach area. The size of this area depends on the category in which the aircraft operates.

Cat. A:		1.3 mile radius
Cat. B:		1.5 mile radius
Cat. C:		1.7 mile radius
Cat. D:		2.3 mile radius
Cat. E:		4.5 mile radius
96
Q

What is the significance of the presence of a “negative C” symbol on the circling line of minima?

A

Circling approach protected areas developed after late 2012 use the radius distance dependent on the AC approach category AND the altitude of the circling MDA which accounts for true airspeed increase with altitude. The approaches using expanded circling approach areas can be identified by the presence of the “negative C” symbol on the circling minima.

97
Q

How can a pilot determine the approach category minimums applicable to a particular AC?

A

Minimums are specified for various AC approach categories based on a speed of Vref, if specified, or if Vref is not specified, 1.3Vso at the maximum certified landing weight.

98
Q

What are the different AC approach categories?

A

Cat. A: Less than 91 knots

Cat. B: 91 knots or more but less than 121 knots

Cat. C: 121 knots or more but less than 141 knots

Cat. D: 141 knots or more but less than 166 knots

Cat. E: 166 knots or more

99
Q

An AC operating under 14 CFR Part 91 has a 1.3 times Vso speed of 100 KIAS, making Cat. B minimums applicable. If it becomes necessary to circle at a speed in excess of this category, what minimum should be used?

A

A pilot must use the minima corresponding to the category determined during certifications, or higher. If necessary to operate at a speed in excess of the upper limit of the speed range for an ACs category, the minimums for the higher category must be used.

100
Q

When must a pilot execute a missed approach?

A

A. Arrival at MAP and the RWY environment is not in sight
B. Arrival at DA on the glide slope with the RWY not yet in sight
C. Anytime a pilot determines a safe landing is not possible
D. When circling to land visual contact is lost
E. When instructed by ATC

101
Q

On a non-precision approach procedure, how is the MAP determined?

A

The pilot determines the MAP by timing from FAF when the approach aid is well away from the airport, by a fix or NAVAID when the nav facility is located o the field, or by waypoints as defined by GPS or VOR/DME RNAV

102
Q

If no FAF is depicted, how is the MAP determined?

A

The MAP is at the airport (NAVAID on airport)

103
Q

Where is the MAP on a precision approach?

A

For the ILS, the MAP is at the DA/DH

104
Q

Under what conditions are missed approach procedures published on an approach chart not followed?

A

They are not followed when ATC has assigned alternate missed approach instructions

105
Q

If, during the execution of an IAP, you determine a missed approach is necessary due to full scale deflection, what action is recommended?

A

The pilot should continue to fly the IAP as specified at or above the MDA or DA/DH to the MAP before executing a turning maneuver

106
Q

What action should the pilot take in the event a rejected landing occurs at a position other than the MAP?

A

The pilot should contact ATC as soon as possible to obtain an amended clearance.

If unable to contact ATC for any reason, the pilot should attempt to re-intercept a published segment of the missed approach and comply with route and altitude instructions.

If unable to contact ATC, and in the pilot’s good judgement it is no longer appropriate to fly the published missed approach procedure, then the pilot should consider either maintaining visual conditions if practicable and reattempt a landing, or circle-climb over the airport. Contact ATC when able.

107
Q

What are several factors a pilot should consider (prior to the approach) when assessing options available if it becomes necessary to execute a missed approach from beyond the MAP or below the MDA or DA/DH?

A

A. AC’s geographical location with respect to the prescribed MAP
B. Direction of flight
C. Minimum turning altitudes in the prescribed missed approach procedure
D. AC performance
E. Visual climb restrictions
F. Charted obstacles
G. Availability of a published obstacle departure procedure
H. Takeoff visual climb requirements, as expressed by nonstandard takeoff minima
I. Other traffic expected to be in the vicinity
J. Other factors not specifically expressed by the approach procedures

108
Q

What is a low approach?

A

Go-around maneuver following an approach. Instead of landing or making a touch and go, a pilot may wish to go-around (low approach) in order to expedite a particular operation.

Unless otherwise specified by ATC, a low approach should be made straight ahead, with no turns or climb made until the pilot has made a thorough visual check for other AC.

109
Q

What does the phrase “Cleared for the option” mean?

A

Will permit an instructor, flight examiner, or pilot the option to make a touch and go, low approach, missed approach, stop-and-go, or full stop landing. The pilot should make a request for this procedure passing the final approach fix inbound on an instrument approach.

110
Q

Is it legal to land a civil AC if the actual visibility is below the minimums published on the approach chart?

A

No

Part 91 states that no pilot operating an aircraft, except military AC, may land when the flight visibility is less than the visibility prescribed in the SIAP being used.

