Practice Test 2 (Old Modules) Flashcards
Which legislative act was passed to promote the development and stabliity of commercial aviation, provide the industry with assistance and legal basis necessary for growth?
Air Commerce Act of 1926
Under which legislative act was the Air Safety Board, Office of the Administrator, and the CAA created?
Civil Aeronautics Act of 1938
The legislative act that transferred the safety functions of the CAA to the Federal Aviation Agency, entrusted safety rulemaking to the FAA, and charged the FAA with the responsibility for developing and maintaining a common civil-military system of air navigation and air traffic control was the:
Federal Aviation Act of 1958
Which legislative act caused the eventual phasing out of the CAB’s economic regulation of the airlines by 1984?
Airline Deregulation Act of 1978
What act set up the Airport Improvement Program and allowed for the funding of friction measuring equipment, various safety-related equipment, automated weather observing systems, airport planning, and noise studies?
Airport and Airways Improvement Act of 1982
The legislative act that increased the cap on the PFC from $3.00 to $4.50 was the:
Aviation Investment and Reform Act for the 21st Century or AIR-21
What documents are binding if incorporated into FARs by reference, and provide methods that are acceptable for compliance with FARs?
Advisory Circulars
Which FAR addresses the invesitgative and enforcement procedures of the FAA?
Part 13
The Federal Airport Act of 1946 transferred ownership of airfields to a state or other governmental entity under teh terms of what type of agreement?
AP-4
The economic activity associated with the dollars spent at the airport and in the community by airport patrons who use the airport, and activity generated from businesses that have chosen to locate in a community because the airport is integral to their operation is referred to as:
indirect impact
An airport capacity analysis includes these four distinct areas:
- airspace
- airfield
- terminal
- ground access
The rate at which aircraft movements on the runway/taxiway system result in a given level of delay is called:
Airfield Capacity
_______ is a commonly used measure to evaluate the feasibility and benefit of airport development and improvement projects.
PANCAP (practical annual capacity)
Airport delay increases graduatlly until it reaches its _________; then it increases exponentially.
practical capacity
True or False: Practical capaciity is always less than throughput capacity.
True
The ______ is a system into which FAA personnel record aircraft that are delayed 15 or more minutes by a specific cause (weather, terminal volume, center volume, closed runways or taxiways, and NAS equipment interruption).
Air Traffic Operations Management System
What is commonly regarded as the most critical airfield characteristic that impacts the airport’s ability to handle increases in capacity?
Runway configuration
An air traffic management technique used as a last resort under unusual circumstances to prevent aircraft from entering the airspace system is the:
ground stop
Slot system characteristics:
- slot allocatioon results from administrative determinations, negotation, or assignment through a reservation system
- any slot not used 80% of the time in any two-month period is subject to recall by the FAA
- the slot reservation system is used primarily for allocating general aviation and charter slots on a first-come-fist-serve basis
At some airports, air traffic controllers can determine wind direction and velocity using data provided by the ______, a series of doppler radars positioned at various locations on and around teh airport.
LLWAS (Low Level Wind Shear Alert System)
A Flight Service Station (FSS) provides the following:
- local airport advisories
- ATC clearances to aircraft operating on IFR flight plans
- pilot briefing
- weather observations
The signal that is used by the control tower to tell a vehicle driver he or she is cleared to enter or cross is ________.
a steady green signal from a light gun
The airspace around medium size airports that extends from the surface to 4,000 feet AGL is called:
Class C Airspace
The category of special-use airspace that separates certain military training activities froom IFR traffic is called a:
Military Operations Area
When an airport is at its capacity limit or severe weather prohibits landing, a local controller may do what?
direct aircraft to enter a holding pattern
_____ procedures will allow a pilot in a specially equipped aircraft to fly without ATC direction or need to follow defined routes until ATC takes control once aircraft enters terminal airspace.
Free Flight
What are the options available to airport managers to address the results of an FAR Part 77 study?
- relocate the runway threshold
- remove the encroaching object
- raise the minimum descent altitude (MDA)
Give some examples of an FAA determination of a Part 77 study:
- an object is hazardous to air navigation
- alter, remove, mark or light the object
- approved as proposed
- adverse affect on safe and efficient use of navigable airspace
The imaginary surface located 150’ above runway elevation that accommodates circle to land and missed approach procedures is the:
horizontal surface
The area under the innermost portion of the approach surface is the:
Runway Safety Area (RSA)
Installation of a 150’ microwave antenna next to the FBO hangar requires submission of which form?
