Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Malsch Stack > Pre-Test Review > Flashcards

Pre-Test Review Flashcards

1
Q

What are the safety related functions of the Reactor Protection System

A
  • Keep fuel within DNBR

- Limit RCS Pressure w/in design

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the non-safety related functions of the Reactor Protection System

A
  • Initiate Turbine trip from a Reactor Trip

- Status and Alarm Conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the function of OTDT & what are the inputs

A
  • Protects from DNB

- Inputs from dT, Tave, AFD, and Pressurizer Pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the function of OPDT & what are the inputs

A
  • Protects from kW/ft

- Inputs from dT and Tave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the Safety Limits

A
  • WRB-1 DNBR >= 1.17
  • W-3 BNDR >= 1.30
  • Centerline Fuel Temperature < 5080 deg F (decreasing by 58 deg F per 10K MWD/MTU)
  • RCS Pressure < 2735 psig
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Loss of Voltage Load Shed signal:

  • Setpoint
  • Coincidence
  • Interlock
A
  • 94 (93) V
  • 2/3 on ANY T bus
  • 2 sec Delay
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Degraded Bus Voltage signal:

  • Setpoint
  • Coincidence
  • Interlock
A
  • 113 V
  • 2/3 on EITHER T11A/T11D
  • 2 min Delay
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

RWST Sequence signal:

  • Setpoint
  • Coincidence
  • Interlock
A
  • VCT Level < 2.5%
  • 2/2 Level Channels (QLC-451/2)
  • Either IMO-910/911 full open before QMO-451/452 closes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which Pressurizer Pressure Channels are used for SI

A
  • Channels 1-3
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which Containment Pressure Channels are used for SI

A
  • Channels 2-4
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the input into Pressurizer Level Program Control

A
  • Auctioneered high Tave
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How many gallons per % Level in the Pressurizer

A
  • 60-70 gallons per % level (no one seems to know the actual number)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What happens at 17% Pressurizer Level and lowering

A
  • All heaters are de-energized AND Letdown isolates at qrv-111/112 to protect heaters
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Why is NLI-151 (Pressurizer Level Cold Cal) used during cooldown

A
  • Because actual level is lower than indicated on the hot cal channels and doesn’t provide heater protection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What instrument inputs to LTOP Protection for NRV-152

A
  • NPS-122 (Loop 1 WR RCS pressure)

- Even, Even, Odd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What instrument inputs to LTOP Protection for NRV-153

A
  • NPS-121 (Loop 2 WR RCS pressure)

- Odd, Odd, Even

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Why are all backup heaters energized before a large dilution

A
  • To promote boron equalization between the RCS and the Pressurizer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the dT limits for Aux Spray

A
  • 320 deg F (TRM)
  • 302 deg F (QTI-451)
  • 290 deg F (QTI-60)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the minimum demand/flow achievable with QRV-251 in AUTO and what does this ensure

A
  • QRV-251 stops at 23.5% demand/47 gpm in AUTO

- Prevents isolating seal injection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What action is required with regards to the BAT during emergency boration

A
  • Must be manually shifted to FAST speed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What do the CCP ELO valves (QMO-225/226) do on an SI

A
  • Close on SI
  • w/ standing SI, 2 sec delay then cycle to maintain RCS pressure 1812-1825 psig (controlled by NPP-151/153)
  • Continue to cycle until SI reset AND valves taken to Pull-to-Reset
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

If shutdown margin IS NOT within COLR limits what action must be taken

A
  • Borate to restore within 15 minutes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Why is Charging flow kept slightly higher than Letdown flow during normal at power operations

A
  • To account for seal leakoff flow
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Generally speaking, what functions are associated with QLC-451

A
  • VCT Makeup Functions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Generally speaking, what functions are associated with QLC-452

A
  • VCT Divert Functions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What happens at 87% VCT level on QLC-451/452

A
  • Trip open divert AND alarm (QLC-451)

- Divert full open (QLC-452)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What happens at 78% VCT level on QLC-451/452

A
  • Nothing (QLC-451)

- Divert starts opening (QLC-452)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What happens at 24% VCT level on QLC-451/452

