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Surgical Technology > Practice Test #2 > Flashcards

Practice Test #2 Flashcards

1
Q

The goal of the surgical scrub is to lower the population of which flora to an irreducible minimum?

A

Resident

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2
Q

Cardiac muscles are controlled by which division of the nervous system?

A

Autonomic

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3
Q

In which of the following would absorbable suture be contraindicated : peritoneum, muscle, intestinal anastomosis, vascular anastomosis?

A

Vascular anastomosis

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4
Q

Which of the following damages the mastoid air cells and ossicles of the ear : meniere’s disease, acoustic neuroma, cholesteatoma, otosclerosis?

A

Cholesteatoma

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5
Q

Which endoscope is used for the removal of foreign bodies from the airway of a pediatric patient?

A

rigid Bronchoscope

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6
Q

Which instrument is used to contract the ribs for suturing purposes?

A

Bailey

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7
Q

The largest muscle of the upper calf is the :

A

Gastrocnemius

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8
Q

What is the length of time when thrombin loses its potency?

A

3 hours

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9
Q

The teeth are composed primarily of :

A

Dentin

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10
Q

The basis for the design of electrical equipment in the OR is :

A

Electron Theory

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11
Q

Which procedure is performed to decrease gastric secretions?

A

Vagotomy

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12
Q

Which organ shares the same blood supply with the pancreas and must be removed during a whipple?

A

Duodenum

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13
Q

During a cleft palate procedure, which equipment should the ST be prepared to set up quickly?

A

Drill

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14
Q

Which of the following secretes hydrochloric acid : parietal cells, salivary glands, pancreas, duodenum?

A

Parietal Cells

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15
Q

Which of the following preoperative diagnostic tests would be administered to a patient with a brain injury?

A

EEG

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16
Q

A fogarty catheter is used during a :

A

Embolectomy

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17
Q

During a trabeculectomy, which two layers are incised at the beginning of the procedure?

A

Conjuctiva and sclera

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18
Q

What is used to obtain specimens during a bronchoscopy?

A

Lukens tube

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19
Q

When the surgeon makes a MacBurney’s incision, which muscle is encountered first and divided in the direction of its fibers?

A

External Oblique

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20
Q

How would you position a patient with an intertrochanteric fracture?

A

Supine

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21
Q

The removal of fibrous thickening of the visceral pleura is called :

A

Decortication

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22
Q

What type of hernia involves a direct and indirect inguinal hernia?

A

Pantaloon

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23
Q

How are the legs of the patient positioned for lateral position?

A

Lower leg flexed; upper leg straight

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24
Q

What does the neuroglia of the nervous system do?

A

Support and bind

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25
Q

What PPE should the ST don prior to the start of an extracorporeal shock-wave lithotripsy procedure?

A

Lead apron

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26
Q

Another name for tonsil suction is :

A

Yankauer

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27
Q

A type of bone-holding forceps is : dingman, langenbeck, smillie, slocum?

A

Dingman

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28
Q

Which pathological condition of the small intestine could be misdiagnosed as acute appendicitis?

A

Meckel’s diverticulum

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29
Q

Which subcategory of drug prep is a combination of two liquids that cannot mix?

A

Emulsion

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30
Q

What is the average normal respiration rate for children?

A

18 to 30

31
Q

What anatomical structure must be approximated after a colectomy to prevent herniation of abdominal contents?

A

Mesentary

32
Q

To prevent density, instrument sets should not exceed :

A

25lbs

33
Q

When surgically treating hydrocephalus, where is the shunt placed?

A

Lateral ventrical

34
Q

The ureters enter the bladder medially, from what aspect?

A

Posterior

35
Q

If a mentoplasty is being performed, the ST should confirm a prosthesis is available for the :

A

Chin

36
Q

Which of the following means cell “eating” : phagocytosis, filtration, pinocytosis, osmosis?

A

Phagocytosis

37
Q

Which nerve could be damaged when the patient is placed in Fowler’s position : ulnar, femoral, brachial, sciatic?

