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Surgical Technology > Anatomy and Physiology > Flashcards

Anatomy and Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

visceral

A

organ

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2
Q

parietal

A

wall

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3
Q

sagittal plane

A

vertical

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4
Q

transverse plane

A

horizontal

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5
Q

frontal plane

A

coronal

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6
Q

dorsal cavities

A

cranial and spinal

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7
Q

ventral cavities

A

thoracic and abdomino-pelvic

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8
Q

Cell “batteries” that store energy and supply the cell with ATP

A

mitochondria

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9
Q

carry out digestive functions in the cell

A

lysosomes

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10
Q

delivers proteins to the cell

A

golgi apparatus

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11
Q

transport system and site of protein synthesis

A

endoplasmic reticulum

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12
Q

sites of protein synthesis

A

ribosomes

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13
Q

disarm free radicals

A

peroxisomes

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14
Q

function during cell division

A

centrioles

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15
Q

hairlike extensions responsible for movement of fluid around the cell

A

cilia

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16
Q

whiplike extension responsible for motility of the cells (sperm)

A

flagella

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17
Q

internal framework that determines cell shape

A

cytoskeleton

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18
Q

phagocytosis

A

cell eating

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19
Q

pinocytosis

A

cell drinking

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20
Q

cell division

A

mitosis

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21
Q

what are the 5 stages of mitosis

A

interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

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22
Q

phase in which the cell grows and carries on its usual metabolic activities

A

interphase

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23
Q

the phase in which the division of the cytoplasm (cytokenesis) is complete

A

telophase

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24
Q

What are the tissue layers, in order when entering the abdominal cavity?

A

skin, subcuticular, subcutaneous tissue and adipose/superficial fascia, deep fascia, muscle, extraperitoneal fat, peritoneum

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25
Q

The part or organelle of the cell considered to be the powerhouse is the:

A

mitochondria

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26
Q

The thymus gland is located in which cavity?

A

thoracic

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27
Q

The hormones produced by the adrenal cortex to protect one during a stressful situation are:

A

corticoids

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28
Q

The outermost later of the eye that is commonly called the white of the eye is:

A

sclera

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29
Q

The parotid gland secretes:

A

saliva

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30
Q

The large opening located in the occipital bone is called the:

A

foramen magnum

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31
Q

The liquid part of the blood is:

A

plasma

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32
Q

One of the most important glands in the body, often referred to as the “master gland” is the:

A

pituitary

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33
Q

Water is absorbed mostly in the :

A

colon

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34
Q

The male reproductive organ(s) that manufactures the male sex cells are:

A

testes

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35
Q

The nerves that control the release of epinephrine during “fight or flight” are the :

A

sympathetic nerves

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36
Q

An example of reticular tissue is :

A

blood

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37
Q

the muscle that flexes the head is the :

A

sternocleidomastoid

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38
Q

How many pairs of extrinsic eye muscles are there?

A

6

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39
Q

The function of the liver includes all of the following except : storae of glucose, storage of bile, destruction of RBC’s, production of urea?

A

Storage of bile

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40
Q

The normal range for lymphocytes is between :

A

5,000 and 10,000

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41
Q

The valve to the right ventricle is:

A

tricuspid

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42
Q

A superficial vein of the leg is the :

A

saphenous

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43
Q

Fertilization occurs in the :

A

oviduct

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44
Q

Olfactory nerve, Smell

A

Cranial Nerve I

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45
Q

Optic nerve, vision

A

Cranial Nerve II

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46
Q

Oculomotor, eye control

A

Cranial Nerve III

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47
Q

Trochlear, eye control

A

Cranial Nerve IV

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48
Q

Abdocens, eye control

A

Cranial Nerve VI

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49
Q

Trigeminal nerve, sensations of the face, movement of the mouth

A

Cranial Nerve V

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50
Q

Facial Nerve, facial muscles

A

Cranial Nerve VII

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51
Q

Acoustic Nerve, vestibular, hearing

A

Cranial Nerve VIII

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52
Q

Glossopharyngeal, palate, uvual

A

Cranial Nerve IX

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53
Q

Vagus, palate, uvula

A

Cranial Nerve X

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54
Q

Spinal accessory nerve, muscles of the shoulder and neck

A

Cranial Nerve XI

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55
Q

Hypoglossal Nerve, Tongue

A

Cranial Nerve VII

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56
Q

What part of the bone is where longitudinal bone growth takes place?

A

Epiphyseal disc

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57
Q

How many lobes does the lung have?