FAA Form 7460-1
An addition to GPSS that focuses its service on the airport area (approximately a 20-30 mile radius) is called what?
Area Navigation System
List some reasons for doing an environmental assessment:
- determining baseline environmental conditions of a facility
- determining potential environmental liabilities of property before making an acquisition or initiating condemnation proceedings
- identifying potential problems that could stop or delay a construction program
The ______ is the primary agency responsible for the nationwide enforcement of environmental regulations, including enforcement of these regulations at airports.
U.S. Environmental Protection Agency
The _______ authorizes the EPA to regulate hazardous substances once they have been generated until their ultimate disposal.
RCRA
Preparation of an Environmental Impact Statement for AIP projects undertaken at airports in accordance with NEPA is the responsibility of:
the FAA
National Pollution Disharge Elimination System (NPDES) permits are issued in compliance with the:
Clean Water Act
The purpose of an environmental assessment is to:
Determine whether or not an airport project will likely have one or more significant impacts on the environment.
The term “Superfund” refers to:
the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980 (CERCLA)
Whether a process, activity, or physical structure, implementation of _______ can be used to prevent or reduce the amount of pollution from any type of activity.
BMP (best management practices)
A ______ waste is one that is unstable or undergoes rapid or violent chemical reaction with water or another material.
reactive
Under the ________ airport management must participate in efforts to plan a coordinated response to a serious emergency; make general disclosures to the public about potentially hazardous chemicals the airport uses, and report to authorities certain emergency spills and other releases into the environment.
EPCRA
OSHA rules require an airport to provide employees with information and training on safety matters, have a communication program that encompasses written guidelines, warning labels, and _______.
Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS)
______ provided the basis for noise abatement planning at airports.
Airport Noise Control and Land Use Compatability Program
Under Part 150, residential land uses are considered to be compatible with noise levels less than ______.
65 dB DNL
Opinions differ regarding the best method for analyzing and quantifying the effects of noise on a community because _________.
because of the subjective nature of how noise is perceived by listeners
If a person adjusts a stereo to 70 decibles as a comfortable and normal sound, a listener raising it to 80 decibles would perceive the sound as being [X] times as loud.
ten times as loud
_____ is the national standard used by airports in the preparation of Part 150 studies.
Yearly DNL
The FAA defines a significant change in noise exposure as an increase in DNL of 1.5 dB if the new DNL is above _____.
65 dB
A Part 150 study is most appropriate if:
- there are significant amounts of noise-affected incompatible land use
- receipt of serious noise complaints
- property acquisition for buffer zones
- introduction of major changes in airport facilities or operations that are likely to shift or increase noise patterns.
Name several common provisions for the approval of a preferential runway use system:
- that the system acheives the goal of reducing non-compatible land uses around the airport
- that the system does not create an undue burden on intertate or foreign commerce
- that the system does not derogate safety or affect the safe and efficient use of airspace
What is the most effective control measure for reducing noise impact?
land acquisition
Which federal regulation must an airport operator abide by when considering a Stage 3 aircraft noise and access restriction?
FAR Part 161
The first clear identification of the responsibilities of the FAA, air carriers, airport operators, and local communities in dealing with the problem of aircraft noise exposure was outlined in what document?
Aviation Noise Abatement Policy
That dB level is the threshold of pain for the human ear?
130 dB
Airports are unique in that they are considered to be ______, _____ and _____ in nature at the same time.
governmental, enterprise, and proprietary
Financing
- primarily focuses on long-term capital investments and improvements
- is an external function that relies on and is affected by general economics and market conditions
A database of information on the future capital needs of certain airports can be found under the _____, which is maintained by the FAA.
NPIAS
The _____ is a decision tool expressed as a ratio that looks at the cost-benefit of an investment. If greater than 1.0, it means that the overall return on an investment is greater than the cost.
Profitability Index (PI)
A common set of standards and procedures established by the accounting profession which apply to both private and governmental operations is called _______.
Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP)
The term that means the same amount of depreciation is taken each year throughout the useful life of a capital asset is _____.
straight-line depreciation
_____ ________, which measures an airport’s effectiveness in tenant billings and collections is a measure of short-term solvency.
Average Turnover Ratio
A _________ is a ratio used to determine the true short-term solvency of the business because it removes inventory from the equation.
Quick Ratio
_____ ______ is a method that means the revenues and expenses are recorded at teh time a transaction takes place. Revenue is recorded when earned, and expenses are recorded when incurred.
