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CM Test > Planning, Construction & Environmental (2013) > Flashcards

Planning, Construction & Environmental (2013) Flashcards

1
Q

IT systems need to consider these factors:

A
  1. compatability and integration
  2. safety & security
  3. scalability
  4. usability
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2
Q

Four levels of system plans:

A
  1. NPIAS
  2. statewide system planning
  3. Regional/metro system planning
  4. airport master plans
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3
Q

How many airports are in NPIAS?

A

3,400

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4
Q

The NPIAS report identifies development eligible for federal funding for the next _____ years, including estimated amounts, but it does not prioritize or approve.

A

10 years (but it’s continually upadted)

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5
Q

Primary purpose of airport system planning is to understand teh interrrelationship of what?

A

airports in a specific region

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6
Q

What does ACIP do?

A

FAA planning tool for identifying and prioritizing critical airport development and capital needs in National Airspace System

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7
Q

What does the FAA like to see with a master plan?

A

Public involvement – especially open houses

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8
Q

What needs to be considered in any regional plan?

A

intermodal transport needs

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9
Q

What document must be up to date to receive federal funding?

A

ALP

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10
Q

This document provides short, medium and long term (20 years) strategy for development of an aiprort.

A

Master Plan

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11
Q

This part of the Master Plan provides a graphical presentation of the airport and its anticipated land uses in its vicinity.

A

Airport Layout Plan

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12
Q

Are Master Plans approved by the FAA?

A

No, they’re submitted to the FAA, but only ALPs are approved.

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13
Q

Products of a Master Plan:

A
  1. Technical Report
  2. Summary repport
  3. ALP
  4. Web page
  5. public information kit
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14
Q

What document is an appropriate alternative to a full master plan when the fundamental assumptions of a master plan have not been changed?

A

ALP Update

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15
Q

Reasons to udpate an ALP:

A
  1. to receive federal funding
  2. when you’re considering a new project
  3. as an alternative to master plan in some cases
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16
Q

What are some early phases of a drafting a master plan?

A
  1. hiring a consultant
  2. consider environmental issues
  3. get public involvement
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17
Q

In reference to a master plan, what does “existing conditions” mean?

A

inventory (historical look at airfield, airspace, aviation activity, pax facilities, GA, cargo, parking, utilities, weather, demographics, etc.)

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18
Q

What is the critieria for an airport to be in the NPIAS?

A
  1. part of state system plan
  2. community more than 30 min from nearest NPIAS airport
  3. forecasted at least 10 based aircraft in next 5 years
  4. having an eligible public sponsor
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19
Q

What FARs are NPIAS tied to?

A

Parts 151 and 152

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20
Q

How many airports are in the U.S.?

A

approx 20,000 (26% public use, 74% private use)

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21
Q

How are projects in the NPIAS categorized?

A
  1. purpose
  2. physical component
  3. type of work
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22
Q

What elements are included in a master plan?

A
  1. pre-planning
  2. public involvement
  3. environmental considerations
  4. existing conditions (inventory)
  5. forecasts
  6. facility requirements
  7. alternatives
  8. ALP
  9. facilities implementation plan
  10. financial feasibility analysis
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23
Q

TAF

A

termainal area forecast

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24
Q

What does the Brooks Act do?

A

must select most qualified consultant and have a fair process

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25
Q

SOQ

A

Statement of Qualifications

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26
Q

RFQ

A

Request for Qualifications

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27
Q

RFP

A

Request or Proposals

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28
Q

What type of contract pricing does the FAA want when hiring a consultant to prepare a master plan?

A

fixed price (cost + % okay, but cost + % of cost not allowed)

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29
Q

How long are short, medium and long term forecasts?

A

short = 1-5 years; medium = 6-10 years; long = 10+ years

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30
Q

Regression analysis, trend anlaysis (historical pattern), market share analysis (% of state/regional/national forecasts), and smoothing are methods of what?

A

Forecasting

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31
Q

Name two committees that facilitate public involvement in the development of a master plan:

A

Technical advisory committee and Citizen’s advisory committe

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32
Q

An aircraft operation is defined as:

A

a takeoff and landing

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33
Q

A forecast of AIA is what?

A

Annual Instrument Approaches (planning or upgrading navaids or landing systems)

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34
Q

What are local operations?

A

arrivals and departures within sight of the tower

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35
Q

How is design hour demand calculated?

A

peak hour, average day, peak month

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36
Q

What’s on the ALP cover sheet?

A

signature blocks, airport location maps

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37
Q

What’s on the ALP Sheet?

A

everything EXCEPT land use, airspace, parcels and noise contours

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38
Q

What’s on the ALP data sheet?

A

windrose, critical aircraft

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39
Q

What’s on the ALP Airport Airspace Drawing?

A

Part 77 surfaces

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40
Q

What’s on th ALP inner portion of the approach surface drawing?

A

expanded airspace drawing (RPZs)

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41
Q

What’s on the ALP on and off airport land use drawing?

A

designates zoning

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42
Q

What’s on the ALP Exhibit A?

A

off airport parcels (when and how they were aquired) plus noise contours

43
Q

Define the AMA

A

Aircraft Movement Area (tower controlled–rwys and twys)

44
Q

Define Aircraft Operations Area

A

movement and non-movement areas

45
Q

What is a buffer zone around a runway or taxiway called (suitable for aircraft in emergency)?