A
  • Makeup secured (QLC-451)

- Nothing (QLC-452)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What happens at 14% VCT level on QLC-451/452

A
  • Auto makeup starts AND low level alarm (QLC-451)

- Nothing (QLC-452)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What happens at 7% VCT level on QLC-451/452

A
  • Nothing (QLC-451)

- Low level alarm (QLC-452)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What happens at 2.5% VCT level on QLC-451/452

A
  • VCT Low Low Level Alarm (QLC-451/452)

- RWST Sequence on 2/2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What flow path does QRV-303 Letdown Divert Valve fail to

A
  • Fails to VCT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the inputs to the Steam Dump controller in Tave Mode while on the “Load Rejection Controller”

A
  • Auctioneered Tave-Tref
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the inputs to the Steam Dump controller in Tave mode while on the “Turbine Trip Controller”

A
  • Auctioneered Tave-547
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How many groups of Steam Dump Valves are available while on the “Load Rejection Controller” AND at what temperature delta do they begin to open

A
  • Group 1 (5 deg delta)
  • Group 2 (9 deg delta)
  • Group 3 (13 deg delta)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How many groups of Steam Dump Valves are available while on the “Turbine Trip Controller” AND at what temperature delta do they begin to open

A
  • Group 1 (0 deg delta)

- Group 2 (10 deg delta)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What temperature is T no load

A
  • 547 deg F
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How many groups of Steam Dump Valves are available below “Low Tave” when the controller has been taken to “Bypass Interlock”

A
  • One Group available below 541 deg F
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What pressure is being controlled with the Steam Dump Controller in “Steam Pressure Mode”

A
  • Bypass Header UPC-101
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the ECCS Design Acceptance Criteria

A
  • Peak clad temperature ,2200 deg F
  • Max clad oxidation <17%
  • H2 generation <1%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

At what pressure does the CCP start to inject during an accident

A
  • 2300 psig
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

At what pressure does the SI start to inject during an accident

A
  • 1600 psig
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

At what pressure do the accumulators start to inject during an accident

A
  • 600 psig
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

At what pressure does the RHR start to inject during an accident

A
  • 200 psig
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

At what flow rate does the CCP inject during an accident

A
  • 150-550 gpm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

At what flow rate does the SI inject during an accident

A
  • 400-600 gpm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

At what flow rate does the RHR inject during an accident

A
  • 4500 gpm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is acceptable volume range for the Accumulators

A
  • 921-971 cuft
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is acceptable pressure range for the Accumulators

A
  • 585-658 psig
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is acceptable boron concentration range for the Accumulators

A
  • 2400-2600 ppm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What interlocks must be met in order to start an RCP

A
  • Bearing Lift Pump Motor Start Closed

- Bearing Lift Oil Pressure > 510 psig

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the flow rate up through the #1 RCP seal

A
  • 3 gpm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the flow rate up through the #2 RCP seal

A
  • 3 gph
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the flow rate up through the #3 RCP seal

A
  • 100 cc/hr
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Where does #1 RCP seal return go

A
  • Seal Water Hx to the CCP suction/VCT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Where does #2 RCP seal flow go

A
  • RCP standpipe/RCDT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Where does #3 RCP seal flow go

A
  • RCDT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

With regards to the RCPs, what must be done on a loss of CCW or a Phase B Containment Isolation AND what is the timeframe for this action AND why is this action taken

A
  • Trip the RCPs
  • Within 2 minutes
  • Prevent damaging bearings
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

If at power what must be done if an RCP trips

A
  • Trip the reactor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What do the Incore NIs do

A
  • Determine magnitude/location of fuel burnup
  • Identify misaligned rods
  • Perform flux profiles/QPTR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What type of detectors are the Source Range NIs

A
  • BF3 Proportional
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What type of detectors are the Intermediate Range NIs

A
  • Compensated Ion Chamber
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What would your Intermediate Range NIs read if they are over compensated

A
  • IR would give a false LOW indication
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What would your Intermediate Range NIs read if they are under compensated