A

5

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58
Q

What does the parietal pluera line?

A

Inner surface of ribs, the superior surface of the diaphragm, and the pericardium of the heart.

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59
Q

What muscles are used for inspiration?

A

Diaphragm and the external intercostal musclees

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60
Q

Where do the bronchus and other structure enter the lungs?

A

Hilum

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61
Q

Which valve allows blood to move from the left atrium to the left ventrical?

A

mitral valve

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62
Q

The rhuthmic contraction of the heart is controlled by :

A

Sinoatrial node (SA node)

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63
Q

When the electric impulse leaves the Bundle of His where does it travel next?

A

Purkinje fibers

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64
Q

What structures are affected by thoracic outlet system?

A

Brachial plexus nerve complex and subclavian vessels

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65
Q

What cranial bone houses the middle ear?

A

Temporal

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66
Q

What is located in the nasal cavity?

A

Turbinates

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67
Q

What is the functioning tissue of the lungs?

A

Alveolar sacs

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68
Q

How many lobes is the right lung divided into?

A

3

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69
Q

What structure in the kidney stores urine?

A

Renal pelvis

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70
Q

Which part of the brain is the largest?

A

Cerebrum

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71
Q

What structure produces cerebral spinal fluid?

A

All four ventricles

72
Q

What part of the vertebrae does the spinal cord pass through?

A

Vertebral foramen

73
Q

What structure do these bones make up : frontal, sphenoid, ethmoid, superior maxillaary, zygomatic, lacrimal, and palate bones?

A

Orbit of the eye

74
Q

Which muscle moves the eyeball toward the midline and upward?

A

Superior rectus

75
Q

What is the action of the inferior rectus muscle?

A

Moves the eyeball downward and to the midline

76
Q

What is the name of the type of bone that is around the marrow cavity and is dense tissue?

A

Cortical

77
Q

Where does the active bone growth take place?

A

Epiphyseal plate

78
Q

What minerals are stored in the bone?

A

Potassium, magnesium, calcium, sodium, and phosphorus

79
Q

What is the correct order of osteogenesis?

A

Inflammation, cellular proliferation, callus formation, ossification, remodeling

80
Q

What parts of the body does compartment syndrome take place?

A

Tibia and forearm

81
Q

Where would the lateral malleolus be found?

A

Distal end of the fibula

82
Q

What is the definition of a transcervical fraccture?

A

A fracture in the neck of the femur

83
Q

What is the definition of a stellate fracture?

A

A break that radiates out from a break at a central point

84
Q

What is the definition of a transverse fracture?

A

a horizontal fracture of the bone

85
Q

What term refers to a structure that is close tot he origin of the limb?

A

Proximal

86
Q

What vessels branch of the aortic arch?

A

Brachiocephalic artery, left common carotid artery, left subclavian artery

87
Q

The correct order of the arterial system from superior to inferior is :

A

Left ventricle of the heart, ascending aorta, aortic arch, thoracic aorta, abdominal aorta , common iliac arteries, femoral arteries, popliteal artery

88
Q

What major vein does the head, shoulder, and upper extremities drain into?

A

Superior vena cava

89
Q

What organs are located in the “lesser pelvis” ?

A

ovaries, fallopian tubes, uterus, vagina, cervix

90
Q

List the female external genitalia?

A

mons pubis, labia majora, labia minora, clitoris, bartholin’s glands, forchette, perineum

91
Q

Which of the following is not a part of the fallopian tube : fundus, fimbria. infundibulum, adnexa, ampulla, fallopian tube?

A

Fundus

92
Q

In what structure do sperm mature?

A

Epididymis

93
Q

Definition of abduction?

A

to move away from the midline or turn outward

94
Q

Definition of adduction?

A

to move toward the midline or turn inward

95
Q

What term refers to the appendages or accssory structures of an organ?

A

adnexa

96
Q

What is another name for compact bone?

A

cortical

97
Q

Chyme is a semifluid located in which organ?

A

Stomach

98
Q

What is located in the medullary marrow cavity and bone ends?

A

Cancellous bone

99
Q

What structure separates the the larynx from the trachea?

A

Epiglottis

100
Q

What is the outer layer of the heart tissue called?

A

Epicardium

101
Q

What is the name of the lining covering the inside of the heart chambers?

A

Endocardium

102
Q

Ipsilateral means:

A

same side

103
Q

What is the contraction phase of the cardiac cycle called?

