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CM Test > Practice Test 1 (Old Modules) > Flashcards

Practice Test 1 (Old Modules) Flashcards

1
Q

How are AIP funds collected?

A

In the form of a federal surcharge paid to the U.S. Treasury to be distributed back to airports.

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2
Q

When funding airports, the trend has been away from general obligation bonds toward _____ bonds.

A

revenue

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3
Q

What are the sources of revenue authorized by the Airport & Airway Revenue Act of 1970?

A
  1. a tax on domestic pax fares
  2. annual registration fee on all civil aircraft
  3. a surcharge on pax tickets for international flights
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4
Q

To obtain AIP funding, an airport must have a ____-year Transportation Improvement Plan or an Airport Capital Improvement Plan

A

5-year

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5
Q

A rural airport has how many annual enplanements?

A

fewer than 100,000

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6
Q

AIP grants are NOT available for:

A
  1. routine maintenance
  2. buildings not related to the safety of the people on the airport
  3. construction of hangars
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7
Q

Discretionary funds can be used to fund:

A
  1. capacity enhancement programs
  2. military airport conversion
  3. noise abatement and compatibility projects
  4. safety and security improvements
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8
Q

Which act authorized PFCs?

A

Aviation Safety & Capacity Expansion Act of 1990

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9
Q

What are the stipulations which apply to PFC funds?

A
  1. separate accounting must be made
  2. yearly independent audit of PFC accounting procedure
  3. airport must provide quarterly report to the airlines and FAA on PFC funds received
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10
Q

This act requires employers on federal construction projects to pay wages that are at or above the level determined by the Dept. of Labor to be prevalent in the geographic area:

A

Davis-Bacon Act

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11
Q

Discretionary funds for the annual grant-in-aid program are allotted to the FAA regions according to the projects identified in the:

A

ACIP (airport capital improvement plan)

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12
Q

The majority of civil aircraft operations (including small and large aircraft) are accounted for by this type of airport:

A

general aviation airports

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13
Q

Most aircraft landings and takeoffs in major metropolitan areas can be accounted for by this type of airport:

A

Reliever/GA airport

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14
Q

Airports in the state’s system plan outnumber those in the NPIAS by ___%.

A

84%

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15
Q

Metropolitan airport planning seeks to overcome the rivalries and the jurisdictional overlaps of the various ______ agencies.

A

local agencies

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16
Q

What is the correct order of events when selecting a consulting or engineering firm?

A
  1. advertisement of work scope
  2. evaluation of proposals
  3. rank ordering of firms
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17
Q

Can states apply their own planning and engineering guidelines and standards for airport development?

A

Yes

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18
Q

Which act requires the selection of consultants be based on qualification?

A

The Brooks Act

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19
Q

List the external factors included in aviation demand forecasts:

A
  1. fuel price fluctuations
  2. changes in the regulatory environment
  3. changes in the levels and types of taxes, fees and currency restrictions
  4. local attitude toward the environmental effects of aviation
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20
Q

Historial operations data for U.S. air carrier departure at non-towered airports are obtained from:

A

Research and Special Programs Administration (RSPA) Form 41 reports.

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21
Q

List the three types of methods for forecasting aviation demand:

A
  1. casual models
  2. time series or trend analysis
  3. judgmental forecasts
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22
Q

True or False: The term “hub” has more than one meaning in air transportation.

A

True

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23
Q

When air carrier operations increase to an annual level of [X] operations, GA growth decreases.

A

30,000-50,000

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24
Q

In the airport reference coding system, the approach speed of the aircraft is denoted by:

A

the letters A through E

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25
Q

What does “One Stop” inspection service provide for?

A

immigration and customs at one station

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26
Q

Airspace drawings show all imaginary surfaces identified in FAR Part ____.

A

Part 77

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27
Q

Runway shoulders normally have a ____% slope to ensure water runoff.

A

1.5 to 5%

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28
Q

Primary considerations that govern efficient apron area design include:

A
  1. movement and physical characteristics of the aircraft to be served
  2. maneuvering, staging, and location of ground service equipment and underground utilities
  3. the dimensional relationships of parked aircraft to the terminal building
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29
Q

With regard to design of terminal apron areas, gate types are defined on the basis of:

A

the wingspans and fuselage lengths of the aircraft using the terminal building

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30
Q

A compass calibration pad is a ground surface area with how many radial markings every magnetic 30 degrees?

A

12

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31
Q

With regard to inland waterways used for commerce, activities and fixed facilities (such as dredging, filling, breakwaters, boat ramps, piers, bulkheads and riprap) require permits from:

A

US Army Corps of Engineers

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32
Q

What’s included in an Airport Layout Plan?