A
  • IR would give a false HIGH indication
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What type of detectors are the Power Range NIs

A
  • Uncompensated Ion Chamber
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What type of detectors are the Gammametrics NIs

A
  • Fission Chamber
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the tech spec limit for QPTR

A
  • 1.02
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Describe how QPTR is calculated

A
  • Max upper vs AVERAGE of all Upper

- Max Lower vs AVERAGE of all Lower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

If AFD IS NOT in target band what actions are required

A
  • Above 90% power -> restore within 15 mins

- If you cannot restore w/in 15 mins then be less than 50% within 15 mins (30 mins total)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What are the inputs to Rod Control

A
  • Auctioneered High Tave
  • Auctioneered High PRNI
  • MPC-253
71
Q

During restoration of a mis-aligned rod, why is an urgen failure generated in the other banks of rods in that power cabiner

A
  • All lift coil disconnect switches are open for that entire group
72
Q

How fast do the shutdown rod banks move

A
  • 62 steps per minute

- No indication of S/D banks C & D

73
Q

How fast do the control banks move in MANUAL

A
  • 48 steps per minute
74
Q

How fast do the control banks move in AUTO

A
  • 8-72 steps per minute
75
Q

At what temperature error (Tave - Tref) do Rods start to move

76
Q

At what speed do rods move in AUTO with a temperature error between 1.5 deg F and 3.0 deg F

A
  • 8 steps per minute
77
Q

At what speed do rods move in AUTO with a temperature error between 3.0 deg F and 5.0 deg F

A
  • Increases linearly from 8 steps to 72 steps per minute
78
Q

At what temperature error (Tave - Tref) do Rods stop moving

79
Q

What does the Variable Gain Unit do for Rod Control

A
  • Increases the output at low power

- Reactivity changes at low power have a smaller effect on power than at high power

80
Q

What does the Mismatch Rate Comparator do for Rod Control

A
  • Provides faster response to transient conditions
  • Rate of change vs. Turbine 1st stage press AND NIs
  • Rate eventually decays away
81
Q

What must be done with 1 rod out of the ARM (Allowable Rod Misalignment)

A
  • Borate to SDM within 1 hour AND lower power to 75% within 2 hours
82
Q

What must be done with more than 1 rods out of the ARM (Allowable Rod Misalignment)

A
  • Borate to SDM within 1 hour OR be in M3 in 6 hours
83
Q

What is the definition of Mode 1

A
  • Keff >= 0.99

- > 5% RTP

84
Q

What is the definition of Mode 2

A
  • Keff >= 0.99

- <= 5% RTP

85
Q

What is the definition of Mode 3

A
  • Keff < 0.99

- >= 350 deg F

86
Q

What is the definition of Mode 4

A
  • Keff < 0.99

- 200 deg F < Tave < 350 deg F

87
Q

What is the definition of Mode 5

A
  • Keff < 0.99

- <= 200 deg F

88
Q

In Mode 4 how many RCS Loops are required operable AND what action is required if NOT met

A
  • 2 RCS OR RHR loops with 1 in operation

- Restore Immediately

89
Q

In Mode 5 with Loops Filled how many RCS Loops are required operable AND what action is required if NOT met

A
  • 1 RHR loop operable and in Operation AND Either 1 additional RHR loop Operatble OR 2 SGs Operable
  • Restore Immediately
90
Q

In Mode 5 with Loops NOT Filled how many RCS Loops are required operable AND what action is required if NOT met

A
  • 2 RHR loops operable AND 1 in operation

- Restore Immediately

91
Q

In Modes 1-3 how many ECCS Trains must be operable

A
  • 2 trains

- IF less than 100% flow THEN LCO 3.0.3

92
Q

In Mode 4 how many ECCS Trains must be operable AND what action is required if NOT met

A
  • 1 train

- Restore Immediately

93
Q

In Mode 6 with greater than 23 ft of water how many RHR loops are required AND what action is required if NOT met

A
  • One RHR loop operable AND in operation

- Restore Immediately

94
Q

In Mode 6 with less than 23 ft of water how many RHR loops are required AND what action is required if NOT met