Accrual Accounting
The ________ budgeting technique assumes that choices must be made as to which projects are most important for benefits to be derived.
Zero Balance Budget
The objective of the ______ is to provide an accurate estimate of the revenues and expenditures of the airport for a future time period, normally one year. It can include budgeted revenues and expenses or just expenses alone, depending upon the type of organization.
operating budget
Appropriations for _____ budgeting is to allocate funds according to the goals, outcomes, or activities deemed most important to the airport. The output measures would be the products, goods, and services the organization produces.
Performance based
In the ______ method of determining rates and charges, the financial risk is transferred to the airlines in return for a negotiated limit on the, airport’s profits, and the airlines guarantee an airport’s solvency by agreeing to pay all remaining costs.
residual
Incentives and financial reward for good management, permits, discretionary use of surplus monies within limits; and provides a greater degree of management flexibility are advantages of the _______ methodology.
compenstory
Charges for items such as apron parking and ground power starting unit use are categorized as ________.
aeronautical charges
Characteristics of an airline use agreement:
- legally binding document
- specifies shared risks, revenues and responsibilities
- grants the airline operating rights
Airport lease agreements normally contain a _________ to protect an airport against potential claims or losses because of the way a tenant conducts his or her operation.
general indemnity clause
Can debt service be included in a rate base?
Yes
______ evaluation is the accepted accounting convention for asset valuing of local government enterprise functions such as airports. It is the simplest, most direct, and easiest way to verify measurement of costs.
Historic cost
Aiport policies toward balancing concession revenue with service typically include these techniques:
- specifically delineating profit margins in the lease
- specifically delineating prices in the lease
- establishing competing concessions
Under the FAA’s policy on rates and charges, if revenue is lost because airports charge non-airport-related entities less than full market value for leased space or property, the airports have engaged in:
revenue diversion
In developing airport property, the major financial difference between a ground lease provision and fee-simple ownership is that ______.
no mortgage interest can be placed on the land under a ground lease
The DOT’s primary dispute resolution position is that issues of rates and charges are best resolved _________.
at the local level by agreement between users and aiprorts
Factors in setting terminal rates:
- amount of revenue producing space
- access to pax and baggage handling areas
- local share of construction costs
- services provided by the airport
Which act requires employers on federal construction projects to pay wages that are at, or aboe, the level determined by the Dept. of Labor to be prevalent in the geographic area?
the Davis-Bacon Act
A key advantage of a ______ is that it can typically be issued at a lower interest rate than can other types of bonds, because of the community’s guarantee.
general obligation bond
What type of bond can be issued by a municipality or other governmental unit to finance facilities that are then leased to the private entity user at a rental equal to the debt service and for a term equal to the maturity of the securities?
industrial development bond
A general revenue aiprort bond can be combined with PFCs or general obligation bonds to fund a project. This type of debt interest, called a ________, carries pledges from two separate and distince revenue streams, either of which could receive a credit rating by itself.
hybrid source bond
The ecohomic base of a community is generally a more significant credit consideration for airports with high _______ than it is for airports with hubbing traffic.
origin-destination traffic
A pledge by the airport operator to impose fees and charges sufficient to pay all costs of operation, maintenance, and debt service and to maintain all reserve funds at their required level is known as a ________.
rate covenant
Under ADAP, ________ grants are those apportioned to commercial service airports for eligible projects according to the number of enplaning passengers at the aiprort.
entitlement
Eligible uses of discretionary funds:
- capacity enhancement programs
- safety and security improvements
- noise abatement and compatibility projects
A _____ airport is an airport haveing more than 10,000 annual enplanements.
primary
A document that convey’s teh FAA’s intention to obligatge AIP funds to an aiprort over a multi-year period, provided that Congressional authorization and appropriations are made is called a ______.
Letter of Intent
The FAA’s ______, created in 1990, is a need-based five-year plan of fundingi for airport planning and development projects under which airport safety and security projects are accorded the highest priority in AIP investments.
ACIP
______ specifically address an airport’s responsibilities during a project and establish continuing obligations for a period of up to 20 years, or the useful life of the facilities developed or the equipment acquired.
grant assurances
The ______ is a 10-year plan continually updated and published by the FAA that lists public use airports and their development programs, and identifies needs considered to be in the national interest and eligible for federal assistance.
NPIAS
The _____ airport category contains the largest number of commercial service airports but accounts or only about 3% of all enplanements in the U.S.
Non-hub
What is a risk in using PFCs solely for the backing of bond issues?