A
  1. narrative report
  2. terminal area drawing
  3. land-use drawing
  4. airport property map
    (there is no list of funding sources)
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33
Q

Runway layout using the windrose is designed to obtain ____% coverage for a maximum perpendicular crosswind component of 13 knots.

A

95%

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34
Q

Design principles associated with taxiway systems include:

A
  1. clear visibility to ATCT
  2. prevention of ingress and egress bottlenecks
  3. direct routing to the runway
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35
Q

Heliports serving any scheduled or unscheduled air carrier pax operation with an aircraft that has [X] or more seats are required to be certified by the FAA in accordance with FAR Part 139.

A

30 seats

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36
Q

List 3 potential airfield revenue areas.

A
  1. landing area
  2. parking aprons
  3. aircraft maintenance
    (concessions are not AIRFIELD revenue)
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37
Q

What is defined as the annual amount that is required to cover cost of capital investment and costs of administration, operation, and maintenance?

A

break-even requirement

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38
Q

What type of budgeting allows a manager more flexibility in what can be cut or funded?

A

target-based budgeting

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39
Q

A technique that focuses on variances within a specified budget item is known as:

A

management by exception

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40
Q

Capital items are determined on the basis of:

A

threshold cost & life expectancy

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41
Q

What is the simplest form of budgeting (in which there are no specific restrictions as to how the money should be spent)?

A

lump sum appropriation

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42
Q

Since airports are income-tax exempt, most use which method of depreciation for accounting purposes?

A

straight-line depreciation

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43
Q

In financial terms, a profitability index (PI) greater than [X] means that the overall return is greater than the cost.

A

one

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44
Q

In a statement of assets, accrued interest receivable is presented as what type of asset?

A

restricted asset

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45
Q

By establishing ______, a financial manager can prepare a more detailed analysis that shows what specific areas are in balance and which are not.

A

cost centers

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46
Q

List the 4 phases of the budget cycle for airports:

A
  1. budget preparation
  2. budget submission
  3. budget execution
  4. auditing by the government’s auditor
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47
Q

Which budgeting method results in problems of inflexibility in that it takes decision-making capabilities away from the operating manager when proposing service or budget cuts?

A

Zero-based budgeting

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48
Q

The capacity of the airspace surrounding an airport is established by these things:

A
  1. radar vectoring
  2. sequencing
  3. separation for all IFR and participating VFR aircraft
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49
Q

Air traffic control sets rules for:

A
  1. runway occupancy
  2. spacing of departures
  3. aircraft separation
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50
Q

Restriction of access by aircraft type is one means of:

A

traffic diversion

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51
Q

Three airport administrative management strategies used to manage demand at airports:

A
  1. diversion of traffic to reliever airports
  2. more balanced used of metropolitan air carrier airports
  3. redistributing transfer traffic away from busy airports to under-used airports
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52
Q

Conditions in which other aircraft cannot be seen and safe operation must be assured solely by ATC rules and procedures are referred to as:

A

Instrument meteorological conditions

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53
Q

This system is related to weather technology:

A

Vortex Advisory System

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54
Q

Where is the automated service observation station (ASOS) located on airports?

A

Near the touchdown zones of the primary instrument runway.

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55
Q

When an aircraft trails a heavy jet, the spacing standard is required to be at least [X] miles to reduce the effects of wake turbulence.

A

4 miles

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56
Q

Which computer system simulation model calculates the maximum operational capacity of a runway system under a wide range of conditions?

A

The FAA Airfield Capacity Model

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57
Q

FAR Part ____ requires all airports having control zones to have weather observation services.

A

Part 91

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58
Q

Some aviation users have criticized the use of ASOS because of these things:

A
  1. it doesn’t provide a trend analysis of weather conditions improving or deteriorating
  2. it can’t replicate the observations of distant phenomena, such as thunderstorms
  3. sometimes the information transmitted is in error
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59
Q

Which system provides detailed information and situational awareness for departing or arriving aircraft?

A

Integrated Terminal Weather System

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60
Q

These items would be useful to an individual seeking to identify the structure of airspace around an airport:

A
  1. federal and state aeronautical charts
  2. instrument approach and departure charts of the Jeppesen/Sanderson Co.
  3. recognized aeronautical publications
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61
Q

Objects affecting navigable airspace are the subject of FAR Part ____.

A

Part 77

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62
Q

This was developed by the Department of Defense as its answer to the Instrument Landing System developed for civilians:

A

PAR

63
Q

What system was developed in the 1950’s to overcome the deficiencies inherent in primary radar systems?

