Practice Test 2 (Old Modules) Flashcards
Which legislative act was passed to promote the development and stabliity of commercial aviation, provide the industry with assistance and legal basis necessary for growth?
Air Commerce Act of 1926
Under which legislative act was the Air Safety Board, Office of the Administrator, and the CAA created?
Civil Aeronautics Act of 1938
The legislative act that transferred the safety functions of the CAA to the Federal Aviation Agency, entrusted safety rulemaking to the FAA, and charged the FAA with the responsibility for developing and maintaining a common civil-military system of air navigation and air traffic control was the:
Federal Aviation Act of 1958
Which legislative act caused the eventual phasing out of the CAB’s economic regulation of the airlines by 1984?
Airline Deregulation Act of 1978
What act set up the Airport Improvement Program and allowed for the funding of friction measuring equipment, various safety-related equipment, automated weather observing systems, airport planning, and noise studies?
Airport and Airways Improvement Act of 1982
The legislative act that increased the cap on the PFC from $3.00 to $4.50 was the:
Aviation Investment and Reform Act for the 21st Century or AIR-21
What documents are binding if incorporated into FARs by reference, and provide methods that are acceptable for compliance with FARs?
Advisory Circulars
Which FAR addresses the invesitgative and enforcement procedures of the FAA?
Part 13
The Federal Airport Act of 1946 transferred ownership of airfields to a state or other governmental entity under teh terms of what type of agreement?
AP-4
The economic activity associated with the dollars spent at the airport and in the community by airport patrons who use the airport, and activity generated from businesses that have chosen to locate in a community because the airport is integral to their operation is referred to as:
indirect impact
An airport capacity analysis includes these four distinct areas:
- airspace
- airfield
- terminal
- ground access
The rate at which aircraft movements on the runway/taxiway system result in a given level of delay is called:
Airfield Capacity
_______ is a commonly used measure to evaluate the feasibility and benefit of airport development and improvement projects.
PANCAP (practical annual capacity)
Airport delay increases graduatlly until it reaches its _________; then it increases exponentially.
practical capacity
True or False: Practical capaciity is always less than throughput capacity.
True
The ______ is a system into which FAA personnel record aircraft that are delayed 15 or more minutes by a specific cause (weather, terminal volume, center volume, closed runways or taxiways, and NAS equipment interruption).
Air Traffic Operations Management System
What is commonly regarded as the most critical airfield characteristic that impacts the airport’s ability to handle increases in capacity?
Runway configuration
An air traffic management technique used as a last resort under unusual circumstances to prevent aircraft from entering the airspace system is the:
ground stop
Slot system characteristics:
- slot allocatioon results from administrative determinations, negotation, or assignment through a reservation system
- any slot not used 80% of the time in any two-month period is subject to recall by the FAA
- the slot reservation system is used primarily for allocating general aviation and charter slots on a first-come-fist-serve basis
At some airports, air traffic controllers can determine wind direction and velocity using data provided by the ______, a series of doppler radars positioned at various locations on and around teh airport.
LLWAS (Low Level Wind Shear Alert System)
A Flight Service Station (FSS) provides the following:
- local airport advisories
- ATC clearances to aircraft operating on IFR flight plans
- pilot briefing
- weather observations
The signal that is used by the control tower to tell a vehicle driver he or she is cleared to enter or cross is ________.
a steady green signal from a light gun
The airspace around medium size airports that extends from the surface to 4,000 feet AGL is called:
Class C Airspace
The category of special-use airspace that separates certain military training activities froom IFR traffic is called a:
Military Operations Area
When an airport is at its capacity limit or severe weather prohibits landing, a local controller may do what?
direct aircraft to enter a holding pattern
_____ procedures will allow a pilot in a specially equipped aircraft to fly without ATC direction or need to follow defined routes until ATC takes control once aircraft enters terminal airspace.
Free Flight
What are the options available to airport managers to address the results of an FAR Part 77 study?
