Anatomy and Physiology Flashcards
visceral
organ
parietal
wall
sagittal plane
vertical
transverse plane
horizontal
frontal plane
coronal
dorsal cavities
cranial and spinal
ventral cavities
thoracic and abdomino-pelvic
Cell “batteries” that store energy and supply the cell with ATP
mitochondria
carry out digestive functions in the cell
lysosomes
delivers proteins to the cell
golgi apparatus
transport system and site of protein synthesis
endoplasmic reticulum
sites of protein synthesis
ribosomes
disarm free radicals
peroxisomes
function during cell division
centrioles
hairlike extensions responsible for movement of fluid around the cell
cilia
whiplike extension responsible for motility of the cells (sperm)
flagella
internal framework that determines cell shape
cytoskeleton
phagocytosis
cell eating
pinocytosis
cell drinking
cell division
mitosis
what are the 5 stages of mitosis
interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
phase in which the cell grows and carries on its usual metabolic activities
interphase
the phase in which the division of the cytoplasm (cytokenesis) is complete
telophase
What are the tissue layers, in order when entering the abdominal cavity?
skin, subcuticular, subcutaneous tissue and adipose/superficial fascia, deep fascia, muscle, extraperitoneal fat, peritoneum
The part or organelle of the cell considered to be the powerhouse is the:
mitochondria
The thymus gland is located in which cavity?
thoracic
The hormones produced by the adrenal cortex to protect one during a stressful situation are:
corticoids
The outermost later of the eye that is commonly called the white of the eye is:
sclera
The parotid gland secretes:
saliva
The large opening located in the occipital bone is called the:
foramen magnum
The liquid part of the blood is:
plasma
One of the most important glands in the body, often referred to as the “master gland” is the:
pituitary
Water is absorbed mostly in the :
colon
The male reproductive organ(s) that manufactures the male sex cells are:
testes
The nerves that control the release of epinephrine during “fight or flight” are the :
sympathetic nerves
An example of reticular tissue is :
blood
the muscle that flexes the head is the :
sternocleidomastoid
How many pairs of extrinsic eye muscles are there?
6
The function of the liver includes all of the following except : storae of glucose, storage of bile, destruction of RBC’s, production of urea?
Storage of bile
The normal range for lymphocytes is between :
5,000 and 10,000
The valve to the right ventricle is:
tricuspid
A superficial vein of the leg is the :
saphenous
Fertilization occurs in the :
oviduct
Olfactory nerve, Smell
Cranial Nerve I
Optic nerve, vision
Cranial Nerve II
Oculomotor, eye control
Cranial Nerve III
Trochlear, eye control
Cranial Nerve IV
Abdocens, eye control
Cranial Nerve VI
Trigeminal nerve, sensations of the face, movement of the mouth
Cranial Nerve V
Facial Nerve, facial muscles
Cranial Nerve VII
Acoustic Nerve, vestibular, hearing
Cranial Nerve VIII
Glossopharyngeal, palate, uvual
Cranial Nerve IX
Vagus, palate, uvula
Cranial Nerve X
Spinal accessory nerve, muscles of the shoulder and neck
Cranial Nerve XI
Hypoglossal Nerve, Tongue
Cranial Nerve VII
What part of the bone is where longitudinal bone growth takes place?
Epiphyseal disc
How many lobes does the lung have?
5
What does the parietal pluera line?
Inner surface of ribs, the superior surface of the diaphragm, and the pericardium of the heart.
What muscles are used for inspiration?
Diaphragm and the external intercostal musclees
Where do the bronchus and other structure enter the lungs?
Hilum
Which valve allows blood to move from the left atrium to the left ventrical?
mitral valve
The rhuthmic contraction of the heart is controlled by :
Sinoatrial node (SA node)
When the electric impulse leaves the Bundle of His where does it travel next?
Purkinje fibers
What structures are affected by thoracic outlet system?
Brachial plexus nerve complex and subclavian vessels
What cranial bone houses the middle ear?
Temporal
What is located in the nasal cavity?
Turbinates
What is the functioning tissue of the lungs?
Alveolar sacs
How many lobes is the right lung divided into?
3
What structure in the kidney stores urine?
Renal pelvis
Which part of the brain is the largest?
Cerebrum
What structure produces cerebral spinal fluid?
All four ventricles
What part of the vertebrae does the spinal cord pass through?
Vertebral foramen
What structure do these bones make up : frontal, sphenoid, ethmoid, superior maxillaary, zygomatic, lacrimal, and palate bones?
Orbit of the eye
Which muscle moves the eyeball toward the midline and upward?
Superior rectus
What is the action of the inferior rectus muscle?
Moves the eyeball downward and to the midline
What is the name of the type of bone that is around the marrow cavity and is dense tissue?
