Planning, Construction & Environmental (2013) Flashcards

1
Q

IT systems need to consider these factors:

A
  1. compatability and integration
  2. safety & security
  3. scalability
  4. usability
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Four levels of system plans:

A
  1. NPIAS
  2. statewide system planning
  3. Regional/metro system planning
  4. airport master plans
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How many airports are in NPIAS?

A

3,400

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The NPIAS report identifies development eligible for federal funding for the next _____ years, including estimated amounts, but it does not prioritize or approve.

A

10 years (but it’s continually upadted)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Primary purpose of airport system planning is to understand teh interrrelationship of what?

A

airports in a specific region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does ACIP do?

A

FAA planning tool for identifying and prioritizing critical airport development and capital needs in National Airspace System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does the FAA like to see with a master plan?

A

Public involvement – especially open houses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What needs to be considered in any regional plan?

A

intermodal transport needs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What document must be up to date to receive federal funding?

A

ALP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

This document provides short, medium and long term (20 years) strategy for development of an aiprort.

A

Master Plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

This part of the Master Plan provides a graphical presentation of the airport and its anticipated land uses in its vicinity.

A

Airport Layout Plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Are Master Plans approved by the FAA?

A

No, they’re submitted to the FAA, but only ALPs are approved.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Products of a Master Plan:

A
  1. Technical Report
  2. Summary repport
  3. ALP
  4. Web page
  5. public information kit
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What document is an appropriate alternative to a full master plan when the fundamental assumptions of a master plan have not been changed?

A

ALP Update

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Reasons to udpate an ALP:

A
  1. to receive federal funding
  2. when you’re considering a new project
  3. as an alternative to master plan in some cases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are some early phases of a drafting a master plan?

A
  1. hiring a consultant
  2. consider environmental issues
  3. get public involvement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

In reference to a master plan, what does “existing conditions” mean?

A

inventory (historical look at airfield, airspace, aviation activity, pax facilities, GA, cargo, parking, utilities, weather, demographics, etc.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the critieria for an airport to be in the NPIAS?

A
  1. part of state system plan
  2. community more than 30 min from nearest NPIAS airport
  3. forecasted at least 10 based aircraft in next 5 years
  4. having an eligible public sponsor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What FARs are NPIAS tied to?

A

Parts 151 and 152

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How many airports are in the U.S.?

A

approx 20,000 (26% public use, 74% private use)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How are projects in the NPIAS categorized?

A
  1. purpose
  2. physical component
  3. type of work
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What elements are included in a master plan?

A
  1. pre-planning
  2. public involvement
  3. environmental considerations
  4. existing conditions (inventory)
  5. forecasts
  6. facility requirements
  7. alternatives
  8. ALP
  9. facilities implementation plan
  10. financial feasibility analysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

TAF

A

termainal area forecast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What does the Brooks Act do?