A

Sciatic

38
Q

What is the correct order for donning OR attire?

A

Hair cover, Scrub Suit, Mask, Shoe Covers

39
Q

The cranial nerve responsible for hearing and balance is the :

A

VIII

40
Q

Which of the following is responsible for disseminated intravascular coagulation : Endotoxin, exotoxin, neurotoxin, enterotoxin?

A

Endotoxin

41
Q

Which preoperative diagnostic test is useful in diabetic patients with small vessel arterial disease?

A

Plethysmography

42
Q

The mandible articulates with which bone?

A

Temporal

43
Q

What degrees in Celsius equals 98.6*F?

A

37

44
Q

A mesh that is contraindicated in the presence of infection is :

A

PTFE

45
Q

Which of the following provides additional protection to prevent contamination of a sterile package : dust cover, green towel, non-sterile 3/4 sheet, muslin wrap?

A

Dust cover

46
Q

During a kidney transplant, the renal vein of the donor kidney is anastomosed to the:

A

External iliac vein

47
Q

The ophthalmologist tells the ST to place 2 drops atropine sulfate OU. What does this mean?

A

Both eyes dilated

48
Q

If cultures cannot be immediately transported from the surgery dept to pathology, they should be :

A

Place in a refrigerator

49
Q

In terms of transmitting an infection, what is a fomite?

A

Inanimate object

50
Q

When positioning the patient for a C-section, where is the bolster place, and why?

A

Right side; to relieve pressure on the vena cava

51
Q

The conducting fibers the extend from the AV node to the interventricular septum form the :

A

Bundle of His

52
Q

Name the order of the layers of the colon from inner to outer:

A

mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, serosa

53
Q

Air or fluid accumulation due to poorly approximated wound edges could result in :

A

dead space

54
Q

A blood pH of 7.5 indicates :

A

Alkalosis

55
Q

What is the function of phagocytic white cells?

A

Engulf and destroy bacteria

56
Q

Which of the following describes the action of histamine (H2 blockers) : increase blood flow to the heart, produce skeletal muscle relaxation, reverse narcotic effects, decrease gastric volume in the stomach?

A

Decrease gastric volume in the stomach

57
Q

When performing a total knee arthroplasty, the surgeon removes the osteophytes from the rim of the femur and tibia with a :

A

Kerrison

58
Q

During a radical neck dissection with mandibulectomy, which bone is harvested for the graft?

A

Fibula

59
Q

To prevent charring of bone when it is being cut or drilled, the ST should use :

A

Suction irrigator

60
Q

Pain, ,heat, redness, and swelling indicate what condition?

A

Inflammation

61
Q

Which clamp is most often used to grasp the appendix?

A

Babcock

62
Q

Which drape is used for a thyroidectomy?

A

Transverse

63
Q

Testosterone is secreted by the:

A

Leydig cells

64
Q

When a surgeon is using a Kocher subcostal incision, which muscle is divided by electrosurgery?

A

Rectus abdominus

65
Q

What are the boundaries of the skin prep for a total hip arthroplasty?

A

Level of umbilicus to foot

66
Q

Movement disorder diseases caused by radiation therapy are characterized by destruction of the :

A

Myelin sheath

67
Q

During which of the following procedures would a Gigli saw possibly be used : Craniotomy, Laminectomy, Acromioplasty, Bunionectomy?

A

Craniotomy

68
Q

What is the best synthetic substitute for stainless steel (suture)

A

Polypropylene

69
Q

What microorganism is used within the biological indicator for ethylene oxide sterilization?

A

Bacillus subtillis

70
Q

To prevent peel pack pouches from opening during sterilization, the ST should :

A

Force out air from pouch

71
Q

During a CABG procedure, the saphenous vein is sutured to the :

A

Coronary Artery

72
Q

Which drain should the ST have available for insertion into the common bile duct during and exploration?

A

T-tube

73
Q

Which graft material does not require pre-clotting for placement during an abdominal aortic aneurysmectomy?

A

PTFE

Surgical Technology (11 decks)

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