- relocate the runway threshold
- remove the encroaching object
- raise the minimum descent altitude (MDA)
Give some examples of an FAA determination of a Part 77 study:
- an object is hazardous to air navigation
- alter, remove, mark or light the object
- approved as proposed
- adverse affect on safe and efficient use of navigable airspace
The imaginary surface located 150’ above runway elevation that accommodates circle to land and missed approach procedures is the:
horizontal surface
The area under the innermost portion of the approach surface is the:
Runway Safety Area (RSA)
Installation of a 150’ microwave antenna next to the FBO hangar requires submission of which form?
FAA Form 7460-1
An addition to GPSS that focuses its service on the airport area (approximately a 20-30 mile radius) is called what?
Area Navigation System
List some reasons for doing an environmental assessment:
- determining baseline environmental conditions of a facility
- determining potential environmental liabilities of property before making an acquisition or initiating condemnation proceedings
- identifying potential problems that could stop or delay a construction program
The ______ is the primary agency responsible for the nationwide enforcement of environmental regulations, including enforcement of these regulations at airports.
U.S. Environmental Protection Agency
The _______ authorizes the EPA to regulate hazardous substances once they have been generated until their ultimate disposal.
RCRA
Preparation of an Environmental Impact Statement for AIP projects undertaken at airports in accordance with NEPA is the responsibility of:
the FAA
National Pollution Disharge Elimination System (NPDES) permits are issued in compliance with the:
Clean Water Act
The purpose of an environmental assessment is to:
Determine whether or not an airport project will likely have one or more significant impacts on the environment.
The term “Superfund” refers to:
the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980 (CERCLA)
Whether a process, activity, or physical structure, implementation of _______ can be used to prevent or reduce the amount of pollution from any type of activity.
BMP (best management practices)
A ______ waste is one that is unstable or undergoes rapid or violent chemical reaction with water or another material.
reactive
Under the ________ airport management must participate in efforts to plan a coordinated response to a serious emergency; make general disclosures to the public about potentially hazardous chemicals the airport uses, and report to authorities certain emergency spills and other releases into the environment.
EPCRA
OSHA rules require an airport to provide employees with information and training on safety matters, have a communication program that encompasses written guidelines, warning labels, and _______.
Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS)
______ provided the basis for noise abatement planning at airports.
Airport Noise Control and Land Use Compatability Program
Under Part 150, residential land uses are considered to be compatible with noise levels less than ______.
65 dB DNL
Opinions differ regarding the best method for analyzing and quantifying the effects of noise on a community because _________.
because of the subjective nature of how noise is perceived by listeners
If a person adjusts a stereo to 70 decibles as a comfortable and normal sound, a listener raising it to 80 decibles would perceive the sound as being [X] times as loud.
ten times as loud
_____ is the national standard used by airports in the preparation of Part 150 studies.
Yearly DNL
The FAA defines a significant change in noise exposure as an increase in DNL of 1.5 dB if the new DNL is above _____.
65 dB
A Part 150 study is most appropriate if:
- there are significant amounts of noise-affected incompatible land use
- receipt of serious noise complaints
- property acquisition for buffer zones
- introduction of major changes in airport facilities or operations that are likely to shift or increase noise patterns.
Name several common provisions for the approval of a preferential runway use system:
- that the system acheives the goal of reducing non-compatible land uses around the airport
- that the system does not create an undue burden on intertate or foreign commerce
- that the system does not derogate safety or affect the safe and efficient use of airspace
What is the most effective control measure for reducing noise impact?
land acquisition
Which federal regulation must an airport operator abide by when considering a Stage 3 aircraft noise and access restriction?
FAR Part 161
The first clear identification of the responsibilities of the FAA, air carriers, airport operators, and local communities in dealing with the problem of aircraft noise exposure was outlined in what document?
Aviation Noise Abatement Policy
That dB level is the threshold of pain for the human ear?
130 dB
Airports are unique in that they are considered to be ______, _____ and _____ in nature at the same time.
governmental, enterprise, and proprietary
Financing
- primarily focuses on long-term capital investments and improvements
- is an external function that relies on and is affected by general economics and market conditions
A database of information on the future capital needs of certain airports can be found under the _____, which is maintained by the FAA.
NPIAS
The _____ is a decision tool expressed as a ratio that looks at the cost-benefit of an investment. If greater than 1.0, it means that the overall return on an investment is greater than the cost.
Profitability Index (PI)