111
Q

When landing at an airport with an operating control tower following an IFR flight, must the pilot call FSS to close the flight plan?

A

No

If operating on an IFR flight plan to an airport with a functioning control tower, the flight plan will automatically be closed upon landing

112
Q

You are operating on an IFR flight plan into an airport without an operating control tower, and have forgotten to close your flight plan. Discuss the effect this will have on ATC.

A

The airspace surrounding that airport cannot be released for use by other IFR AC until the status of your flight has been determined.

113
Q

If the visibility provided by ATC is less than that prescribed for the approach, can a pilot legally continue an approach to land?

A

According to Part 91, no pilot may land when the FLIGHT VISIBILITY is less than the visibility prescribed in the SIAP being used. ATC will provide the pilot with the current visibility reports appropriate to the RWY in use. This may be in the form of prevailing visibility, RVV, or RVR. However, only the pilot can determine if the flight visibility meets the landing requirements.

If the flight visibility meets the minimum prescribed for the approach, then the approach may be continued to a landing. If the flight visibility is less than that prescribed, then the pilot must execute a missed approach regardless of reported visibility.

114
Q

When the approach procedure title contains more than one navigational system separated by a slash (VOR/DME 31) what does this indicate?

A

More than one type of equipment must be used to execute the final approach

115
Q

When the approach procedure title contains more than one navigational system separated by the word “or” (VOR or GPS RWY 15), what does this indicate?

A

Either type of equipment may be used to execute the final approach

116
Q

With no FAF available, when would final descent to the published MDA be started?

A

For non-precision approaches, a final descent and the final segment begins at either the FAF or the final approach point. When no FAF is depicted, the final approach point is the point at which the AC is established inbound on the final approach course.

117
Q

What significance does a black triangle with a white “A” appearing in the notes section of an approach chart have to the pilot?

A

Nonstandard IFR alternate minimums exist for the airport.

If an NA exists after the “A”, alternate minimum are not authorized.

Approved terminal Wx observations and reporting facilities, or a general area weather report, must be available before an airport may serve as an alternate.

118
Q

What is the significance of the term “radar required” found on some approach charts?

A

A term displayed on charts and approach plates and included on FDC NOTAMs to alert pilots that segments of either an IAP or a route are not navigable because of either an absence or unusability of a NAVAID. Pilot can expect to be provided radar navigational guidance while transiting segments labeled with this term.

119
Q

What are the MSAs for this approach?

A

A. 180 - 270 degrees: 2,200 feet

B. 270 - 360 degrees: 3,600 feet

C. 360 - 180 degrees: 2,800 feet

120
Q

On which facility is the MSA centered, and what does it provide?

A

Centered on the Mufin LOM

The altitude shown provides at least 1,000 feet of clearance above the highest obstacle in that sector up to a distance of 25NM from the facility.

Nav course guidance not assured at the MSA.

121
Q

What is the IAF for this procedure?

A

Mufin LOM

122
Q

What significance does the bold arrow extending from Bowie VOR have?

A

Represents a feeder route or flyable route utilized when transitioning from the en route structure to the IAF.

123
Q

When intercepting the localizer from procedure turn inbound, what will be the relative bearing on the ADF indicator as the localizer needle beings to center?

A

Assuming a 45 degree intercept angle, the relative bearing will be 315 degrees

124
Q

What are the frequencies for the locator outer marker and middle marker beacons?

A

The locator frequency is 365 kHz

All marker beacons transmit on 75 MHz

125
Q

Explain the difference between a “Note” such as RADAR REQUIRED or DME REQUIRED being charted in the plan view of an IAP, and a note being charted in the “Notes” box of the pilot briefing portion of the approach chart

A

When radar or other equipment is required for procedure entry from the en route environment, a note will be charted in the plan view of the IAP chart.

When radar or other equipment is required on portions of the procedure outside the final approach segment, including the missed approach, a note will be charted in the notes box of the pilot briefing portion of the approach chart.

Notes are not charted when VOR is required outside the final approach segment. Pilots should ensure that the AC is equipped to receive the required NAVAIDs in order to execute the approach, including the missed approach.

126
Q

Where does the final approach segment begin for the ILS 16 approach?

A

On all precision approaches, the final approach segment begins when the glide slope is intercepted at glide slope altitude.

For non-precision approaches, such as the straight-in LOC 16 approach, it begins at the Maltese cross (Mufin LOM).

127
Q

Within what distance from the Mufin LOM must the procedure turn be executed?

