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CM Test > Misc. Flashcards from Unknown Authors (likely old modules) > Flashcards

Misc. Flashcards from Unknown Authors (likely old modules)

1
Q

What Federal environmental legislation requires environmental consideration for proposed projects?

A

National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA)

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2
Q

What document provides guidance for airport operators who are conducting development on airports?

A

FAA Order 5050.4B NEPA Implementing Instructions for Airport Projects”.”

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3
Q

Prtected environmental resources include:

A

Endangered species, historic properties, wetlands, parkland.

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4
Q

Three types of ALP approval subject to NEPA and other environmental laws are:

A

Conditional, Unconditional, and Mixed.

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5
Q

ARP

A

FAA Office of Airports

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6
Q

What type of airport projects would trigger mandatory public hearings?

A

Construction of new runways, or major runway extension (capacity enhancements, increased traffic)

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7
Q

What are the three (3) catagories of environmental action?

A
  1. Catagorical exclusion2. Actions requiring Environmental Assessment (EA)3. Actions requiring Environmental Impact Statement (EIS)
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8
Q

Projects found to have no potential for significant environmental impact” are?”

A

Catagorically excluded

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9
Q

A project that is not Cat Ex”, or involves extraordinary circumstances may require this.”

A

Environmental Assessment

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10
Q

What result does an airport sponsor want from an EA?

A

Finding of No Significant Impact

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11
Q

What type of airport projects would trigger mandatory public hearings?

A

Construction of new runways, or major runway extension (capacity enhancements, increased traffic)

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12
Q

What are the three (3) catagories of environmental action?

A
  1. Catagorical exclusion2. Actions requiring Environmental Assessment (EA)3. Actions requiring Environmental Impact Statement (EIS)
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13
Q

Projects found to have no potential for significant environmental impact” are?”

A

Catagorically excluded

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14
Q

A project that is not Cat Ex”, or involves extraordinary circumstances may require this.”

A

Environmental Assessment

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15
Q

What result does an airport sponsor want from an EA?

A

Finding of No Significant Impact(FONSI)

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16
Q

Who is responsible for preparation of an EIS for AIP projects undertaken at airports in accordance with NEPA.

A

FAA

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17
Q

What actions in a Metropolitan Statistical Area (MSA) trigger an EIS?

A

A new runway at an existing airport or a new commercial service airport.

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18
Q

What is a useful guide when working with environmental issues at airports?

A

FAA’s Best Practices for Environmental Impact Statement Management.””

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19
Q

What determines the complexity and size of an environmental audit or assessment?

A

The degree of protection required by the airport.

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20
Q

Environmental audits include:

A
  1. Determination of enviro compliance catagories.2.Review of applicable enviro regulations3. Ascertain level of compliance in place4.Facility inspections, staff interviews and record keeping.5. Final report
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21
Q

What federal agency has primary responsibility for nationwide enforcement of environmental regulations?

A

U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)

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22
Q

Federal envirponmental regulations are typically adminstered by what level of agency?

A

State and local goverments, or other Federal agencies; i.e. FAA, US Customs (Coast Guard)

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23
Q

What procedures help airports manage environmental liabilities?

A

Addressing environmental laws, regulations and policies in all aspects of airport planning and management.

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24
Q

What is a top environmental priority for airport managers, and why?

A

Implement and sustain a systematic system for environmental regulatory compliance. It is difficult to prosecute a manager successfully if a good faith effort” had been made to comply with the law.”

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25
Q

Criminal sanctions are sought by?Civil redress sought by?

A

Goverment agenciesOrdinary citizens

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26
Q

True or False:Employees and individuals can be held personally liable for costs of clean up and remediation.

A

TRUE

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27
Q

personal liability is determined by what three factors?

A
  1. Ability to make timely discovery of the problem.2. Power to direct persons controlling the cause of the problem3. Ability to prevent and abate the damage.
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28
Q

What is the best method to ensure tenant and contractor compliance with environmental law?

A

Include specific environmental criteria in bid specs and RFP’s.

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29
Q

A business managment practice that serves a a strategic plan for addressing environmental issues is called what?

A

Environmental Management System (EMS)

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30
Q

Four components of EMS are:

A

Plan, Do, Check, and Act

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31
Q

the primary goal of implementing an EMS is what?

A

Assess, evaluate, establish and maintain continuous environmental compliance.””

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32
Q

Name four Federal legislations established to restore and protect the nation’s rivers and lakes.