A

must select most qualified consultant and have a fair process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
SOQ
Statement of Qualifications
26
RFQ
Request for Qualifications
27
RFP
Request or Proposals
28
What type of contract pricing does the FAA want when hiring a consultant to prepare a master plan?
fixed price (cost + % okay, but cost + % of cost not allowed)
29
How long are short, medium and long term forecasts?
short = 1-5 years; medium = 6-10 years; long = 10+ years
30
Regression analysis, trend anlaysis (historical pattern), market share analysis (% of state/regional/national forecasts), and smoothing are methods of what?
Forecasting
31
Name two committees that facilitate public involvement in the development of a master plan:
Technical advisory committee and Citizen's advisory committe
32
An aircraft operation is defined as:
a takeoff and landing
33
A forecast of AIA is what?
Annual Instrument Approaches (planning or upgrading navaids or landing systems)
34
What are local operations?
arrivals and departures within sight of the tower
35
How is design hour demand calculated?
peak hour, average day, peak month
36
What's on the ALP cover sheet?
signature blocks, airport location maps
37
What's on the ALP Sheet?
everything EXCEPT land use, airspace, parcels and noise contours
38
What's on the ALP data sheet?
windrose, critical aircraft
39
What's on the ALP Airport Airspace Drawing?
Part 77 surfaces
40
What's on th ALP inner portion of the approach surface drawing?
expanded airspace drawing (RPZs)
41
What's on the ALP on and off airport land use drawing?
designates zoning
42
What's on the ALP Exhibit A?
off airport parcels (when and how they were aquired) plus noise contours
43
Define the AMA
Aircraft Movement Area (tower controlled--rwys and twys)
44
Define Aircraft Operations Area
movement and non-movement areas
45
What is a buffer zone around a runway or taxiway called (suitable for aircraft in emergency)?
safety area (nothing in there unless it's "fixed by function" and frangible...break point not higher than 3"), must be inspected daily
46
How big is the runway safety areas?
1,000' at each end, 250' wide
47
What color(s) are runway edge lights?
white in middle section, amber for last 2,000'
48
What color(s) are runway centerline lights?
white in middle section, red/white at 3,000' remaining, red at 1,000' remaining
49
What color(s) are taxiway edge and centerline lights?
edge lights are blue, centerline lights are green
50
When are the various high/med/low intensity lighting used on runways?
high=precision, medium=non-precision, low=visual
51
What are the components of an Approach Lighting System?
1. sequence flashing lights ("chase the rabit") 2. approach lights (surround cross bars) 3. crossbar lights (used to level wings) 4. REILs 5. VASI/PAPI
52
REILS
runway end identifier lights
53
ODALS
omnidirectional approach lights (7 flashing lights in approach area of non-precision rwy--visible from any direction)
54
What percentage of aircraft accidents on airport remain in safety area?
90%
55
EMAS
engineered material arresting system
56
What are the 3 basic types of approaches?
visual, non-precision, precision
57
What color are runway threshold lights?
green at one end, red at other end (depending upon landing direction)
58
How many rwy/twy lights have to be out for a NOTAM to be issued?
Over 10% or more than 3 in a row
59
At what visibility is SMGCS and Runway Visual Range implemented?
1,200'
60
What color is the rotating beacon identifying an airport?
white and green (civil airports)
61
AF/D
Airport Facilities Directory
62
What kind of signs are red?
mandatory signs
63
What kind of signs are black with yellow letters?
location signs
64
What kind of signs are yellow with black letters?
direction and destination signs
65
What type of airfield signs have an arrow?
direction
66
What are the surface markings on runways?
1. threshold 2. rwy identifier 3. TDZ markers 4. aiming point 5. side stripes
67
What runway markings does a visual approach runway have?
identifier only
68
What runway markings does a non-precision approach rwy have?
identifier, threshold
69
The number of runway threshold bars vary from what to what?
4 stripes (60' wide) or 16 stripes (200' wide)
70
Demarcation bar
YELLOW boundary line between runway threshold and stopway, blast pad or taxiway
71
What color is the typical displaced threshold bar?
white
72
LAHSO
land and hold short operations
73
This marking is designed to visually assist pilots in determining airport traffic pattern while in flight.
segmented circle
74
Class A airspace
18,000 to 60,000, must be IFR
75
Class B airspace
upside down wedding cake, surrounds major aiports, special operating rules
76
Class C airspace
10 mile radius, ATC provides vectoring, and sequencing
77
Class D airspace
5 mile radius, up to 2,500' (ATCT airport or uncontrolled airport with instrument approach)
78
Class E airspace
controlled (above 60,000'_
79
Class G
uncontrolled
80
VMC
visual meteorological conditions
81
IMC
instrument meterological conditions
82
TERPs
Terminal Instrument Procedures (info about landing and taking off at a certain airport)
83
DP
departure procedure (defined flight path)
84
STAR
Standard Terminal ARrival
85
AIM
aeronautical information manual (light gun signal definitions found there for the tower to communicate with aircraft or vehicle without radios or failed radios)
86
ASR
airport surveillance radar (60 mile radius of airport, used in TRACONs)
87
RADAR
radio detection and ranging
88
ARSR
air route surveillance radar (used for en route)
89
ASDE
Airport surface detection equipment (ground), ASDE-X shows location and vehicle/aicraft up to 5 miles out
90
PRM
precision runway monitoring - allows simultaneous approaches on parallel runwasy not closer than 4,300'
91
PAR
precision approach radar (military)
92
What are transponders?
beacon device on aircraft transmits data on position
93
Primary Surface
200' beyond rwy ends, 250-1,000' wide (visual, precision)
94
Horizontal Surface
150' above runway, extending out 10,000'
95
Conical Surface
starts where horizontal surface ends, 20:1 slope for 4,000'
96
Approach Surface
up to 50,000' at 20:1 slope up to 50:1 slope
97
Transitional Surface
7:1 slope starting from primary surface up to horizontal
98
Standard glideslope descent ratio:
1' descent for every 20' above ground
99
Areas underlying the innermost portions of the runway approach zones.
Runway Protection Zones (RPZs)
100
Peak hourly volume
3-5% of annual pax voume (used in terminal planning)
101
Class I airport
scheduled large (31+ seats) and small (9-30 seats), and unscheduled large
102
Class II airport
scheduled small (9-30 seats) and unscheduled large (31+)
103
Class III airport
scheduled small (9-30 seats)
104
Class IV airport
unscheduled large