A

safety area (nothing in there unless it’s “fixed by function” and frangible…break point not higher than 3”), must be inspected daily

46
Q

How big is the runway safety areas?

A

1,000’ at each end, 250’ wide

47
Q

What color(s) are runway edge lights?

A

white in middle section, amber for last 2,000’

48
Q

What color(s) are runway centerline lights?

A

white in middle section, red/white at 3,000’ remaining, red at 1,000’ remaining

49
Q

What color(s) are taxiway edge and centerline lights?

A

edge lights are blue, centerline lights are green

50
Q

When are the various high/med/low intensity lighting used on runways?

A

high=precision, medium=non-precision, low=visual

51
Q

What are the components of an Approach Lighting System?

A
  1. sequence flashing lights (“chase the rabit”)
  2. approach lights (surround cross bars)
  3. crossbar lights (used to level wings)
  4. REILs
  5. VASI/PAPI
52
Q

REILS

A

runway end identifier lights

53
Q

ODALS

A

omnidirectional approach lights (7 flashing lights in approach area of non-precision rwy–visible from any direction)

54
Q

What percentage of aircraft accidents on airport remain in safety area?

A

90%

55
Q

EMAS

A

engineered material arresting system

56
Q

What are the 3 basic types of approaches?

A

visual, non-precision, precision

57
Q

What color are runway threshold lights?

A

green at one end, red at other end (depending upon landing direction)

58
Q

How many rwy/twy lights have to be out for a NOTAM to be issued?

A

Over 10% or more than 3 in a row

59
Q

At what visibility is SMGCS and Runway Visual Range implemented?

A

1,200’

60
Q

What color is the rotating beacon identifying an airport?

A

white and green (civil airports)

61
Q

AF/D

A

Airport Facilities Directory

62
Q

What kind of signs are red?

A

mandatory signs

63
Q

What kind of signs are black with yellow letters?

A

location signs

64
Q

What kind of signs are yellow with black letters?

A

direction and destination signs

65
Q

What type of airfield signs have an arrow?

A

direction

66
Q

What are the surface markings on runways?

A
  1. threshold
  2. rwy identifier
  3. TDZ markers
  4. aiming point
  5. side stripes
67
Q

What runway markings does a visual approach runway have?

A

identifier only

68
Q

What runway markings does a non-precision approach rwy have?

A

identifier, threshold

69
Q

The number of runway threshold bars vary from what to what?

A

4 stripes (60’ wide) or 16 stripes (200’ wide)

70
Q

Demarcation bar

A

YELLOW boundary line between runway threshold and stopway, blast pad or taxiway

71
Q

What color is the typical displaced threshold bar?

A

white

72
Q

LAHSO

A

land and hold short operations

73
Q

This marking is designed to visually assist pilots in determining airport traffic pattern while in flight.

A

segmented circle

74
Q

Class A airspace

A

18,000 to 60,000, must be IFR

75
Q

Class B airspace

A

upside down wedding cake, surrounds major aiports, special operating rules

76
Q

Class C airspace

A

10 mile radius, ATC provides vectoring, and sequencing

77
Q

Class D airspace

A

5 mile radius, up to 2,500’ (ATCT airport or uncontrolled airport with instrument approach)

78
Q

Class E airspace

A

controlled (above 60,000’_

79
Q

Class G

A

uncontrolled

80
Q

VMC

A

visual meteorological conditions

81
Q

IMC

A

instrument meterological conditions

82
Q

TERPs

A

Terminal Instrument Procedures (info about landing and taking off at a certain airport)

83
Q

DP

A

departure procedure (defined flight path)

84
Q

STAR

A

Standard Terminal ARrival

85
Q

AIM

A

aeronautical information manual (light gun signal definitions found there for the tower to communicate with aircraft or vehicle without radios or failed radios)

86
Q

ASR

A

airport surveillance radar (60 mile radius of airport, used in TRACONs)

87
Q

RADAR

A

radio detection and ranging

88
Q

ARSR

A

air route surveillance radar (used for en route)

89
Q

ASDE

A

Airport surface detection equipment (ground), ASDE-X shows location and vehicle/aicraft up to 5 miles out

90
Q

PRM

A

precision runway monitoring - allows simultaneous approaches on parallel runwasy not closer than 4,300’

91
Q

PAR

A

precision approach radar (military)

92
Q

What are transponders?

A

beacon device on aircraft transmits data on position

93
Q

Primary Surface

A

200’ beyond rwy ends, 250-1,000’ wide (visual, precision)

94
Q

Horizontal Surface

A

150’ above runway, extending out 10,000’

95
Q

Conical Surface

A

starts where horizontal surface ends, 20:1 slope for 4,000’

96
Q

Approach Surface

A

up to 50,000’ at 20:1 slope up to 50:1 slope

97
Q

Transitional Surface

A

7:1 slope starting from primary surface up to horizontal

98
Q

Standard glideslope descent ratio:

A

1’ descent for every 20’ above ground

99
Q

Areas underlying the innermost portions of the runway approach zones.

A

Runway Protection Zones (RPZs)

100
Q

Peak hourly volume

A

3-5% of annual pax voume (used in terminal planning)

101
Q

Class I airport

A

scheduled large (31+ seats) and small (9-30 seats), and unscheduled large

102
Q

Class II airport

A

scheduled small (9-30 seats) and unscheduled large (31+)

103
Q

Class III airport

A

scheduled small (9-30 seats)

104
Q

Class IV airport

A

unscheduled large

CM Test (7 decks)

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