A

Systole

104
Q

What is a xenograft?

A

a graft taken from a species that is different than the recipient

105
Q

What are the ureter openings and the urethra opening in the bladder called?

A

vesical trigone

106
Q

Uncoordinated, fast contractions of the heart ventricles :

A

ventricular fibrulation

107
Q

What anatomical structure is affected by Colles’ fracture?

A

distal radius

108
Q

Where does the gas and nutrient exchange take place in the blood?

A

Capillaries

109
Q

When blood returns to the heart from the extremities, what part of the heart does it enter?

A

Right atrium

110
Q

Which layer of the skin has no blood vessels or nerves?

A

Epidermis

111
Q

Which layer of the skin anchors it?

A

Subcutaneous layer

112
Q

What produces cerumen?

A

Ceruminous gland

113
Q

The lungs are covered in a serous membranous sac called the :

A

visceral pleura

114
Q

The function of the trachea is to :

A

conduct air to and from the lungs

115
Q

The of the palm of the hand are referred to as :

A

metacarpals

116
Q

Which of the following is a principal muscle of the pelvic floor : sartorius, levator ani, internal oblique, rectus abdominus?

A

levator ani

117
Q

A connective tissue band that holds bones together it called :

A

ligament

118
Q

The two bones that form the side walls and the roof of the cranium are the :

A

parietal bones

119
Q

The sternocleidomastoid muscle is located :

A

along the side of the neck

120
Q

The bone that is shaped like a butterfly and forms the anterior portion of the base of the cranium is the :

A

sphenoid

121
Q

The bone located in the neck between the mandible and the larynx, which supports the tongue and provides attachment for some of its muscles, is the:

A

hyoid bone

122
Q

The adult vertebral column has how many bones?

A

26 bones

123
Q

How many cervical vertebrae are there?

A

7

124
Q

The bone in the axial skeleton that does not articulate with any other bone is the :

A

hyoid

125
Q

The upper, flaring portion of the hipbone is the :

A

ilium

126
Q

The larger, weight bearing bone of the lower leg is the :

A

tibia

127
Q

The membranes that line closed cavities within the body are called :

A

serous membranes

128
Q

A transparent structure that permits the eye to focus rays to form an image on the retina is the :

A

lens

129
Q

The nerve that carried visual impulses to the brain is the :

A

optic nerve

130
Q

The number of pairs of spinal nerves is :

A

31

131
Q

The cranial nerve that contains special sense fibers for hearing as well as for balance is :

A

VIII

132
Q

A differential count provides an estimate of :

A

the percentage of each type of white cell

133
Q

Mixing of incompatible bloods may result in :

A

agglutination

134
Q

The vein that drains the veins of the chest wall and empties in to the superior vena cava is the :

A

azygos

135
Q

The atrioventricular (AV) node causes :

A

ventricular contraction

136
Q

Why would an aspirated foreign body be more likely to enter the right bronchus rather than the left bronchus ?

A

The right bronchus is more vertical, shorter, and wider than the left

137
Q

The descending aorta terminates at the level of the fourth lumbar vertebra, dividing into :

A

Two common iliac arteries

138
Q

The heart valve that closes at the time the right ventricle begins pumping, preventing blood from returning to the right atrium, is the :

A

tricuspid

139
Q

The inner lining of the heart, composed of smooth, delicate membrane is called :

A

endocardium

140
Q

What region is the spleen located in?

A

Left hypochondriac region

141
Q

All of the following are parts of the lymphatic system EXCEPT : thyroid, tonsils, spleen, thymus ?

A

thyroid

142
Q

The terminal portion of the large intestine is the :

A

anal canal

143
Q

Which structure is also known as the “fatty apron”?

A

greater omentum

144
Q

The head of the pancreas is located :

A

in the curve of the duodenum

145
Q

The sphincter at the junction of the small and large intestines is the :

A

ileocecal sphincter

146
Q

The portion of the small intestine that receives secretions from the pancreas and liver is the :

A

duodenum

147
Q

The large central portion of the stomach is called the :

A

body

148
Q

Mumps occur in what gland?

A

Parotid

149
Q

The liver has how many lobes?

A

two

150
Q

The glomerulus is a :

A

cluster of capillaries

151
Q

Blood is supplied to the kidney by means of the renal artery, which arises from the :

A

abdominal aorta

152
Q

The indentation in the kidney through which all structures must pass as the enter or leave the kidney is the :

A

renal capsule

153
Q

The portion of the male urethra that passes through the pelvic floor is called the :

A

membranous portion

154
Q

The ligament that attaches the ovaries to the pelvic wall is the :

A

suspensory

155
Q

The supporting structure of the male reproductive system is the :

A

spermatic cord

156
Q

Which two structures are ligated and divided during cholecystectomy?