A

The Air Traffic Control Radar and Beacon System

64
Q

The principal imaginary surfaces are defined in FAR Part ____.

A

Part 77

65
Q

When airspace or airfield capacity is at its limits, or severe weather prohibits landings, aircraft are often directed into a holding pattern shaped like a:

A

race track

66
Q

Which category of aircraft approach is the most stringent and expensive of ILS systems?

A

Category III

67
Q

Upon receipt of any proposed construction, the FAA conducts a Part _____ study by analyzing the effect it would have on the access to an airport and on the safe operation of aircraft.

A

Part 77

68
Q

This system allows air traffic controllers to monitor two planes simultaneously approaching the runway in inclement weather to ensure they do not stray into a non-transgression zone between two approaches:

A

Precision Runway Monitoring System

69
Q

The term used to describe the discrete code that an assigned aircraft transmits on the transponder is:

A

Squawk

70
Q

In-pavement touchdown zone lights are on both sides of the runway centerline and extend from the threshold for _______ feet down the runway.

A

3,000

71
Q

The localizer critical area is approximately 250 feet in diameter and extends _____ feet down the runway.

A

2,000

72
Q

The common measure of concession quality performance at airports is:

A

a customer survey

73
Q

One of the ways to protect airports against the effects of a tenant’s bankruptcy is to have a:

A

use-it-or-lose-it provision

74
Q

Reasonable allowable charges of environmental costs include:

A
  1. noise mitigation according to an approved Part 150 program
  2. cost of self insurance for correction or cleanup of environmental damage
  3. cost of complying with federal, state, and local environmental laws and regulations
75
Q

In the context of airport fees, rates and charges, _______ reflects the current market value cost.

A

opportunity cost

76
Q

Upon receipt of a complaint against an airport’s rates and charges, the DOT must determine the reasonableness of a fee within _____ days after the complaint is filed.

A

120 days

77
Q

Who are the de facto overseers of the local aviation industry?

A

Local airport operators

78
Q

Which category of air carrier exercises a significant control over an airport’s capital budgeting process under provisions in a use agreement known as Majority-In-Interest clauses?

A

Signatory carriers

79
Q

Reasons for increased cost and charges at most U.S. airports include:

A
  1. inflation
  2. airline hubbing operations
  3. noise mitigation
  4. operational activity increase
80
Q

Can mortgage interest be placed on the land under a ground lease?

A

No

81
Q

The FAA’s policy on rates and charges was intended primarily for which type of airports?

A

Air carrier airports

82
Q

Under the FAA’s policy on rates and charges, if revenue is lost because airports charge non-airport-related entities less than the full market value for leased space or property, the airports have engaged in:

A

revenue diversion

83
Q

True or False: Debt service can be included in a rate base.

A

True

84
Q

Which kind of hydroplaning prevents a tire from making positive contact with the pavement, resulting in skidding?

A

Viscous

85
Q

FAR Part 107 addressed this topic:

A

airport security

86
Q

What are examples of potential runway problems?

A
  1. clogged and overgrown ditches
  2. soil erosion at the edge of runway
  3. undulating (wavy) surfaces
87
Q

Statistics of on-airport accidents show that about ___% of the aircraft involved remain within about 1,000 feet of the runway departure end and 250 feet from the runway centerline.

A

90%

88
Q

Which type of treatment is the most effective control measure if the pavement surface temperature is above freezing?

A

Brooming

89
Q

Which represents the greatest hazard to aircraft operations: ice, snow, wind or rain?

A

ice

90
Q

Which runway markings function as the aiming point for landing jets?

A

touchdown zone marking

91
Q

What color scheme do airfield destination and informational signs have?

A

yellow background with black inscriptions

92
Q

An air carrier operation is one conducted under FAR Part ______.

A

Part 121

93
Q

The RSA, OFZ and ILS signs are installed at which airports?

A

Only at airports with operating control towers and where pilots or vehicles are asked to report clear of a runway or critical area.

94
Q

Where do rubber deposits occur primarily?

A

At the runway touchdown area

95
Q

What is the FAA’s interest in aviation security under TSA Regulation 1542?

A

The FAA’s interest is limited to security as it affects or could affect safety in flight.

96
Q

What are the roles of the FAA in accident investigation?

A
  1. investigate violations of safety regulations
  2. assess safety practices
  3. gather factual circumstantial and factual data

(determining accident cause is not an FAA role)

97
Q

A foam extinguishing agent works in what ways?

A
  1. cooling the fuel
  2. smothering the fuel
  3. suppressing the vapors
  4. separating combustible materials
98
Q

An Index A airport’s ARFF response is from an off-airport fire unit. An air carrier operation scheduled to land at 9:10 am and depart 30 minutes later requires the ARFF vehicle and personnel to be available at the airport when?