A

CWA of 1977 (CWA)Water Quality Act of 1987 (WQA)Oil Pollution Act 1990 (OPA)Federal Water Pollution, Prevention and Control 1994

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33
Q

name the permit program in place to provide regulatory compliance for point source discharges.

A

National Pollution Discharge Elimination System (NPDES)

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34
Q

What is the most prolific source of water pollution at an airport, and why?

A

Storm water discharge.Caused by the flushing of many paved surfaces with surface contamination.

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35
Q

What is a primary strategy to mitigate environmental damage from storm water runoff?

A

Install and manage a storm water drainage system.

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36
Q

What is the best way to protect ground water?

A

Prevent contaminants from reaching the aquifer. Duh!

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37
Q

Part of the permit process requires a storm water management plan, AKA?

A

Storm Water Pollution Prevention Plan (SWPPP)

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38
Q

How many annual operations require an airport to develop a SWPPP.

A

50,000

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39
Q

50,000 operations also require implementing what other requirements?

A

Implement Best Management Practices, monitor runoff parameters for oil and grease, BOD, COD, TSS, pH and glycol and urea.

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40
Q

The three areas of airports effected by SWPPP permits are:

A

Operations, facilities,and construction.

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41
Q

CESQG/SQG/LQG

A

Conditionally Exempt Small Quantity GeneratorSQGLarge Quantity Generator

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42
Q

Airports must include hazardous waste responses are in what document for Part 139 airports?

A

Airport emergency Plan

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43
Q

UST/LUST

A

Underground Storage TanksLeaking” UST”

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44
Q

Facilities having responsibility for UST’s must do what?

A

Maintain Certificate of complianceHave environmental insurance coverage of at least $500,00/occurance.

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45
Q

Airport Executives two philosopies

A
  1. the airport is a public entity and must be managed as a public entity.
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46
Q

FAA

A

Federal Aviation Administration

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47
Q

Kelly Air Mail Act of 1925

A

US government hires private contractors to carry mail by air. Represents the start of commercial aviation.

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48
Q

Air Commerce Act of 1926

A

This act is the cornerstone for aviation.

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49
Q

Civil Aeronautics Act of 1938

A

Transferred the federal governments civil aviation role from the Department of Commerce to the new independent agency Civil Aeronautics Authority. Created the Air Safety Board (known today as NTSB)

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50
Q

The Reorganization Act of 1940

A

Split Civil Aeronautics Authority into the CAA: develops airways, issues airman certificates, regulation enforcement.

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51
Q

Department of Transportation Act of 1966

A

DOT created. Federal Aviation Agency becomes FAA and assumes responsibility for Aviation Security and Aircraft Noise

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52
Q

Airlines Deregulation Act of 1978

A

Phases of Civil Aeronautics Boards economic regulation of airlines

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53
Q

PATCO Strike 1981

A

Professional Air Traffic Controller Organizations goes on strike. Pres. Reagan fires 13,000 controllers.

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54
Q

Aviation and Transportation Security Act of 2001

A

Creates TSA and transfers FAA security responsibilities to TSA.

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55
Q

Vision 100 Century of Aviation Re authorization Act of 2003

A

Reauthorizes FAA funding, launches NextGen

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56
Q

Implementing Recommendation for the 9/11 Commission Act 2007

A

Requires Air Cargo screening

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57
Q

Define: proprietary

A

To act as a private enterprise

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58
Q

Define: Airport Authority

A

Independent public agencies created by state legislation.

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59
Q

Define: Planning and Engineering

A

address the areas of capital improvement plans, airport master plan, airport layout plan. Works with FAA Airport District Office

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60
Q

Define: Marketing, PR and Air Service Development

A

addresses the areas of marketing airport services and properties, publicity and response to issues.

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61
Q

What definition best fits privatization?

A

The shifting of government functions and responsibilities, in whole or in part, to the private sector.

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62
Q

Which two key positions at any airport are generally outside of the vertical reporting structure?

A

Legal Counsel and Financial Auditor

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63
Q

When does government immunity apply?

A

To employees of federal, state, or local government, provided they are acting within the scope and authority of their position

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64
Q

A person is ______ if he or she fails to act as an ordinarily prudent person would act under the same circumstances

A

Negligent

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65
Q

Which regulation addressed airport noise planning?