The airport’s failureto implement the identified project within a specified number of years resulting in the FAA’s termination of the airport’s PFC collection rights.
Linking spacial data to attribute data to give users a visual representation of the information such as schedules, budget information, site surveys, inspection results, databases, and flight schedules is accomplished by using a ______.
GIS
What type of contract with a consultant is most often used for master planning projects?
fixed-price contract
The type of agreement between the airport operator and the consultant preparing an FAA funded master plan that is not allowed by the FAA is the ______.
cost plus percentage of cost
Modifications to the NPIAS tie airport system improvements to these three levels of need:
- mainatin the airport system in its current condition
- bring the system up to current design standards
- expand the system
The technical expertise required to produce an Airport Master Plan is usually provided by:
a consulting firm
Historical operations data for the US air carrier departures at towered airports are obtained from:
Research and Special Programs Administration (RSPA) Form 41 reports
The criteria for inclusion in the NPIAS are:
- the airport has–or is forecasted to have within fie years–at leas 10 based aircraft, or engines
- serves a community that is at least a 30 minute drive from the nearest existing airport currently in the NPIAS
- there is an eligible sponsor willing to undertake ownership and development of the airport
All development carried out on federally obligated airports must be accomplished according to an FAA approved _____.
Airport Layout Plan (ALP)
This FAR requires airport owners and operators to notify the FAA 30 days in advance of any construction, alteration, deactivation or changes in use of any airport
Part 157 (Notice of Construction, Alteration, Activation or Deactivation of Airports)
On the ALP, airport management is required to keep up-to-date the property lines; the location and and nature of al existing and proposed facilities and structures and the location of all existing and proposed non-aviation areas and improvements in accordance with:
the ALP Grant Assurance #29
The ____ of the ALP is to provide airport management with a plan for leasing revenue-producing areas on the aiprort, and also provides guidance to local planning commissions for the establishment of appropriate airport-area zoning.
land-use drawing
What type of diagram shows the percentage of time the wind blows from a particular direction and at a particular speed? This information helps in identifying the orientation of runways.
windrose
A _____ may be required when an object obstructs the airspace that is needed for landing aircraft or when the environmental considerations such as noise abatement are apparent, or if it is necessary to provide standard runway safety area dimensions or runway obstacle free zone lengths.
displaced threshold
The Airport Reference Code is a coding system used to match the operational and physical characteristics of the airplanes intended to operate at the airport with the various design standards. ______ are the two components related directly to the most demanding type of aircraft that is expected to use the airport on a regular basis.
Approach speed and wingspan
________ is an area around a runway that is prepared for reducing the risk of damage to airplanes in the event of an undershoot, overshoot, or excursion from the runway.
Runway Safety Areas (RSA)
With regard to seaplane bases, the _____ is charged with marking and lighting navigable waterways and issuing permits for any markers used to identify a sea-lane.
U.S. Coast Guard
A ____ is a rectangular area off the departure end of a runway that is cleared or suitable for use in lieu of a runway to satisfy a pilot’s requirement for having a specified takeoff distance for his or her aircraft.
clearway
_______ is an approach to airport development that attempts to optimize the cost of building a proposed facility and still satisfies the needs of the intended users.
Value engineering
In the master planning process, the ALP becomes a legal document because _______.
the ALP is approved and signed by the FAA
The typical peak-hour passenger volume used as the hourly design volume for terminal space is defined as:
the peak hour of an average day in the peak month
Terminals where passenger check-in, retail and food concessions, baggage claim, and ground transportation are clustered in the landside facilities and where people movers, shuttles, walkways connect the airside and landside buildings are characteristics of the _____ terminal design.
decentralized
What type of airport is characterized by a relatively high percentage of passengers combined with a low percentage of originating flights, short ground times, and the flights are justified by the addition of enplanements feeding from an origination point?
through
An FIS system which is the most common and provides separate immigration and customs checkpoints is called:
CAPIS
The ____ system is composed of functional elements including terminal facility platforms and curb areas (including median strips), pedestrian walkways (including tunnel and bridges from parking areas to terminal), auto parking (short and long term, visitors, employees and car rental), access roads and service roads.
ground access-egress
If adequate space exists, _____ can be constructed from the main terminal onto the ramp area to accommodate increased aircraft gate capacity.
pier fingers
The ____ terminal design is characterized by a single level structure where access to aircraft is afforded by a walk across the aircraft parking apron.
simple terminal
Airport terminal facilities are planned on the basis of forecast passenger and aircraft movement activity, which may be found in these documents:
- current airport master plan
- the FAA published Terminal Area Forecasts (TAF)
- forecasts developed by the Air Transport Association (ATA)
- forecasts developed by the individual airlines serving the airport
What type of terminal has the aircraft gates located at teh end of a long concourse or connecting Automated People Mover system rather than being spaced along the concourse?
satellite
A building constructed with federal financial assistance after July 14, 1993, must be designed and constructed in accordance with FAA approved ________ standards.
seismic
This document was issed in 1991 to ensure that buildings, facilties, and vehicles covered by the law are accessible to indiivduals with disabilities in terms of architecture and design, transportation and communication.