A

from 8:55 am to 9:55 am (15 min before flight lands and 15 min after takeoff)

99
Q

What type of information does a MSDS provide?

A

hazardous substance information

100
Q

Which congressional act required the use of specially trained dogs at the nation’s 50 largest airports to detect certain types of explosives?

A

The Aviation Security and Anti-Terrorism Act of 1996

101
Q

Which entity reviews appeals regarding the suspension, amendment, modification, revocation, or denial of any certificate or license issued by the FAA Administrator?

A

the NTSB

102
Q

What are the advantages of an above-ground storage tank (AST) when compared to other types of similar installations?

A
  1. Greater accuracy of inventory control
  2. Greater degree of product quality control
  3. Reduced environmental protection concerns
  4. Fewer operational constraints
103
Q

The full requirements of FAR Part 121 applies to:

A

Air carrier aircraft having 60+ seats

104
Q

Which fire suppression agent has been banned by 24 nations because it depletes the earth’s ozone?

A

Halon 1211

105
Q

Regarding hazardous substances, airport managers must be diligent in establishing procedures for:

A
  1. transport
  2. storage
  3. disposal
  4. auditing their tenant operations
106
Q

The purpose of an environmental assessment is to:

A

Determine whether or not an airport project will have a significant impact on the environment.

107
Q

An airport manager at a municipal airport can be held responsible for hazardous waste on the airport, EVEN IF:

A
  1. it exists before he/she was employed
  2. it was brought onto the airport by the public works department
  3. he/she was directed by the City Manager to store it
  4. it was generated by one of the airport tenants
108
Q

What trust fund was established under the 1984 Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendment to provide a source of cleanup funding in circumstances where the owner of underground tanks or where the owner had exhausted all financial resources?
(Yes, that question is poorly worded–I copied it verbatim!)

A

The LUST trust fund.

109
Q

What are some possible sources of emission at an airport?

A
  1. runway and deicing materials
  2. hot asphalt paving operations
  3. fuel dispensing activities
110
Q

The major pollutants identified by the Clean Water Act include:

A
  1. sulfur oxides
  2. nitrogen oxides
  3. carbon monoxide
111
Q

What does the Superfund refer to?

A

The Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980 (CERCLA)

112
Q

Air emission mitigation measures include:

A
  1. implementing a single or reduced engine taxi operations
  2. providing central ground or air auxiliary power to the airlines
  3. streamlining airport vehicle traffic circulation patterns
113
Q

What are the 4 types of storm-water permit applications?

A
  1. general
  2. individual
  3. multi-sector general
  4. construction
114
Q

Any stored waste must be taken off-site or treated within ____ days if the treatment plant is 200 miles or farther unless the permit allows for storage, treatment, and disposal on-site.

A

270 days

115
Q

When must the National Response Center (NRC) be notified?

A
  1. whenever a serious emergency exists and the local fire department is called
  2. when a spill extends outside the airport environs
  3. when the spill could reach surface waters
116
Q

True or False: Airports with international flights tend to have higher peak-hour activity than those without international flights.

A

True

117
Q

Flight interface links in passenger handling systems include what areas?

A

gate lounges and counters

118
Q

Give examples of the types of satellite terminal design.

A
  1. aircraft gates are located at the end of a long concourse rather than being spaced at even intervals along the concourse
  2. the concourse could be located underground, providing space for aircraft taxi operations between the main terminal and the satellite
  3. the distance from the main terminal to a satellite is usually well above the average distance to gates with the finger concept
119
Q

Which terminal design is characterized by a single level structure where access to aircraft is afforded by a walk across the aircraft parking apron?

A

simple terminal

120
Q

How do planners commonly compute the typical peak-hour passenger volume which is used as the hourly design volume for terminal space?

A

the peak hour of an average day in the peak month

121
Q

What are common ways to reduce curbside congestion?

A
  1. pedestrian overpasses and underpasses
  2. remote park and ride facilities
  3. multiple entry and exit points in the terminal building
122
Q

What percentage of total terminal building space is usually allocated to public use or common areas, such as lobbies, waiting areas, restrooms, mechanical rooms, and stairs?

A

45 to 50%

123
Q

A DOT rule under 49 CFR Part 41.120 states that any building constructed with federal financial assistance after what date must be designed and constructed in accordance with FAA-approved seismic standards?

A

July 14, 1993

124
Q

The most common and fundamental of gate arrival concept in terminal design is what type?