A

Title 14 CFR Part 150

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66
Q

Which regulation addresses how a scheduled air carrier is required to operate (training requirements, safety, and maintenance requirements, etc.)?

A

Title 14 CFR Part 121

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67
Q

The public comment period for a Notice of Proposed Rulemaking for a minor change is normally how long?

A

30 days

68
Q

Which Grant Assurance requires the airport to be available for public use without unjust discrimination for all aircraft activities?

A

Economic Nondiscrimination

69
Q

What does the grant assurance addressing “compatible land use” require the airport to do?

A

Attempt to restrict the use of land adjacent to or in the immediate vicinty of the airport

70
Q

Which of the following applies to all airport users (passengers, employees, etc.) and airport tenants?

A

Rules and Regulations

71
Q

What type of use of airport revenue would NOT be approved by the FAA?

A

General economic development for the community

72
Q

Your airport no longer needs some land that was acquired with federal funds for noise abatement, to protect against residential development. Your county commissioners want to know what you can do with the land.

A

EITHER - Sell it at fair market value and invest the money back into an FAA approved airport capital improvement project OR - Sell it and give the money back to the FAA

73
Q

What is the definition of an FAA Order?

A

Directives on subjects and programs issued by the FAA

74
Q

A primary commercial service airport is defined as having more than _____ enplanements per year.

A

More than 10,000

75
Q

A _____ relieves general aviation traffic from a commercial service airport.

A

General aviation reliever airport

76
Q

What FAA office provides oversight of airport compliance with Part 139 and the grant assurances?

A

Airport District Office (ADO)

77
Q

Which type of complaint against an airport is considered as “informal” complaint?

A

Part 13

78
Q

Part 16 complaints about the airport operating policies and practices, can be dismissed by _____ office, based on improper procedural (i.e. legal process) grounds.

A

The Director of the Office of Airport Safety and Standards

79
Q

What agency can make rules regarding aircraft operations after an accident?

A

The Federal Aviation Administration (FAA)

80
Q

This is a non-profit organization that supports all general aviation pilots and personal aircraft owners.

A

Aircraft Owners and Pilots Association (AOPA)

81
Q

The entity ranks in the top one percent of trade and professional associations.

A

Americal Association of Airport Executives (AAAE)

82
Q

The _____ identifies the role of the airport to a community.

A

Mission Statement

83
Q

What document identifies the legal, financial, and operational relationship between the airport operator and the airlines?

A

Aeronautical Use Agreement

84
Q

What gives signatory airlines the ability to influence capital projects undertaken at the airport by giving them the right to approve or disapprove proposed projects?

A

Majority in Interest (MII)

85
Q

What types of charges are related to the operations and use of an airfield but are incidental to the operation of an aircraft?

A

Non-Aeronautical Use

86
Q

A “peronal property tax” on an aircraft based at an airport is an example of what type of revenue?

A

Non-operating

87
Q

_____ airports have commonly used the residual method for seting rates because of the influence and power of an airlines in generating economic traffic.

A

Large Hub

88
Q

FAA policy applies a strict _____ valuation standard to core aeronautical use facilities

A

Historical

89
Q

Two Dogs is the name of a new Fixed-Base Operator at your aiport. Their lease requires a periodic valuation of the property to set new rates. What type of lease is this?

A

Revaluation lease

90
Q

According to the module, airports enplaning over _____ passengers annually are good candidates for brand-name vendors and concessions.

A

5,000,000

91
Q

What financial statement provides a fiscal description of airport assets and liabilities at a specific point in time?

A

Balance Sheet

92
Q

_____ is an annual “charge” that reflects the cost of capital improvements and equipment used in the conduct of business.

A

Depreciation

93
Q

What statement shows revenues minus expenses to arrive at the “bottom line”?

A

Income Statement

94
Q

What ratio is commonly used to determine a company’s ability to meet its short term debt obligation?

A

Current Ratio

95
Q

What measurement or ratio shows profitability minus interest and taxes?

A

Operating Margin

96
Q

Which type of budget is normally associated with a small general aviation airport?

A

Lump sum

97
Q

This type of budget is becoming the most popular for airports with compensatory agreements.

A

Revenue or cost-centered

98
Q

According to the module, what is considered the most effective way to conduct a market analysis?

A

Hire a knowledgeable consultant

99
Q

What types of bonds require voter approval and are closely associated with being issued by the States or Municipalities?

A

General Obligation

100
Q

What is the first step in assessing the quality of a bond?