Americans with Disabilities Act Accessibility Guidelines
Smaller commercial service airports having ______ are not required to provide boarding assistance devices for disabled passengers.
fewer than 10,000 annual enplanements
The FAA has the statutory authority, originally approved by Congress in the Airport and Airways Development act of 1970, to issue Airport Operating Certificates to airports serving certain air carriers and to establish minimum airport safety standards. This has been codified in:
CFR14 Part 139
All certificated airports must prepare and operate under a _____ approved by the FAA, and structured to help an airport comply with the statutory requirements.
Airport Certification Manual (ACM)
Although deviations are permitted in circumstances that primarily emanate from an aircraft emergency, any deviation from the FARs requires that airport management inform the FAA no later than _____ after the occurrence.
14 days
Since 1995, federal law has required airprot management seeking funding for pavement rehabilitation or reconstruction to have a ______ in place as a grant assurance condition.
Pavement Management System
Persons conducting self-inspections of the airport must have initial and recurrent training on the self-inspection program in a number of areas. All training records for inspectors must be kept for a _____ month period.
24 months
The simplest means of evaluating pavement condition is _____.
records and site inspection
The _____ is a numerical rating of pavement surface condition along with the entire length and width of the pavement and is reported as part of the Airport Safety Data Program using FAA Form 5010, Airport Master Record.
Pavement Condition Index
_____ occurs when a thin film of oil, grease, dirt, rubber particles, or a smooth runway having water or other liquid on the surface make the surface more slippery preventing a tire from making positive contact with the pavement and resulting in skidding.
viscous hydroplaning
Mechanical or electrical _____ are used primarily to assess friction properties of runways during winter operations. They are normally placed or mounted inside the inspection vehicle.
Decelerometers
______ is an organized effort to evaluate airport projects for the purpose of achieving the lowest life-cycle cost consistent with obtaining the required levels of safety, quality, and performance.
Value Engineering
Distance remaining signs are placed along the runway at intervals of ____ feet. These signs have white numbers on a black background.
1,000
A series of white or yellow markers arranged in a circle, with a wind indicator inside, to help a pilot identify important landing patterns and wind direction information is called a _____.
segmented circle
Which congressional act required the FAA to establish performance standards for security workers at airports and to develop guidelines to reduce the high rate of employee turnover.
The Aviation Security and Anti-Terrorism Act of 1996
Under ATSA, the TSA issued rules, many of which were security related and were transferred from the FARs. These were codified within Title ___ of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR).
49
The development and maintenance of the airport security program and corrective action when the facility is found in noncompliance with any section in Party 1542 is th eresponsibility of the _____.
Airport Security Coordinator
The secured area, air operations area (AOA) and SIDA are areas that must be controlled and monitored, and are defined by the TSA by the term ________.
restricted areas
The ____ includes the aircraft movement area, aircraft parking areas, loading ramps, safety areas and any adjacent areas (such as GA) that are not separated by adequate security systems, measures or procedures.
AOA (Air Operations Area)
A mandatory _______ is issued by the TSA when it determines that more security measures are needed to respond to a threat assessment or to a specific threat against civil aviation.
security directive
The two primary baggage inspectin methods are:
Explosive Detection Systems (EDS) and Explosive Trace Detectors (ETD)
The delegation of authority, the assignment of responsibilities, and coordination of efforts by responding personnel, are several of the primary purposes of the _____.
Airport Emergency Plan
The management system designed to coordinate the efforts of multiple resources at major emergencies and that is the generally accepted national standard for on-scene control is the ____.
Incident Command System
Roles of the FAA in accident investigation:
- investigate violations of safety regulations
- assess safety practices
- gather factual circumstancial and factual data
Advantages of an above-ground storage tank (AST) when compared with other types of fuel storage installations:
- greater accuracy of inventory control
- greater degree of product quality control
- reduced environmental concerns
- fewer operational constraints