A
  • Two RHR loops operable AND one in operation

- Restore Immediately

95
Q

With level greater than 23 ft during refueling how long can the required RHR train be removed for service AND what stipulations are there

A
  • Required loop can be removed for less than 1 hour per 8 hour period
  • No operations are permitted that would cause RCS dilution
96
Q

Under what conditions is RVLIS Narrow Range Used

A
  • No RCPs running
97
Q

Under what condtions is RVLIS Wide Range Used

A
  • With RCPs running
98
Q

Under what conditions is RVLIS Upper Plenum Used

A
  • No RCPs running

- Used for fill & vent using RCP bump method

99
Q

What are the inputs to the Subcooling meters

A
  • Auctioneered Hi CETC OR WR RTD

- Auctioneered LO RVLIS pressure

100
Q

Why is RVLIS pressure used for the subcooling meters

A
  • Because it’s located outside of Containment (Mild Environment)
101
Q

If RCS Tave is less than 541 deg F what action is required

A
  • Be in M2 w/ Keff <1 in 30 minutes
102
Q

If RCS Tave is less than 539 deg F what action is required

A
  • Immediately place Rx in subcritical condition
103
Q

What are the RCS heatup and cooldown limits

A
  • 60 deg F/hr heatup

- 100 deg F/hr cooldown

104
Q

What is the required action if an RCS heatup OR cooldown limit is exceeded in M1-4

A
  • Restore to within 30 minutes

- Due to brittle fracture concerns

105
Q

What is the required action if an RCS heatup OR cooldown limit is exceeded M5

A
  • Restore immediately

- Due to brittle fracture concerns

106
Q

During power changes, when is an Iodine sample required

A
  • If the power change is greater than 15% in 1 hour
107
Q

If an RHR pump trips at low temperatures what is the effect on Letdown flow

A
  • Letdown flow is reduced immediately from the loss of pump discharge pressure
108
Q

During a cooldown why is 600 gpm RHR flow sent to L2 & L3 Hot legs

A
  • To keep L3 subcooled during pressurizer outsurge
109
Q

During the recirculation phase of an accident, which train of RHR provides suction to the SI pumps

110
Q

During the recirculation phase of an accident, which train of RHR provides suction to the CCP pumps

111
Q

In order to open ICM-305/306 (RHR Suction from the Recirc Sump), what interlocks must be met

A
  • IMO-310/320 (RHR suction from RWST) CLOSED
112
Q

In order to open IMO-340/350 (RHR to CCP/SI Suction), what interlocks must be met

A
  • ICM-305/306 (RHR suction from Recirc Sump) OPEN

- IMO-262 OR IMO 263 (SI Recirc to RWST) CLOSED

113
Q

In order to open IMO-330/331 (RHR to Upper Spray), what interlocks must be met

A
  • ICM-305/306 (RHR suction from Recirc Sump) OPEN
114
Q

In order to open IMO-310/320 (RHR Suction from RWST), what interlocks must be met

A
  • ICM-305/306 (RHR suction from Recirc Sump) CLOSED
  • IMO-340/350 (RHR to CCP/SI) CLOSED
  • IMO-330/331 (RHR to Upper Spray) CLOSED
115
Q

What interlock enables the RWST Lo-Lo Level RHR trip at 9%

A
  • IMO-310/320 OPEN
116
Q

What provides the open signal for ESW to CTS Hx valves to OPEN

A
  • ICM-305/306 OPEN
117
Q

What interlock must be met in order to open IMO-128/ICM-129

A
  • NPS-122 < 411 psig (L1 WR Press) for IMO-128

- NPS-121 < 411 psig (L2 WR Press) for ICM-129

118
Q

How much is turbine load lowered (MW) AND at what rate rate does the load reduction occur for a 10% manual runback

A
  • 114.9 (121.7) MW @ 100 MW/min
119
Q

How much is turbine load lowered (MW) AND at what rate rate does the load reduction occur for a 20% manual runback

A
  • 130 (240) MW @ 100 MW/min
120
Q

How much is turbine load lowered (MW) AND at what rate rate does the load reduction occur for a Loss of Feed Pump