A

Airport conducts informal discussion with the rating services.

101
Q

Which category has the highest priority for AIP funding?

A

Safety and Security

102
Q

What types of federal funds are given to an airport through a set formula?

A

Entitlement

103
Q

Which document conveys the intent of the FAA to obligate the money for an Airport Improvement Program project over a period of time?

A

Letter of Intent (LOI)

104
Q

As related to when PFC’s secure a bond project: In the event of a violation of the Airport Noise and Capacity Act, the FAA can _____.

A
  • Withdraw PFC authorization on any project when violations of the Noise Act occur - Terminate the PFC authority on any project not covered by bonds - Reduce a sponsor’s authority to collect PFCs to an amount necessary to pay off the bond
105
Q

Strictly speaking, airports are not required to have liability insurance for which of these activities?

A

The operation of a based aircraft that is not operating on the airport at the time of an incident nor took off from your airport and did not use fuel from your airport

106
Q

When did Congress decide that small communities required air service (note: we’re not asking when the EAS program began)?

A

In 1958 with the passafe of the Federal Aviation Act

107
Q

The FAA is interpreting a regulation in a way that would negatively impact your airport operation - which AAAE department should you contact for assistance?

A

Regulatory Affairs

108
Q

What definition best fits privatization?

A

The shifting of government functions and responsibilities, in whole or in part, to the private sector.

109
Q

Which two key positions at any airport are generally outside of the vertical reporting structure?

A

Legal Counsel and Financial Auditor

110
Q

When does government immunity apply?

A

To employees of federal, state, or local government, provided they are acting within the scope and authority of their position

111
Q

A person is ______ if he or she fails to act as an ordinarily prudent person would act under the same circumstances

A

Negligent

112
Q

Which regulation addressed airport noise planning?

A

Title 14 CFR Part 150

113
Q

Which regulation addresses how a scheduled air carrier is required to operate (training requirements, safety, and maintenance requirements, etc.)?

A

Title 14 CFR Part 121

114
Q

The public comment period for a Notice of Proposed Rulemaking for a minor change is normally how long?

A

30 days

115
Q

Which Grant Assurance requires the airport to be available for public use without unjust discrimination for all aircraft activities?

A

Economic Nondiscrimination

116
Q

What does the grant assurance addressing “compatible land use” require the airport to do?

A

Attempt to restrict the use of land adjacent to or in the immediate vicinty of the airport

117
Q

Which is the ONLY excption to the Exclusive Rights Grant Assurance?

A

The Airport may grant itself the exclusive right to conduct an aeronautical function

118
Q

Which of the following applies to all airport users (passengers, employees, etc.) and airport tenants?

A

Rules and Regulations

119
Q

Your airport no longer needs some land that was acquired with federal funds for noise abatement, to protecgt against residental development. Your county commissioners want to know what you can do with the land.

A

EITHER - Sell it at fair market value and invest the money back into an FAA approved airport capital improvement project OR - Sell it and give the money back to the FAA

120
Q

What is the definition of an FAA Order?

A

Directives on subjects and programs issued by the FAA

121
Q

A primary commercial service airport is defined as having more than _____ enplanements per year.

A

More than 10,000

122
Q

A _____ relieves general aviation traffic from a commercial service airport.

A

General aviation reliever airport

123
Q

What FAA office provides oversight of airport compliance with Part 139 and the grant assurances?

A

Airport District Office (ADO)

124
Q

Which type of complaint against an airport is considered as “informal” complaint?

A

Part 13

125
Q

Part 16 complaints about the airport operating policies and practices, can be dismissed by _____ office, based on improper procedural (i.e. legal process) grounds.

A

The Director of the Office of Airport Safety and Standards

126
Q

What agency can make rules regarding aircraft operations after an accident?

A

The Federal Aviation Administration (FAA)

127
Q

This is a non-profit organization that supports all general aviation pilots and personal aircraft owners.

A

Aircraft Owners and Pilots Association (AOPA)

128
Q

The entity ranks in the top one percent of trade and professional associations.

A

Americal Association of Airport Executives (AAAE)

129
Q

The _____ identifies the role of the airport to a community.

A

Mission Statement

130
Q

Under which element of an airport strategic plan, would business contracts fit?

A

Business Plan

131
Q

What document identifies the legal, financial, and operational relationship between the airport operator and the airlines?