Cortical
Where does the active bone growth take place?
Epiphyseal plate
What minerals are stored in the bone?
Potassium, magnesium, calcium, sodium, and phosphorus
What is the correct order of osteogenesis?
Inflammation, cellular proliferation, callus formation, ossification, remodeling
What parts of the body does compartment syndrome take place?
Tibia and forearm
Where would the lateral malleolus be found?
Distal end of the fibula
What is the definition of a transcervical fraccture?
A fracture in the neck of the femur
What is the definition of a stellate fracture?
A break that radiates out from a break at a central point
What is the definition of a transverse fracture?
a horizontal fracture of the bone
What term refers to a structure that is close tot he origin of the limb?
Proximal
What vessels branch of the aortic arch?
Brachiocephalic artery, left common carotid artery, left subclavian artery
The correct order of the arterial system from superior to inferior is :
Left ventricle of the heart, ascending aorta, aortic arch, thoracic aorta, abdominal aorta , common iliac arteries, femoral arteries, popliteal artery
What major vein does the head, shoulder, and upper extremities drain into?
Superior vena cava
What organs are located in the “lesser pelvis” ?
ovaries, fallopian tubes, uterus, vagina, cervix
List the female external genitalia?
mons pubis, labia majora, labia minora, clitoris, bartholin’s glands, forchette, perineum
Which of the following is not a part of the fallopian tube : fundus, fimbria. infundibulum, adnexa, ampulla, fallopian tube?
Fundus
In what structure do sperm mature?
Epididymis
Definition of abduction?
to move away from the midline or turn outward
Definition of adduction?
to move toward the midline or turn inward
What term refers to the appendages or accssory structures of an organ?
adnexa
What is another name for compact bone?
cortical
Chyme is a semifluid located in which organ?
Stomach
What is located in the medullary marrow cavity and bone ends?
Cancellous bone
What structure separates the the larynx from the trachea?
Epiglottis
What is the outer layer of the heart tissue called?
Epicardium
What is the name of the lining covering the inside of the heart chambers?
Endocardium
Ipsilateral means:
same side
What is the contraction phase of the cardiac cycle called?
Systole
What is a xenograft?
a graft taken from a species that is different than the recipient
What are the ureter openings and the urethra opening in the bladder called?
vesical trigone
Uncoordinated, fast contractions of the heart ventricles :
ventricular fibrulation
What anatomical structure is affected by Colles’ fracture?
distal radius
Where does the gas and nutrient exchange take place in the blood?
Capillaries
When blood returns to the heart from the extremities, what part of the heart does it enter?
Right atrium
Which layer of the skin has no blood vessels or nerves?
Epidermis
Which layer of the skin anchors it?
Subcutaneous layer
What produces cerumen?
Ceruminous gland
The lungs are covered in a serous membranous sac called the :
visceral pleura
The function of the trachea is to :
conduct air to and from the lungs
The of the palm of the hand are referred to as :
metacarpals
Which of the following is a principal muscle of the pelvic floor : sartorius, levator ani, internal oblique, rectus abdominus?
levator ani
A connective tissue band that holds bones together it called :
ligament
The two bones that form the side walls and the roof of the cranium are the :
parietal bones
The sternocleidomastoid muscle is located :
along the side of the neck
The bone that is shaped like a butterfly and forms the anterior portion of the base of the cranium is the :
sphenoid
The bone located in the neck between the mandible and the larynx, which supports the tongue and provides attachment for some of its muscles, is the:
hyoid bone
The adult vertebral column has how many bones?
26 bones
How many cervical vertebrae are there?
7
The bone in the axial skeleton that does not articulate with any other bone is the :
hyoid
The upper, flaring portion of the hipbone is the :
ilium
The larger, weight bearing bone of the lower leg is the :
tibia
The membranes that line closed cavities within the body are called :
serous membranes
A transparent structure that permits the eye to focus rays to form an image on the retina is the :
lens
The nerve that carried visual impulses to the brain is the :
optic nerve
The number of pairs of spinal nerves is :
31
The cranial nerve that contains special sense fibers for hearing as well as for balance is :
VIII
A differential count provides an estimate of :
the percentage of each type of white cell
Mixing of incompatible bloods may result in :
agglutination
The vein that drains the veins of the chest wall and empties in to the superior vena cava is the :
azygos
The atrioventricular (AV) node causes :
ventricular contraction
Why would an aspirated foreign body be more likely to enter the right bronchus rather than the left bronchus ?
The right bronchus is more vertical, shorter, and wider than the left
The descending aorta terminates at the level of the fourth lumbar vertebra, dividing into :
Two common iliac arteries
The heart valve that closes at the time the right ventricle begins pumping, preventing blood from returning to the right atrium, is the :
tricuspid
The inner lining of the heart, composed of smooth, delicate membrane is called :
endocardium
What region is the spleen located in?