A

Within 10 NM

128
Q

If a procedure turn is required, what would be the minimum altitude while flying this segment? (See FTW ILS or LOC RWY 16)

A

The minimum altitude for the initial approach segment and while executing a procedure turn is 2,400 feet MSL

129
Q

To what altitude may a pilot descend after the procedure turn? (See FTW ILS or LOC RWY 16)

A

When established inbound after the procedure turn, the pilot may descend to 2,000 feet MSL

130
Q

What does the number “1992” located at the outer marker indicate? (See FTW ILS or LOC RWY 16)

A

The altitude of the glideslope at the outer marker

131
Q

What is the glide slope angle for this approach? (See FTW ILS or LOC RWY 16)

A

3 degrees

132
Q

What is the altitude at which the electronic glide slope crosses the threshold of RWY 16? (See FTW ILS or LOC RWY 16)

A

Threshold crossing height (TCH) is 57 feet

133
Q

If the glide slope became INOP, could you continue this approach if established on the localizer at the time of the malfunction? Why? (See FTW ILS or LOC RWY 16)

A

Yes, provided ATC is notified and approves a localizer-only approach.

Since the procedure indicates a localizer-only minimum, a localizer-only approach can be authorized. The minimum is now an MDA and the approach is now a non-precision procedure with MAP being a time or DME point.

134
Q

If you discovered your marker beacon receiver was INOP, what are the authorized substitutes for the Mufin outer marker? (See FTW ILS or LOC RWY 16)

A

A. The compass locator (365 kHz)
B. 5.3 DME I-FTW
C. Maverick VORTAC (TTT) radial 269

135
Q

What DME distance is indicated in the profile view of the Mufin LOM and the RWY threshold? (See FTW ILS or LOC RWY 16)

A

The Mufin LOM is 5.3 NM, and the RWY threshold is 1.5 NM from the localizer antenna site

136
Q

Where is the MAP for the precision and non-precision approach procedure? (See FTW ILS or LOC RWY 16)

A

A. Precision Approach: Upon reaching the DA(H) of 910 feet MSL on the glide slope
B. Non-precision Approach:
- 1.5 DME from I-FTW, or
- Time from Mufin

137
Q

What is the minimum visibility for a Cat. A full ILS 16 approach? (See FTW ILS or LOC RWY 16)

A

1/2 mile or RVR 2,400 feet.

RVR of 1,800 feet is authorized with the use of FD or AP or HUD to DA

138
Q

If the approach light system became INOP, how would you determine the minimum visibility for a Cat. A full ILS 16 approach? (See FTW ILS or LOC RWY 16)

A

To determine landing minimums, consult the “INOP Components or Visual Aides Table” found in the US Terminal Procedures Publication for a complete description of the effect of inop components on approach minimums

139
Q

Convert the following RVR values to meteorological visibility:

A
RVR			SM
1,600 ft		1/4
2,400 ft		1/2
3,200 ft		5/8
4,000 ft		3/4
4,500 ft		7/8
5,000 ft		1
6,000 ft		1-1/4
140
Q

Are takeoff minimums standard or non-standard for FTW (See FTW ILS or LOC RWY 16)?

A

Non-standard

141
Q

For the localizer approach 16, what are the minimums for a Cat. A AC if circling maneuver is desired? (See FTW ILS or LOC RWY 16)

A

Circling MDA is 1,260 MSL; the visibility requirement increases to 1 mile for circling

142
Q

What significance do the numbers in parentheses (200-1/2) have?

A

Any minimums found in parentheses are not applicable to civil pilots. These minimums are directed to military AC

143
Q

When established at the MDA on the final approach course inbound for the straight-in LOC 16 approach, is the MDA expressed as Height Above Touchdown (HAT) or Height Above Airport (HAA)? (See FTW ILS or LOC RWY 16)

A

The MDA of 530 feet for straight-in landing always represents HAT since the approach is for a specific RWY.

MDA’s for circling approaches will always represent HAA since a specific RWY will not be used for landing.

144
Q

If current Wx reports indicate ceilings 100 OVC and visibility 1/2 mile, can a pilot legally make an approach to ILS 16, and can he land? (See FTW ILS or LOC RWY 16)

A

The approach may be attempted regardless of ceiling and visibility. At the DA (DH) the pilot must have the RWY environment in sight and have the prescribed flight visibility to land. If these conditions are met, the approach may be continued to landing.

145
Q

What types of lighting are available for RWY 16? (See FTW ILS or LOC RWY 16)

A

HIRL - High intensity RWY lighting

MALSR - Medium-intensity approach lighting system with sequenced flashing lights; denoted by the circled A5

146
Q

What is the TDZ elevation for RWY 16? (See FTW ILS or LOC RWY 16)

A

710 feet MSL

147
Q

What is the bearing and distance of the MAP from the FAF? (See FTW ILS or LOC RWY 16)

A

The MAP is 164 degrees, 3.8 NM from the FAF for the localizer approach and approximately the same distance for the full ILS approach.