A

Aeronautical Use Agreement

132
Q

What gives signatory airlines the ability to influence capital projects undertaken at the airport by giving them the right to approve or disapprove proposed projects?

A

Majority in Interest (MII)

133
Q

What types of charges are related to the operations and use of an airfield but are incidental to the operation of an aircraft?

A

Non-Aeronautical Use

134
Q

_____ airports have commonly used the residual method for seting rates because of the influence and power of an airlines in generating economic traffic.

A

Large Hub

135
Q

FAA policy applies a strict _____ valuation standard to core aeronautical use facilities

A

Historical

136
Q

“Two Dogs” is the name of a new Fixed-Base Operator at your aiport. Their lease requires a periodic valuation of the property to set new rates. What type of lease is this?

A

Revaluation lease

137
Q

According to the module, airports enplaning over _____ passengers annually are good candidates for brand-name vendors and concessions.

A

5,000,000

138
Q

What financial statement provides a fiscal description of airport assets and liabilities at a specific point in time?

A

Balance Sheet

139
Q

_____ is an annual “charge” that reflects the cost of capital improvements and equipment used in the conduct of business.

A

Depreciation

140
Q

What statement shows revenues minus expenses to arrive at the “bottom line”?

A

Income Statement

141
Q

What ratio is commonly used to determine a company’s ability to meet its short term debt obligation?

A

Current Ratio

142
Q

What measurement or ratio shows profitability minus interest and taxes?

A

Operating Margin

143
Q

Which type of budget is normally associated with a small general aviation airport?

A

Lump sum

144
Q

This type of budget is becoming the most popular for airports with compensatory agreements.

A

Revenue or cost-centered

145
Q

According to the module, what is considered the most effective way to conduct a market analysis?

A

Hire a knowledgeable consultant

146
Q

What types of bonds require voter approval and are closely associated with being issued by the States or Municipalities?

A

General Obligation

147
Q

What is the first step in assessing the quality of a bond?

A

Airport conducts informal discussion with the rating services.

148
Q

Which category has the highest priority for AIP funding?

A

Safety and Security

149
Q

What types of federal funds are given to an airport through a set formula?

A

Entitlement

150
Q

Which document conveys the intent of the FAA to obligate the money for an Airport Improvement Program project over a period of time?

A

Letter of Intent (LOI)

151
Q

As related to when PFC’s secure a bond project: In the event of a violation of the Airport Noise and Capacity Act, the FAA can _____.

A
  • Withdraw PFC authorization on any project when violations of the Noise Act occur - Terminate the PFC authority on any project not covered by bonds - Reduce a sponsor’s authority to collect PFCs to an amount necessary to pay off the bond
152
Q

Strictly speaking, airports are not required to have liability insurance for which of these activities?

A

The operation of a based aircraft that is not operating on the airport at the time of an incident nor took off from your airport and did not use fuel from your airport

153
Q

When did Congress decide that small communities required air service (note: we’re not asking when the EAS program began)?

A

In 1958 with the passafe of the Federal Aviation Act

154
Q

The FAA is interpreting a regulation in a way that would negatively impact your airport operation - which AAAE department should you contact for assistance?

A

Regulatory Affairs

155
Q

Federal Aviation Act of 1958

A

Introduction of jet aircraft. Civil Aeronautics Board becomes independent office

155
Q

Aviation Investment and Reform Act for 21st Century 2000

A

Increase PFC to 4.50

155
Q

Homeland Security Act of 2002

A

Creats DHS and TSA transferred from DOT to DHS

155
Q

Define: Municipality

A

City/County the airport is a division or department of the city or county.

155
Q

Define: Finance & Administration

A

areas of accounting (payroll), budgeting, human resources, revenue management, rate and charges

155
Q

Define: Operations and Maintenance

A

addresses areas of enforcing operating and security regulations on the airfield

155
Q

Federal Property and Administrative Services Act of 1949 (Brooks Act)

A

consultant selection process must be bas on qualification and an award according to a fair and open selection process.

155
Q

Which is the ONLY excption to the Exclusive Rights Grant Assurance?

A

The Airport may grant itself the exclusive right to conduct an aeronautical function

155
Q

Under which element of an airport strategic plan, would business contracts fit?

A

Business Plan

155
Q

What type of use of airport revenue would NOT be approved by the FAA?

A

General economic development for the community

155
Q

A “peronal property tax” on an aircraft based at an airport is an example of what type of revenue?

A

Non-operating

CM Test (7 decks)

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