A

cystic artery and cystic duct

157
Q

When performing a D&C which of the following are used to grasp the cervix : Sims, Auvard, Schroeder, Bozeman?

A

Schroeder

158
Q

Which of the following items may be used in positioning a patient for Total Hip Arthroplasty : fracture table, bean bag, Wilson frame, Andrews frame?

A

bean bag

159
Q

Which of the following is most likely to be used to stabilize a cervical fracture : kirschner wire, hoffman device, steinmann pins, mayfield clamp?

A

mayfield clamp

160
Q

If the VII cranial nerve is severed, which of the following is the result : loss of hearing, loss of vision, facial paralysis, impairment of eye muscles?

A

facial paralysis

161
Q

What is the proper position in which to place a patient for a right nephrectomy?

A

left lateral kidney

162
Q

The parathyroid gland regulates :

A

calcium

163
Q

Scoliosis is MOST commonly found in which of the following curves of the vertebral column?

A

thoracic

164
Q

What type of incision is typically used for an open cholecystectomy?

A

subcostal

165
Q

Which of the following must be done before sterilizing an instrument with a lumen : allowing the instrument to dry completely, ensuring the stylet is still within the lumen, injecting a small amount of distilled water into the lumen, wrapping separately in a peel pack pouch and placed in the tray

A

injecting a small amount of distilled water into the lumen

166
Q 
Which of the following is NOT a symptom of shock?
	A.	tachycardia
	B.	hypertension
	C.	cold, clammy skin
        D.   	increased respirations
A

b, hypertension

167
Q

Hair removed during preparation for cranial surgery should be

    A.    discarded by the circulator.
B.	sent to pathology.
C.	used for potential reimplantation.
D.	saved because it is personal property.
A

d, saved because it is personal property

168
Q 
What color is a nitrous oxide tank?
	A.	blue
        B. 	gray
	C.	green
	D.	orange
A

a, blue

169
Q 
Following an abdominal surgery, the surgeon has just closed the peritoneum. Which of the following layers will be sutured next?
	A.	fascia
        B.    muscle
	C.	subcutaneous
	D.	subcuticular
A

a, fascia

170
Q

Which of the following statements regarding surgical scrubbing is NOT true?
A. Two accepted methods of surgical scrubbing are the timed method and the counted brush-stroke method.
B. A vigorous 5-minute scrub with a reliable agent may be as effective as a 10-minute scrub done with less mechanical action.
C. Prolonging a scrub beyond the standard scrub length is effective in decreasing microbe counts.
D. When gloves are removed at the end of a surgical procedure, the hands are contaminated and should be immediately washed.

A

C. Prolonging a scrub beyond the standard scrub length is effective in decreasing microbe counts.

171
Q 
During a laminectomy, disk material is removed with
	A.	an osteotome.
        B.	a Kerrison rongeur.
	C.	a pituitary rongeur.
	D.	a periosteal elevator.
A

C. a pituitary rongeur.

172
Q 
Which of the following is a type of herniation that occurs with protrusion of the peritoneal sac and its contents (omentum or abdominal viscera)?
	A.	epigastric
	B.	umbilical
        C.  	hypogastric
	D.	femoral
A

B. umbilical

173
Q 
During a C-section, a surgical technologist passes the surgeon a pair of Metzenbaum scissors and Russian forceps. Which of the following anatomical parts is dissected off the uterus and gently retracted prior to uterine incision?
	A.	ovaries
	B.     bladder
        C.	peritoneum
	D.	broad ligament
A

B. bladder

174
Q 
A patient undergoing a procedure while under general anesthesia begins to experience muscle rigidity, followed by tachycardia, metabolic and respiratory acidosis, and cardiac dysrhythmias. Which of the following is the patient experiencing?
	A.	septic shock
	B.	malignant hyperthermia
        C.	cardiopulmonary arrest
	D.	pulmonary embolism
A

B. malignant hyperthermia

175
Q

Which of the following methods of hospital sterilization does not corrode metal and passes through woven materials like steam?

    A.	ionizing radiation
B.	Steris
C.	glutaraldehyde
D.	ethylene oxide
A

D. ethylene oxide

Surgical Technology (11 decks)

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