A

simple type

125
Q

True or False: At airports where ARFF vehicles are housed in the same building with airport snow removal equipment or structural firefighting vehicles, the FAA prefers having the ARFF vehicle room separate from the facilities of other airport departmental functions.

A

True

126
Q

What led to consideration for a DOT ban on smoking in all airport terminals?

A

respiratory disabilities of some passengers

127
Q

In regard to compliance with regulations issued by the DOJ or DOT, what type of airports are not included in the definition of a commercial facility?

A

governmentally operated airports

128
Q

At what level does the FAA consider aircraft noise exposure to be significant?

A

65 DNL

129
Q

The amount of relative sound energey produced in 80 decibles is how much greater than the energy produced by 60 decibles?

A

100 times greater

130
Q

FAR Part 150 requires Noise Compatibility plans to be developed in consultation with which groups?

A
  1. the general public2. local public agencies3. airlines and/or pilots using the airport (users)4. air traffic control personnel (users)
131
Q

The Airport and Airway Safety & Capacity Expansion Act of 1987 required the airport sponsor to make Noise Compatibility Plans available to the public how?

A

Providing an opportunity for a public hearing.

132
Q

Which federal regulation must an airport operator abide by when considering a Stage 3 aircraft noise and access restriction?

A

Part 161

133
Q

The most significant factor that makes quantifying the effects of sound exposure so difficult is:

A

People respond differently to various levels and types of sound

134
Q

Under the Aviation Safety & Noise Abatement Act, noise exposure maps can be used, for purposes of litigation, by:

A

No one

135
Q

Land acquisition is eligible for federal noise funding if:

A
  1. the property is located within the 75 DNL contour2. the property is located within the 65 DNL contour3. the property is located in an area designated locally as non-compatible4. the property is located in an area projected to be incompatible in the future
136
Q

The FAA has suggested guidelines for determining airport land uses that are compatible with a given ____ level.

A

day-night average sound (DNL) level

137
Q

The implementation of a preferential runway use system is exclusively the authority and responsibility of which entity?

A

the FAA

138
Q

Whatlegislative actprovided a basis for noise abatement planning at airports?

A

The Airport Safety and Noise Abatement Act (ASNA) of 1979

139
Q

True or False: Only those noise contours with the most significance are included in noise mapping.

A

True (not all noise contours around an airport are included in noise mapping–just the most significant)

140
Q

The most common uses of GIS information at airports have been for:

A

pavement management programs and infrastructure and facility databases

141
Q

What was the primary impetus for aviation legislation in the mid-1950’s?

A

mid-air collisions

142
Q

Reasons for gradual transition toward airport authorities include:

A
  1. outgrowth of local political jurisdiction 2. ability to specialize on airport matters 3. reduced political impact on management
143
Q

Airports must implement a DBE program if they anticipate more than $______ in prime contracts using Federal funds during a fiscal year.

A

$250,000

144
Q

What is the FAA’s position on through-the-fence operations?

A

The FAA strongly discourages but does not prohibit through-the-fence operations.

145
Q

What program was reauthorized for four additional years (2004-2007) by the Vision 100–Century of Aviation Reauthorization Act?

A

Airport Improvement Program

146
Q

Under the cost-sharing portion of the FAA’s Contract Tower Program, those towers that fall below the FAA benefit/cost ratioo threshold of ___ may participate in the program by contributing a local match.

A

1.0

147
Q

Which type ofeconomic impact attempts to measure the multiplying effect of successive turnover of the money spent in the community?

A

Induced impact

148
Q

What are the four criterial of Enhanced EAS (Essential Air Service)?

A
  1. the aiprort received air carrier service prior to 10/23/78, 2. it is more than 50 miles from nearest small-hub airport, 3. it is more than 150 miles from nearest hub airport, and 4. the state or local gov’t is willing to contribute 25% of the cost of providing the air service
149
Q

The power and effectiveness of an airport or port authority can often be assessed on the basis of these criteria:

A
  1. who controls appointments to the authority’s governing body2. whether the authority has total conrol over its budget, contracts and personnel practices3. whether the authority has the power of eminent domain and/or the power to levy taxes
150
Q

The National Airspace System Plan called for these things:

A
  1. installing more powerful computers at ARTCC’s 2. modernizing flight service stations 3. improving ground-to-air surveillance and communication 4. revamping en route and terminal control systems
151
Q

Which FAR Part established the first FAA presence in the aviation security field?

A

Part 107

152
Q

Which act revised the formula for distributing airport entitlement and discretionary funds?

A

The 1996 Reauthorization Act

153
Q

In an airport capital improvement plan, reconstruction is one of the seven categories forwhat type of activities?

A

developmental activities

CM Test (7 decks)

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