A
  • Goes to load target of 625 MW @ 600 MW/min in U1

- Goes to 90% @ 1000 MW/min then to 60% @140 MW/min in U2

121
Q

When is the Loss of Feed Pump turbine runback enables

A
  • Greater than 54.5% U1

- Greater than 60% U2

122
Q

How much is turbine load lowered (MW) AND at what rate rate does the load reduction occur for an OPDT/OTDT runback

A
  • 30 MW @ an average of 124 (134) MW/min

- 1 sec on (10X speed) 9.5 sec off

123
Q

How much is turbine load lowered (MW) AND at what rate rate does the load reduction occur for an ATWS

A
  • Load target of 1 MW @ 1389 MW/min
124
Q

How much is turbine load lowered (MW) AND at what rate rate does the load reduction occur for a Power Load Unbalance runback

A
  • 30 MW @ 1389 MW/min in MW-OUT
125
Q

Where is SG water level measured

A
  • In the downcomer
126
Q

What is the SG normal level

127
Q

What causes SG water level SHRINK

A
  • Reduction is steam flow (i.e., Pressure rises, bubbles collapse)
128
Q

What causes SG water level SWELL

A
  • Increase in steam flow (i.e., Pressure lowers, bubbles expand)
129
Q

After a prolonged period of SF and FF mismatch where will SG water levels ultimately settle out (assuming no operator actions or automatic actions occur) AND why does this happen

A
  • 43.8 % BECAUSE SGWLC is level dominate

- Valves will move to reduce error but level will ultimately override error signal

130
Q

What will AUTO start an ESW pump

A
  • SI on either Unit
  • Load shed
  • Low header pressure 40 psig (switch in AUTO only)
131
Q

Which unit supplies control air for BOTH units ESW backwash strainer

132
Q

What will AUTO start a CCW pump

A
  • SI
  • Loadshed
  • Low discharge pressure on running pump 80 psig (switch in AUTO only)
133
Q

What is the flow range for a CCW pump (min flow - run out flow)

A
  • 3,000 - 9,000 gpm
134
Q

What actions occur in the CCW system on an SI

A
  • Letdown Hx Isolate
  • ESW to CCW Hx Throttles 5500 gpm
  • RHR Hx Outlet opens to 3000-3500 gpm
  • CCW Hx outlet opens (also on a LOOP)
135
Q

What do the Odd numbered Containment Radiation monitors (Train A) do during a CVI

A
  • Close the 100 series (inside containment) valves

- Trips the IR Purge Supply fan

136
Q

What do the Even numbered Containment Radiation monitors (Train B) do during a CVI

A
  • Close the 200 series (outside containment) valves
  • Trips Pressure Relief fan
  • Trips Upper & Lower Containment Purge Supply fans
  • Trips Upper & Lower Containment Purge Exhaust fans
  • Trips IR Purge Exhaust fan
137
Q

What are the Upper Containment tech spec temperature limits

A
  • 60-100 deg F
138
Q

What are the Lower Containment tech spec temperature limits

A
  • 60-120 deg F
139
Q

What are the Containment Pressure limits AND what is the required action if outside the limits

A
  • -1.5 to +0.3 psig

- Restore within 1 hour

140
Q

When is new fuel considered conditioned

A
  • After 72 hours of operation in the last 7 days
141
Q

When is fuel considered condition under “normal” operation

A
  • After 72 hours of operation in the last 30 days
142
Q

What is the power escalation rate limit below 50% power

A
  • There is no limit
143
Q

What is the power escalation limit above 50% with condition fuel

A
  • 10% per hour
144
Q

What is the power escalation limit above 50% with unconditioned fuel

A
  • 3% per hour
145
Q

How many steps per hour can rods be withdrawn between 50%-75% with unconditioned fuel

A
  • 3 steps per hour
146
Q

How many steps per hour can rods be withdrawn above 75% with unconditioned fuel

A
  • 6 steps per hour
147
Q

How many steps per hour can rods be withdrawn above 50% with conditioned fuel

A
  • There is no hourly limit (3 steps at a time until feedback is received)
148
Q