Left hypochondriac region
All of the following are parts of the lymphatic system EXCEPT : thyroid, tonsils, spleen, thymus ?
thyroid
The terminal portion of the large intestine is the :
anal canal
Which structure is also known as the “fatty apron”?
greater omentum
The head of the pancreas is located :
in the curve of the duodenum
The sphincter at the junction of the small and large intestines is the :
ileocecal sphincter
The portion of the small intestine that receives secretions from the pancreas and liver is the :
duodenum
The large central portion of the stomach is called the :
body
Mumps occur in what gland?
Parotid
The liver has how many lobes?
two
The glomerulus is a :
cluster of capillaries
Blood is supplied to the kidney by means of the renal artery, which arises from the :
abdominal aorta
The indentation in the kidney through which all structures must pass as the enter or leave the kidney is the :
renal capsule
The portion of the male urethra that passes through the pelvic floor is called the :
membranous portion
The ligament that attaches the ovaries to the pelvic wall is the :
suspensory
The supporting structure of the male reproductive system is the :
spermatic cord
Which two structures are ligated and divided during cholecystectomy?
cystic artery and cystic duct
When performing a D&C which of the following are used to grasp the cervix : Sims, Auvard, Schroeder, Bozeman?
Schroeder
Which of the following items may be used in positioning a patient for Total Hip Arthroplasty : fracture table, bean bag, Wilson frame, Andrews frame?
bean bag
Which of the following is most likely to be used to stabilize a cervical fracture : kirschner wire, hoffman device, steinmann pins, mayfield clamp?
mayfield clamp
If the VII cranial nerve is severed, which of the following is the result : loss of hearing, loss of vision, facial paralysis, impairment of eye muscles?
facial paralysis
What is the proper position in which to place a patient for a right nephrectomy?
left lateral kidney
The parathyroid gland regulates :
calcium
Scoliosis is MOST commonly found in which of the following curves of the vertebral column?
thoracic
What type of incision is typically used for an open cholecystectomy?
subcostal
Which of the following must be done before sterilizing an instrument with a lumen : allowing the instrument to dry completely, ensuring the stylet is still within the lumen, injecting a small amount of distilled water into the lumen, wrapping separately in a peel pack pouch and placed in the tray
injecting a small amount of distilled water into the lumen
Which of the following is NOT a symptom of shock?
A. tachycardia
B. hypertension
C. cold, clammy skin
D. increased respirationsb, hypertension
Hair removed during preparation for cranial surgery should be
A. discarded by the circulator. B. sent to pathology. C. used for potential reimplantation. D. saved because it is personal property.
d, saved because it is personal property
What color is a nitrous oxide tank?
A. blue
B. gray
C. green
D. orangea, blue
Following an abdominal surgery, the surgeon has just closed the peritoneum. Which of the following layers will be sutured next?
A. fascia
B. muscle
C. subcutaneous
D. subcuticulara, fascia
Which of the following statements regarding surgical scrubbing is NOT true?
A. Two accepted methods of surgical scrubbing are the timed method and the counted brush-stroke method.
B. A vigorous 5-minute scrub with a reliable agent may be as effective as a 10-minute scrub done with less mechanical action.
C. Prolonging a scrub beyond the standard scrub length is effective in decreasing microbe counts.
D. When gloves are removed at the end of a surgical procedure, the hands are contaminated and should be immediately washed.
C. Prolonging a scrub beyond the standard scrub length is effective in decreasing microbe counts.
During a laminectomy, disk material is removed with
A. an osteotome.
B. a Kerrison rongeur.
C. a pituitary rongeur.
D. a periosteal elevator.C. a pituitary rongeur.
Which of the following is a type of herniation that occurs with protrusion of the peritoneal sac and its contents (omentum or abdominal viscera)?
A. epigastric
B. umbilical
C. hypogastric
D. femoralB. umbilical
During a C-section, a surgical technologist passes the surgeon a pair of Metzenbaum scissors and Russian forceps. Which of the following anatomical parts is dissected off the uterus and gently retracted prior to uterine incision?
A. ovaries
B. bladder
C. peritoneum
D. broad ligamentB. bladder
A patient undergoing a procedure while under general anesthesia begins to experience muscle rigidity, followed by tachycardia, metabolic and respiratory acidosis, and cardiac dysrhythmias. Which of the following is the patient experiencing?
A. septic shock
B. malignant hyperthermia
C. cardiopulmonary arrest
D. pulmonary embolismB. malignant hyperthermia
Which of the following methods of hospital sterilization does not corrode metal and passes through woven materials like steam?
A. ionizing radiation B. Steris C. glutaraldehyde D. ethylene oxide
D. ethylene oxide