What does the Turbine being in MW-in do

A
  • Allows valves to move to maintain constant MW
149
Q

What does the Turbine being in MW-out do

A
  • Holds the valves in position (MWs may vary)
150
Q

What conditions will force a MFP to speed control

A
  • BOTH MS pressure transmitters fail
  • BOTH MFP Hdr pressure transmitters fail
  • MFP DP setpoint transmitter fails
  • Other MFP trips above 60% power
  • MFP Speed > 5220 (5300) rpm
151
Q

How is the dP auto target setpoint for MFPs determined

A
  • Based on the total steam flow from selected channels
152
Q

How is the actual dP for MFPs determined

A
  • Highest steam pressure

- Lowest feedwater pressure

153
Q

What is the tech spec minimum volume of the CST in gallons AND percent

A
  • 182,000 gal

- 44%

154
Q

What is the basis for the CST minimum volume

A
  • Maintain plant in hot standby for 9 hours on PORVs w/ LOOP
155
Q

What is the maximum and minimum flow for a MFP

A
  • 7M lbm/hr MAX

- 2M lbm/hr MIN (ELO capacity)

156
Q

What are the MFP hardwired trips

A
  • Manual
  • Reactor Trip
  • SI
  • Hi-Hi SG lvl (P14)
  • IOPS (110%)
  • Thrust Bearing Wear
157
Q

What are the MFP DCS trips

A
  • Condenser Vacuum Low (20”/20.3” Hg)
  • Overspeed (107%)
  • Lube Oil Pressure (4 psig, 5 sec delay)
  • Low Suction Pressure (180 psig, 5 sec delay)
  • Low Trip Header Pressure (800 psig)
158
Q

What are the EDG trips with an SI or LOOP w/ 250 VDC available

A
  • Generator Phase Differential
  • Electronic Overspeed (110%)
  • Manual push button
159
Q

If the EDG electronic governor fails high, what happens

A
  • Speed will rise and machine will be controlled by the mechanical governor
160
Q

Why is the EDG inoperable during testing

A
  • Because it will not generate a load shed signal
161
Q

What is the tech spec limit on EDG air receiver pressure

162
Q

What is the tech spec level range for the EDG fuel oil tank

A
  • 39,500 gal - 46,000 gal
163
Q

What is the tech spec limit for the EDG day tank

164
Q

Why is EDG load raised to 900-1100 KW after closing the output breaker

A
  • To prevent motoring of the EDG due to no-load conditions
165
Q

Why do extraction steam lines to feedwater and condensate heaters have check valves

A
  • To protect the turbine from overspeeding
166
Q

Which train of RATs does TR-5 supply

167
Q

Which train of RATs does TR-9 supply

168
Q

Why does transferring to EP require a dead bus transfer

A
  • Because EP is 30 deg out of phase
169
Q

What is the ampacity limit for EP

A
  • 600 amps per phase (Aluminum cables)
170
Q

What are the SDGs sized for

A
  • 1 train of RCS inventory control
171
Q

Describe is the degraded bus voltage sequence

A
  • 113 V on 2/3 indicator on T11A or T11D
  • 9 sec delay w/ SI or SG lo-lo, Load Shed
  • 99 sec, Auto transfer to RATs
  • 120 sec, Load Shed
  • 120 sec time delay to Load Shed w/o SI or SG Lo Lo
  • 9 sec time delay to Load Shed w/ SI or SG Lo Lo
172
Q

If a degraded bus voltage sequence occurs which busses are stripped

A
  • Both busses on the train that initiated the DBV
173
Q

Describe the Load Shed sequence

A
  • 94 (93) V on 2/3 indicators on ANY T bus
  • 2 sec delay
  • Trips bus feeders, loads, and starts EDG and sequences loads
174
Q

What initiates a Load Conservation and what does it do

A
  • LOOP w/ SI/CTS
  • Trips and locks out non-essential loads
  • Prevents restarting stripped loads until 75 sec timer or SI reset after 60 sec SI timer
  • Trips NESW pp

Malsch Stack (84 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions