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Oklahoma Med Mic > Practice Test > Flashcards

Practice Test Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is a potential exit route for an infectious agent?

A. insect
B. kissing
C. mouth
D. vector

A

C. mouth

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2
Q

Infectious agents prefer a reservoir that:

A. becomes a portal of exit
B. is cool and dry
C. meets their unique growth requirements
D. stays warm and moist

A

C. meets their unique growth requirements

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3
Q

Pathogens can be spread by direct contact, which includes:

A. food or water
B. droplets or dust
C. flies and mosquitos
D. touching or kissing

A

D. touching or kissing

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4
Q

Your client has been infected by a bloodborne pathogen. What can you do during a micropigmentation procedure to break the chain of infection and prevent yourself from contamination?

A. block all exit routes
B. destroy the infectious agent
C. destroy the reservoir
D. block the transmission

A

D. block the transmission

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5
Q

Which of the following can be achieved on living surfaces such as skin?

A. antisepsis
B. disinfection
C. sterilization
D. all of the above

A

A. antisepsis

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6
Q

Which of the following destroys spore-bearing microorganisms?

A. antisepsis
B. disinfection
C. sterilization
D. all of the above

A

C. sterilization

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7
Q

Which of the following destroys all organisms except spore-bearing ones?

A. antisepsis
B. disinfection
C. sterilization
D. all of the above

A

B. disinfection

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8
Q

Which of the following destroys the most types of microorganisms?

A. antisepsis
B. disinfection
C. sterilization
D. all methods destroy the same types of microorganisms

A

C. sterilization

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9
Q

While waiting for his client, Robert ate a snack, used the bathroom, then cleaned up some trash that had been left in his waiting area. How many times should he have washed his hands?

A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four

A

D. four

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10
Q

Your task light has a handle that cannot be sterilized. How would you maintain infection control while using this task light?

A. Clean the handle with a 1:10 solution of bleach
B. Do not touch the light during a procedure
C. Spray the handle with a disinfectant
D. Use barrier film on the handle

A

D. Use barrier film on the handle

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11
Q

How should you discard used cotton rounds contaminated with a client’s blood?

A. in an autoclave
B. in a puncture-resistant sharps container
C. in a plastic trash bag
D. in an area set aside for dirty equipment

A

C. in a plastic trash bag

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12
Q

Sterilizable equipment contaminated with blood or body fluids should be:

A. autoclave immediately
B. rinsed or soaked in cold water, cleaned, then sterilized
C. soaked in a 1:10 solution of bleach, then rinsed with hot water
D. washed with hot water and antibacterial soap

A

B. rinsed or soaked in cold water, cleaned, then sterilized

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13
Q

Who must follow OSHA standards for employees who are exposed to blood and body fluids?

A. any employer with at least one employee
B. anyone who has contact with blood or body fluids
C. anyone who works in a medical facility
D. every employee

A

A. any employer with at least one employee

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14
Q

According to OSHA standards, an exposure control plan should:

A. describe which bloodborne disease employees are most likely to be exposed to
B. explain the protective measures currently in effect, such as immunizations, personal protective equipment, and housekeeping practices
C. list all carcinogens, mutagens, teratogens, and toxins in use
D. list the chemical and common names of all hazardous ingredients, including synonyms

A

B. explain the protective measures currently in effect, such as immunizations, personal protective equipment, and housekeeping practices

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15
Q

Medical records, including hepatitis B vaccination status and results of post-exposure test, must be:

A. made public
B. included in control methods
C. kept as confidential records
D. part of the written exposure control plan

A

C. kept as confidential records

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16
Q

Which of the following statements about gloves is true?

A. Gloves should be disinfected after each use
B. Gloves should be worn when you have a break in your skin, such as a hangnail or weeping rash
C. Sterile gloves must be worn during every procedure
D. You must change your gloves if they become torn, punctured, or otherwise damaged

A

D. You must change your gloves if they become torn, punctured, or otherwise damaged

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17
Q

A mask should cover your:

A. eyes only
B. mouth only
C. nose and eyes
D. nose and mouth

A

D. nose and mouth

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18
Q

Personal protective equipment serves as a barrier between ____ and _____.

A

you; your client

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19
Q

Which chemicals are required to have an MSDS?

A. all hazardous chemicals
B. ANSI chemicals
C. chemicals that are flammable or toxic
D. pigments and anesthetics

A

A. all hazardous chemicals

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20
Q

Which section of the MSDS tells you if gloves are required when working with the substance?

A. Control Measures
B. Fire and Explosion Hazard Data
C. Manufacturer’s Data
D. Reactivity Data

A

A. Control Measures

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21
Q

Which characteristic tells you if a chemical’s vapor will sink or rise in the air?

A. lower exposure limit
B. evaporation rate
C. vapor density
D. vapor pressure

A

C. vapor density

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22
Q

Body fluids listed in the CDC guidelines for standard precautions include:

A. bile and lymph
B. blood and tears
C. feces and semen
D. all of the above

A

B. blood and tears

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23
Q

The risk of infection is greatest when exposure occurs:

A. beneath the skin or to a mucous membrane
B. from direct contact with infected blood
C. through multiple vectors
D. while suffering from an impaired immune system

A

A. beneath the skin or to a mucous membrane

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24
Q

When should you use standard precautions?

A. after exposure to another person’s blood or body fluids
B. when a situation might result in contact with another person’s blood or body fluids
C. when dealing with clients you know or suspect to be infected with a bloodborne pathogen
D. when person protective equipment is not available

A

B. when a situation might result in contact with another person’s blood or body fluids

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25
Q

Standard precautions include using the appropriate:

A. barrier precautions, handwashing, and sharps disposal
B. cleaning products, MSDS forms, and control measures
C. first-aid measures, toxicological information, and transport information
D. immunizations, cleaning schedule, and reverse isolation

A

A. barrier precautions, handwashing, and sharps disposal

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26
Q

Which of the following sterilization methods is used for equipment that cannot withstand high temperatures?

A. autoclave
B. dry heat
C. steam sterilization
D. wet sterilization

A

D. wet sterilization

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27
Q

Which of the following sterilization methods is too hot for many plastics?

A. dry heat
B. gas sterilization
C. steam sterilization
D. wet sterilization

A

A. dry heat

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28
Q

Which sterilization method is most commonly used by micropigmentologists?

A. dry heat
B. gas sterilization
C. steam sterilization
D. wet sterilization

A

C. steam sterilization

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29
Q

Which sterilization method requires rinsing with sterile water?

A. dry heat
B. gas sterilization
C. steam sterilization
D. wet sterilization

A

D. wet sterilization

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30
Q

The outermost (top) layer of the skin is made of:

A. a single layer of stem cells on a basement membrane which are continually generated and make their way to the surface.
B. skin cells along with other structures including arrector pilli muscles, blood vessels, fat cells, and hair follicles
C. dead, scale-like cells which are continually shed and replaced by new cells from underneath
D. papillae which contain either looped capillaries or nerve fibers that detect touch, heat, or cold

A

C. dead, scale-like cells which are continually shed and replaced by new cells from underneath

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31
Q

Cholesterol compounds in the skin are changed to ____ when the skin is exposed to sunlight.

A. fibrin
B. lymphocytes
C. melanin
D. vitamin D

A

D. vitamin D

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32
Q

Skin is the first line of defense against:

A. infection
B. inflammation
C. macrophages
D. waste products

A

A. infection

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33
Q

What happens immediately after an injury?

A. Collagen fibers lay a framework for scar tissue.
B. Monocytes being to surround implanted pigments molecules.
C. Pigment molecules are completely surrounded by macrophages.
D. The injured area becomes inflamed.

A

D. The injured area becomes inflamed.

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34
Q

What happens during the proliferation phase of the healing process?

A. Collagen fibers lay a framework for scar tissue.
B. Blood vessels in the area become constricted.
C. The crust is sloughed off.
D. The injured area becomes inflamed.

A

A. Collagen fibers lay a framework for scar tissue.

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35
Q

What happens to pigment molecules during the healing process?

A. They are encapsulated by macrophages.
B. They are carried into the capillaries.
C. They are absorbed by lymph.
D. They become part of the crust.

A

A. They are encapsulated by macrophages.

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36
Q

How long does the maturation phase last?

A. 24 to 72 hours
B. 3 to 5 days
C. 1 to 2 weeks
D. Months to years

A

D. Months to years

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37
Q

Your client has a small, raised, dark growth with even coloration. Which of the following statements is true?

A. Your client has a mole. You should not apply pigment to the mole, but can safely perform procedures around the area.
B. Your client has a mole. You should recommend your client check with a doctor and make sure the mole is not cancerous before proceeding.
C. Your client has a wart. You should not apply pigment to the wart, but can safely perform procedures around the area.
D. Your client has a wart. You should recommend your client treat the wart with OTC products or prescription anti-viral medications before proceeding.

A

A. Your client has a mole. You should not apply pigment to the mole, but can safely perform procedures around the area.

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38
Q

Mr. Walkerhas arrived or his eyebrow enhancement. You notice he has a dry, scaly, reddish patch of skin on his cheek. Which of the following would you suspect he may have?

A. actinic keratosis
B. hives
C. psoriasis
D. shingles

A

A. actinic keratosis

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39
Q

What would you tell Mr. Walker?

A. We cannot perform the procedure today. You should see a physician; you may be having an allergic reaction.
B. We cannot perform the procedure today. You should see a physician; you may have an infectious disease.
C. We can perform the procedure today, but you should have a physician look at this scaly area.
D. We can perform the procedure today. You should be sure to use sunscreen on this dry area.

A

C. We can perform the procedure today, but you should have a physician look at this scaly area.

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40
Q

Mrs. Jefferson has arrived for her lipliner procedure. You notice she has a small blister near her upper lip. Which of the following would you suspect she may have?

A. acne
B. atopic dermatitis
C. herpes simplex
D. keloid

A

C. herpes simplex

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41
Q

What would you tell Mrs. Jefferson?

A. We can perform the procedure today since the blister is not on your lip.
B. We cannot perform the procedure today; you may be experiencing an allergic reaction.
C. We cannot perform the procedure. You are prone to develop this growth whenever your skin is broken, so you are a poor candidate for micropigmentation.
D. We cannot perform this procedure until this area has healed. You should see a physician—if this is a cold sore, you need a prescription anti-viral medication before we try again.

A

D. We cannot perform this procedure until this area has healed. You should see a physician—if this is a cold sore, you need a prescription anti-viral medication before we try again.

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42
Q

A new client tells you she is having cataract surgery in two days. She would like to schedule an eyeliner procedure. What would you tell her?

A. We should schedule the procedure for tomorrow, before your surgery.
B. We should schedule the procedure two weeks after your surgery.
C. We cannot perform the procedure; people with cataracts should not have micropigmentation done on the eyelid or in the lash area.
D. You must obtain a written release from your physician before we can schedule your eyeliner procedure.

A

D. You must obtain a written release from your physician before we can schedule your eyeliner procedure.

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43
Q

A new client tells you she has glaucoma. She would like to schedule eyeliner and brow procedures. What would you tell her?

A. If your glaucoma is under control, we can schedule the procedures.
B. We can schedule the brow procedure, but you must obtain a written release from your physician for the eyeliner procedure.
C. We can schedule the brow procedure, but people with glaucoma should never have micropigmentation done on the eyelid or in the lash area.
D. We cannot schedule the procedure until your condition has cleared.

A

B. We can schedule the brow procedure, but you must obtain a written release from your physician for the eyeliner procedure.

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44
Q

Which of the following diseases and disorders of the eye can be contagious?

A. cataract
B. conjunctivitis
C. corneal abrasion
D. glaucoma

A

B. conjunctivitis

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45
Q

Your client complained that his left eye felt irritated immediately after his eyelash enhancement procedure. You saw a slight amount of swelling and redness in both eyes, which is common after eye procedures. His left eye did not look more red or swollen than his right. A few hours later, he called to tell you his left eye was still irritated. What would you suspect?

A. He may be imagining the pain, since you could not see anything wrong with the eye.
B. He may be in the early stages of glaucoma.
C. He may have conjunctivitis.
D. He may have a corneal abrasion.

A

D. He may have a corneal abrasion.

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46
Q

Which of the following can appear to “lose” pigment after a procedure?

A. blepharoplasty
B. breast reconstruction
C. hypopigmented areas
D. lip implants

A

C. hypopigmented areas

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47
Q

A potential client has a large, raised scar from a previous surgery which he would like re-pigmented. Which of the following is probably true?

A. His scars are still in the healing process and should not be disturbed.
B. He has Gore-Tex or collagen implants and should wait until six months after his surgery to undergo micropigmentation.
C. He has hyperpigmented areas that cannot be successfully covered by micropigmentation.
D. He has a keloid or hypertrophic scar and should get a physician’s release before undergoing micropigmentation.

A

D. He has a keloid or hypertrophic scar and should get a physician’s release before undergoing micropigmentation.

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48
Q

A potential client is having cosmetic breast augmentation surgery next month and wants to schedule an appointment to enhance the coloring of her areolas. What would you tell her?

A. We can schedule the appointment immediately after your surgery.
B. We can schedule the appointment six months after your surgery with your physician’s approval.
C. We should schedule the appointment before your surgery.
D. You should not have micropigmentation in the breast area after this surgery.

A

A. We can schedule the appointment immediately after your surgery.

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49
Q

A potential client has a scar on her arm from a motorcycle accident. The scar is flat and white, and she would like it pigmented to blend in with the surrounding skin. What would you tell her?

A. Hyperpigmented areas cannot be successfully covered with micropigmentation.
B. This scar is a keloid; you should not undergo micropigmentation.
C. This scar is still in the healing process and should not be disturbed.
D. We can try, but the pigment may not be visible beneath the scar tissue.

A

D. We can try, but the pigment may not be visible beneath the scar tissue.

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50
Q

Early tattoos were used as:

A. ornaments
B. symbols of special status
C. punishment
D. all of the above

A

D. all of the above

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51
Q

The earliest use of tattoos to restore a natural appearance was probably in the 1850s, when tattoos were used to:

A. correct scarred lips
B. cover corneal scars
C. disguise lesions
D. enhance eyelashes

A

C. disguise lesions

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52
Q

Tattoos were used to enhance, rather than restore, appearance as early as the:

A. 1850s
B. 1870s
C. 1920s
D. 1960s

A

C. 1920s

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53
Q

Which of the following is one of the disadvantages of micropigmentation?

A. Clients cannot undergo an MRI.
B. Clients must avoid laser procedures to pigmented areas.
C. Pigments may turn grey or black with age.
D. Pigments will disappear within three to five years.

A

B. Clients must avoid laser procedures to pigmented areas

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54
Q

A round facial shape is:

A. balanced
B. curved at the hairline and the chin
C. narrow at the forehead and chin and wide across the cheeks
D. wide at the forehead, narrowing to the chin

A

B. curved at the hairline and the chin

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55
Q

A diamond facial shape is:

A. balanced
B. curved at the hairline and the chin
C. narrow at the forehead and chin and wide across the cheeks
D. wide at the forehead, narrowing to the chin

A

C. narrow at the forehead and chin and wide across the cheeks

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56
Q

A heart facial shape is:

A. balanced
B. curved at the hairline and the chin
C. narrow at the forehead and chin and wide across the cheeks
D. wide at the forehead, narrowing to the chin

A

D. wide at the forehead, narrowing to the chin

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57
Q

Which face shape is considered the “ideal”?

A. diamond
B. heart
C. oval
D. round

A

C. oval

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58
Q

How far apart are the eyes on an “ideal” face?

A. one-half eye-width
B. one eye-width
C. one and one-half eye-widths
D. two eye-widths

A

B. one eye-width

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59
Q

While on vacation in Mexico, you find a pharmacy that sells stronger topical anesthetics over-the-counter than you can buy in the United States. Which of the following is true?

A. It is illegal to bring these topicals into the United States and use them on your clients.
B. The pharmacy is selling illegal or counterfeit medications that are unsafe and should not be used on your clients.
C. You can bring these topicals into the United States but can only use them with a physicians prescription.
D. You can legally bring these topicals into the United States and use them on your clients, since they are available over-the-counter.

A

A. It is illegal to bring these topicals into the United States and use them on your clients.

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60
Q

Your client asks you to recommend a pain reliever for use after his procedure. What would you do?

A. Ask if his physician has instructed him to avoid any pain relievers; then suggest an appropriate medication.
B. Recommended generic drug names (such as ibuprofen or acetaminophen), but do not recommend a specific brand.
C. Suggest that he avoid aspirin or ibuprofen before the procedure to minimize bleeding, but any pain medication is appropriate after the procedure.
D. Tell him you cannot recommend a specific pain reliever; he should consult his physician.

A

D. Tell him you cannot recommend a specific pain reliever; he should consult his physician.

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61
Q

Your client tells you her physician approved acetaminophen use before her procedure, but she forgot to take a dose before her appointment. She has aspirin and a prescription pain reliever in her purse. You have acetaminophen in your office. What would you say?

A. Since your doctor approved acetaminophen, I can give you some of mine.
B. Since you have a pain reliever that was prescribed by your doctor, it should be safe to take before your procedure.
C. Would you like to go to the drugstore down the street and buy some acetaminophen before we begin?
D. You should take aspirin; it will not cause any excessive bleeding taken this close to your procedure.

A

C. Would you like to go to the drugstore down the street and buy some acetaminophen before we begin?

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62
Q

Your client would like to use a prescription anti-anxiety medication before a procedure. What would you say?

A. The topical anesthetics I use are very effective, so it is unnecessary.
B. I can ask my supervising physician to call in a prescription for you.
C. I will call the pharmacy; we have an open prescription.
D. You should see your doctor for a prescription, and be sure to arrange for someone to give you a ride.

A

D. You should see your doctor for a prescription, and be sure to arrange for someone to give you a ride.

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63
Q

The most commonly used topicals include:

A. americaine and novocaine
B. benozcaine and tetracaine
C. novocaine and epinephrine
D. zylocaine and lidocaine

A

B. benozcaine and tetracaine

64
Q

Which topical is the least likely to cause an unwanted reaction?

A. benzocaine
B. epinephrine
C. lidocaine
D. tetracaine

A

C. lidocaine

65
Q

Clients who are allergic to sunscreens may have a reaction to:

A. benzocaine
B. epinephrine
C. lidocaine
D. tetracaine

A

A. benzocaine

66
Q

Which topicals can be safely used in the eye?

A. benzocaine and tetracaine
B. lidocaine only
C. novocaine and lidocaine
D. none of the above

A

D. none of the above

67
Q

Which of the following topicals is long-lasting?

A. benzocaine
B. epinephrine
C. lidocaine
D. tetracaine

A

D. tetracaine

68
Q

Which of the following is the best method for applying a topical to your client’s skin?

A. Apply the medication directly from the container onto the client’s skin, using a swab or brush to distribute if necessary.d
B. Place some of the medication in a smaller container; then use a swab or brush to apply to the client’s skin.
C. Place some of the medication in a smaller container; then use your gloved finger to gently dab onto the client’s skin.
D. Squeeze some of the medication onto a cotton ball or round; then gently dab onto the client’s skin.

A

B. Place some of the medication in a smaller container; then use a swab or brush to apply to the client’s skin.

69
Q

Which of the following methods should only be used after applying topical anesthetics?

A. acupressure
B. aromatherapy
C. cryotherapy
D. hypnotherapy

A

C. cryotherapy

70
Q

Which of the following might reduce your client’s pain and anxiety?

A. Make sure the client does not have a full stomach; procedures should not be done after a heavy meal.
B. Give clients something to hold or squeeze during the procedure, such as a stress ball or stuffed animal.
C. Make sure the client cannot see the tattoo machine or needles.
D. Apply a warm compress or heating pad after the procedure to speed healing.

A

B. Give clients something to hold or squeeze during the procedure, such as a stress ball or stuffed animal.

71
Q

Which of the follow has the lowest start-up cost?

A. coil machine
B. hand tool
C. pen machine
D. rotary machine

A

B. hand tool

72
Q

Which of the following is the most powerful?

A. coil machine
B. hand tool
C. pen machine
D. rotary machine

A

A. coil machine

73
Q

Advantages of the rotary machine include:

A. disposable
B. greatest variety of needle patterns available
C. requires little maintenance
D. silent

A

C. requires little maintenance

74
Q

Advantages of the coil machine include:

A. lower start-up cost
B. no sterilization required if used with disposable components
C. requires no maintenance
D. lightweight

A

B. no sterilization required if used with disposable components

75
Q

Disadvantages of the coil machine include:

A. more difficult to implant pigment at proper depth
B. not suitable for use on thick skin or scar tissue
C. requires more practice to become proficient
D. takes longer to apply pigment to large area

A

C. requires more practice to become proficient

76
Q

Which is the best type of needle to use for micropigmentation?

A. long taper
B. varies based on size and condition of the area to be pigmented
C. large gauge with short taper
D. #12 or smaller

A

B. varies based on size and condition of the area to be pigmented

77
Q

A three-needle group would be a good choice for which procedure?

A. areola repigmentation
B. eyebrow with individual hair simulation
C. full lip color
D. very wide eyeliner

A

B. eyebrow with individual hair simulation

78
Q

A magnum shader would be a good choice for which procedure?

A. eyelash enhancement
B. filled-in brows
C. full lip color
D. thin eyeliner

A

C. full lip color

79
Q

When is it appropriate to re-use needles?

A. after they have been sterilized
B. after they have been checked for damage
C. never; needles should not be re-used
D. only for touch-up work on the same client

A

C. never; needles should not be re-used

80
Q

You are in the middle of an eyebrow procedure. The first brow went well, but halfway through the second, the client suddenly began complaining of increased pain. What would you do?

A. call a physician to provide a nerve block
B. inspect the needles for damage and replace if necessary
C. switch to a smaller need configuration
D. try a smaller gauge needle

A

B. inspect the needles for damage and replace if necessary

81
Q

Tattoo pigments consist of:

A. dry pigments that must be reconstituted with sterile water or saline
B. liquid dyes or inks composed of organic materials
C. solid particles of powdered color dissolved in a sesame oil base
D. solid particles of powdered color suspended in a wetting agent

A

D. solid particles of powdered color suspended in a wetting agent

82
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

A. Pigment placed in the dermis will be pushed out as the cells are sloughed off.
B. Pigment placed in the epidermidis will be pushed out as the cells are sloughed off.
C. Pigment placed in the dermis will be surrounded by macro phages, which will push it out of the skin.
D. Pigment placed in the epidermidis will be surrounded by macrophages, which will push it out of the skin.

A

B. Pigment placed in the epidermidis will be pushed out as the cells are sloughed off.

83
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

A. When the pigment is first placed in the skin, it will appear very dark. It will become lighter as the area heals and the wetting agent evaporates.
B. When the pigment is first placed in the skin, it will appear very light. It will become darker as the area heals and the wetting agent evaporates.
C. When the pigment is first placed in the skin, it will appear very dark. It will become lighter as the pigment is pushed toward the surface of the skin.
D. When the pigment is first placed in the skin, it will appear very light. It will become darker as the pigment is pushed toward the surface of the skin.

A

A. When the pigment is first placed in the skin, it will appear very dark. It will become lighter as the area heals and the wetting agent evaporates.

84
Q

List the primary colors.

A

Red, blue, yellow

85
Q

List the secondary colors.

A

Orange, green, violet

86
Q

Which of the following are tertiary colors?

A. black, white, and grey
B. blue, blue-green, and green
C. red, yellow, and green
D. yellow-orange, blue-violet, and yellow-green

A

D. yellow-orange, blue-violet, and yellow-green

87
Q

What differentiates primary colors from all other colors on the color wheel?

A. They cannot be created by mixing other colors.
B. They are opposite each other on the color wheel.
C. They are neither warm nor cool.
D. When mixed together, they create brown.

A

A. They cannot be created by mixing other colors.

88
Q

Complementary colors are:

A. opposite each other on the color wheel
B. colors that have both warm and cool properties
C. created by mixing a secondary color with one of the primary colors it includes
D. the “anchors” of the color wheel

A

A. opposite each other on the color wheel

89
Q

What color is complementary to red?

A. blue
B. green
C. orange
D. red-orange

A

B. green

90
Q

Mixing two complementary colors together will create:

A. a tertiary color
B. a variegated color
C. brown
D. grey

A

C. brown

91
Q

What is the warmest primary color?

A. blue
B. green
C. red
D. yellow

A

C. red

92
Q

What is the coolest primary color?

A. blue
B. green
C. red
D. yellow

A

A. blue

93
Q

Which of the primary colors has both warm and cool properties?

A. blue
B. green
C. red
D. yellow

A

D. yellow

94
Q

Which of the following complexions would be considered warm?

A. olive (blue-green undertones)
B. sallow (yellow undertones)
C. transparent (red-violet undertones)
D. translucent (blue undertones)

A

B. sallow (yellow undertones)

95
Q

Which of the following complexions would be considered cool?

A. peaches and cream (red-orange undertones)
B. rosy (red undertones)
C. olive (blue-green undertones)
D. olive (yellow-green undertones)

A

C. olive (blue-green undertones)

96
Q

You are analyzing Mr. Napoli’s skin tones in preparation for a brow procedure. Which areas would you examine?

A. face and hair
B. face and wrist
C. hand and wrist
D. throat and face

A

B. face and wrist

97
Q

As a final test, you place a violet drape over Mr. Napoli’s shoulders. What will this tell you?

A. If his complexion looks pink against the voilet drape, he has a warm complexion.
B. If his complexion looks mottled or variegated against the voilet drape, he has a cool complexion.
C. If his complexion looks rosy and healthy against the voilet drape, he has a cool complexion.
D. If his complexion looks rosy and healthy against the voilet drape, he has a warm complexion.

A

C. If his complexion looks rosy and healthy against the voilet drape, he has a cool complexion

98
Q

The top layer of skin is

A. colorless
B. opaque
C. translucent
D. transparent

A

C. translucent

99
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

A. The color of the client’s skin will be added to the color of the embedded pigment.
B. The color of the embedded pigment will be subtracted from the color of the client’s skin.
C. The color of the client’s skin must be complementary to the color of the embedded pigment.
D. The color of the client’s skin will not affect the healed pigment.

A

A. The color of the client’s skin will be added to the color of the embedded pigment.

100
Q

You are applying neutral red in color to a client with blue undertones. Which of the following is most likely to happen?

A. The lip color will look slightly purple.
B. The lip color will look slightly orange.
C. The lip color will look considerably warmer.
D. The lip color will turn brown.

A

A. The lip color will look slightly purple.

101
Q

When mixing pigments, which of the following colors is the most intense?

A. blue
B. green
C. red
D. yellow

A

A. blue

102
Q

Your client wants a medium, warm, rosy beige color for her lips. You have a warm, rosie beige pigment but it is a little too dark for her fair complexion. Which of the following would be the best choice?

A. Add a few drops of white to your existing pigment.
B. Add a few drops of orange to your existing pigment.
C. Apply two or more layers of your existing pigment.
D. Order a medium, warm, rosy beige pigment from your supplier.

A

D. Order a medium, warm, rosy beige pigment from your supplier.

103
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

A. blue + yellow + black = violet
B. red + yellow + white = light red
C. blue + yellow + white = light green
D. red + green + black = dark green

A

C. blue + yellow + white = light green

104
Q

You are trying to decide if your new pink pigment is a warm or cool color. You mix a drop of the pigment with a drop of neutral blue pigment, and it turns to a clear violet. Which of the following is true?

A. The pigment is cool.
B. The pigment is neutral.
C. The pigment is warm.
D. You cannot tell if the pigment is warm or cool based on this information.

A

A. The pigment is cool.

105
Q

Use a ____ color to neutralize a client’s skin tone.

A. translucent
B. complementary
C. contrasting
D. warm

A

B. complementary

106
Q

Your client’s eyebrows have healed with an unwanted ash (green) undertone and need to be made warmer, so you apply a brown with predominately ____ undertones.

A. blue
B. purple
C. red
D. yellow

A

C. red

107
Q

Your client has a translucent complexion (including her lip undertones) and wants neutral red lips. Which of the following pigments would be appropriate?

A. neutral red
B. red with a hint of violet
C. red with a slightly orange tint
D. brownish-red

A

C. red with a slightly orange tint

108
Q

You have applied a translucent warm fleshtone pigment to a scarred area. After healing, the area has retained its pigment and the hue is a good match but the color is not quite dark enough. What would you do?

A. Apply another layer of the same color.
B. Apply another layer of the same color with a drop of black added to the pigment.
C. Apply another layer of the same color with a drop of white added to the pigment.
D. Apply another layer of the same color with a drop of blue added to the pigment.

A

A. Apply another layer of the same color.

109
Q

What are two main methods of maximizing pigment retention?

A. proper application and proper after-care
B. proper pigment and proper needles
C. proper preparation and proper application
D. proper pigment and proper color selection

A

A. proper application and proper after-care

110
Q

Your client’s eyeliner looked perfect when she left your office. One week later she called to tell you it was peeling off in strips. What may have happened?

A. She neglected to use sunscreen on the pigmented area.
B. She used an “anti-aging” product on the pigmented area.
C. You did not implant the pigment at the correct depth.
D. Your needles were too long.

A

C. You did not implant the pigment at the correct depth.

111
Q

Which of the following practices may lead to pigment migration?

A. implanting pigment into the medial or lateral canthus
B. client’s failure to use sunscreen
C. applying pigment to inflamed, swollen tissue
D. use of certain prescription medications

A

A. implanting pigment into the medial or lateral canthus

112
Q

Which of the following should be part of the pre-procedure consultation?

A. credit check
B. needle options
C. medical history
D. pigment selection

A

C. medical history

113
Q

When should the consultation take place?

A. after a deposit has been paid
B. at least two weeks before the procedure
C. before the procedure is scheduled
D. immediately before the procedure

A

C. before the procedure is scheduled

114
Q

Keenan is consulting with a new client. Ms. Belecek, who has requested permanent eyeliner. Keenan has taken Ms. Belecek’s medical history. He asked Ms. Belecek what she hope to accomplish with the procedure and feels her expectations are reasonable and realistic. Keenan described the procedure. They discussed the price, the need for a follow-up appointment, and the appropriate pre- and post-care. Keenan took a photo of Ms. Belecek for her file and scheduled her appointment. What did he forget to do?

A. Ask Ms. Belecek to bring her favorite eyeliner to her appointment so he can match the color exactly.
B. Instruct Ms. Belecek to bring a physician’s release when she returns.
C. Find out about Ms. Belecek’s plans for the immediate future that might be affected by the procedure.
D. Provide pigment samples for Ms. Belecek’s approval.

A

C. Find out about Ms. Belecek’s plans for the immediate future that might be affected by the procedure.

115
Q

What is the purpose of informed consent?

A. gives pre- and post-procedure instructions for the client
B. prevents lawsuits from unsatisfied clients
C. provides a permanent record of all procedures performed on the client
D. shows the client has been informed of the details and risks and has agreed to undergo the procedure

A

D. shows the client has been informed of the details and risks and has agreed to undergo the procedure

116
Q

When is it appropriate to work on a client without a signed consent form?

A. never
B. when you have verbal consent
C. when working on a return client
D. when you have an existing form signed less than one year ago

A

A. never

117
Q

Which of the following is a contraindication to micropigmentation?

A. age 50 or older
B. diabetes
C. mild anemia
D. hormone replacement therapy

A

B. diabetes

118
Q

List five things that should be included on an informed consent form.

A
  • detailed description of procedure
  • statement that pigment is permanent
  • description of follow-up visits, what is included in the price and what is not
  • statement that client understands proper aftercare is crucial for results
  • photo release
  • statement that client is of legal age, sound mind, not under the influence, and legally able to sign contracts
119
Q

Which of the following is NOT a potential contraindication to micropigmentation?

A. history of alcohol use
B. pregnancy
C. history of hypertrophic scarring
D. high blood pressure

A

A. history of alcohol use

120
Q

Which of the following clients must provide a physician’s release?

A. Abby, who is on long-term aspirin therapy
B. Betty, who smokes cigarettes
C. Carole, who was treated for skin cancer two years ago
D. Dennis, who donated a kidney to his brother five years ago

A

A. Abby, who is on long-term aspirin therapy

121
Q

Clients with ____ may need to take antibiotics before a procedure.

A. diabetes
B. hemophilia
C. a history of cold sores
D. artificial heart valves

A

D. artificial heart valves

122
Q

Ms. Wise is interested in eyelash enhancement. She says, “I’ve already had one bad micropigmentation job. I hope this one turns out better.” What would you do?

A. Ask if she is planning to file a lawsuit against her previous technician, and explain that you cannot proceed until her case is settled.
B. Ask why she was unhappy with her previous experience, and try to determine if she is a good candidate for micropigmentation.
C. Question her thoroughly but politely to find out what she did wrong after her previous experience.
D. Tell her that she is probably not a good candidate for micropigmentation.

A

B. Ask why she was unhappy with her previous experience, and try to determine if she is a good candidate for micropigmentation.

123
Q

Mr. DeGeorge wants to have areas of vitiligo on his arm repigmented. Which of the following statements would concern you most?

A. I have high blood pressure, but its controlled with medication.
B. I’m not happy about using sunscreen for the rest of my life, but if I have to, I will.
C. It will be nice to look exactly like I did before the vitiligo appeared.
D. My class reunion is in six months. My skin will be healed by then, won’t it?

A

C. It will be nice to look exactly like I did before the vitiligo appeared.

124
Q

Ms. Nguyen is interested in eyeliner and full lip color. Which of her following statements would concern you the most?

A. I know I’ll be too busy to spend time on makeup after the baby is born, so I want to have this done soon.
B. I want a neutral color that is close to the color of my own lips, but darker.
C. I will talk to my doctor about a prescription to prevent a cold sore flare up.
D. We’re going on an island vacation next year; it will be nice to swim without worrying about my makeup.

A

A. I know I’ll be too busy to spend time on makeup after the baby is born, so I want to have this done soon.

125
Q

Ms. MacDougal has sparse, light blonde eyebrows and would like them to appear thicker and darker. Which of her following statements would concern you the most?

A. I’m a little nervous about this; I’d like to do it in stages if that’s ok.
B. I’m allergic to PABA, so there are some sunscreens I can’t use.
C. If I decide I don’t like it, how long does it take to wear off?
D. I use Retin-A on my face, but not near my eyebrows.

A

C. If I decide I don’t like it, how long does it take to wear off?

126
Q

Why is patch testing controversial?

A. Allergic reactions occur on the second exposure to an irritant, not the first, so a patch test may actually cause a reaction.
B. Colors may darken overtime, making the patch test inaccurate.
C. Good technicians should be able to select a color without the inconvenience of a patch test.
D. Reactions to pigments can occur months or even years after the actual procedure.

A

D. Reactions to pigments can occur months or even years after the actual procedure.

127
Q

When performing a patch test to check lip color, where should you embed the pigment?

A. behind the ear
B. inside the mucous membrane of the lip
C. on the back of the hand
D. on the lip

A

D. on the lip

128
Q

When performing a patch test for allergies, where should you embed the pigment?

A. on skin that will be exposed to sunlight
B. on the back
C. in an inconspicuous spot
D. in the area to be pigmented (such as brow or lip)

A

C. in an inconspicuous spot

129
Q

How long should a patch test for color be allowed to heal before continuing with a procedure?

A. 1-2 days
B. 1 week
C. 2 weeks
D. 4 weeks

A

D. 4 weeks

130
Q

Which of the following is NOT an appropriate pre-treatment instruction?

A. Avoid the use of aspirin or ibuprofen for one week before your procedure, as they can cause excessive bleeding.
B. Do not use chemical peels, tretinoin, exfoliants, or products containing AHAs or other acids on the area that will be pigmented for two weeks before the procedure.
C. If you are having a brow procedure, avoid electrolysis for five days before your procedure.
D. If you are having a procedure done on your face, remove all make up before you arrive.

A

A. Avoid the use of aspirin or ibuprofen for one week before your procedure, as they can cause excessive bleeding.

131
Q

Your client says “I will ask my doctor if it’s okay to take an antihistamine before my procedure to help reduce swelling.” What would you say?

A. Be sure to being taking the antihistamine four days before your procedure.
B. You must arrange for a ride to and from the procedure.
C. You do not need your physician’s approval to use an over-the-counter antihistamine.
D. You should not take any over-the-counter medication before a procedure.

A

B. You must arrange for a ride to and from the procedure.

132
Q

Which of the following is an appropriate post-treatment instruction?

A. Apply sunblock to the pigmented area every day, starting the morning after your procedure.
B. Keep the pigmented area clean, but do not use soap or hot water.
C. Use a warm compress to help relieve pain and swelling.
D. When a crest appears, use petroleum jelly to loosen and gently remove it.

A

B. Keep the pigmented area clean, but do not use soap or hot water.

133
Q

You have just completed an eyeliner procedure on Ms. Nelson. Which of her following statements would suggest she needs more post-treatment instructions?

A. I will apply petroleum jelly to the pigmented area before my shower.
B. I will skip my aerobics class until my eyes have healed.
C. I will not rub, scratch, or wipe my eyes until they have healed.
D. I will throw out my old mascara and start using a fresh tube tomorrow.

A

D. I will throw out my old mascara and start using a fresh tube tomorrow.

134
Q

How should you handle a client who refuses to let you take photos?

A. Draw a diagram of the client’s face, indicating the location of any existing scars or blemishes.
B. Explain that the photos are necessary for your own documentation, and decline clients who will not allow photos.
C. Have the client sign a form releasing you from any liability, since you will not be able to document their condition before the procedure.
D. Write a detailed description of the client’s pre-procedure condition and have the client sign and date it in front of a witness.

A

B. Explain that the photos are necessary for your own documentation, and decline clients who will not allow photos.

135
Q

What is one advantage of digital cameras?

A. easy to use
B. eliminate cost of developing and printing photos
C. no film needed
D. relatively inexpensive

A

C. no film needed

136
Q

What is one disadvantage of instant cameras?

A. extra equipment needed to print photos
B. film may be damaged or destroyed during developing process
C. more difficult to use
D. relatively poor photo quality unless expensive, professional-grade equipment is used

A

D. relatively poor photo quality unless expensive, professional-grade equipment is

137
Q

Which of the following film speeds would be most appropriate for micropigmentation purposes?

A. 200
B. 400
C. 600
D. 800

A

A. 200

138
Q

Which of the following lighting scenarios will produce the best results?

A. Client is backlit with bright light and facing softer light
B. Client is facing a bright, direct light
C. Client is facing a soft, diffused light
D. Client is lit by soft, diffused light coming over the client’s shoulder

A

C. Client is facing a soft, diffused light

139
Q

What should you do if you make a mistake in your notes?

A. Discard your notes and start over; notes should be free of errors
B. Draw a line through the mistake; then add the correction and the date
C. Use a black marker to cover the mistake completely; then add the correction
D. Use correction fluid to cover the mistake; then add the correction

A

B. Draw a line through the mistake; then add the correction and the date

140
Q

Why is it important to avoid complaining about clients in your notes?

A. You may be sued for libel.
B. Your clients may request a copy of the notes.
C. Your notes may be used as evidence if you are sued or investigated.
D. Your notes are a matter of public record.

A

C. Your notes may be used as evidence if you are sued or investigated.

141
Q

List nine items that should be included in your documentation for every procedure.

A
  • date/time of the procedure, length of appointment, time to complete appointment
  • pigment used, color, exp. date, lot number, formula used
  • before/after photos
  • cost
  • machine and needle configuration
  • anesthetic used and how long left on
  • description of client’s skin before procedure including scars
  • how client tolerated procedure
  • any problems encountered and how they were handled
  • client’s comments (before/during/after) and any follow-up comments
  • notes on follow-up appointments
142
Q

List nine reasons people can benefit from micropigmentation

A
  • difficulty putting on makeup
  • allergic to cosmetics
  • does not want to take time putting on makeup
  • must re-apply makeup during the day
  • likes to do activities that affect makeup
  • wants to enhance appearance without wearing makeup
  • enjoys looking their best with minimal effort
  • has eyebrow loss
  • has areas of vitiligo and scarring
  • areolas damaged or removed by surgery
143
Q

Of the following people, who is eligible for certification as a micropigmentation technician according to the Oklahoma Medical Micropigmentation Regulation Act?

  • Ilana is a recent immigrant to the US and has not yet become a citizen
  • Brad is a former registered nurse who license was revoked two years ago
  • Mandy is a 21-year-old who dropped out of high school and is now studying for her GED
  • Leland was charged with a felony five years ago, but the charges were dropped
  • Britt is licensed as a cosmetologist in Texas, but not in Oklahoma
A

Ilana, Leland, and Britt

144
Q

Of the following people, who can perform micropigmentation without any additional training or licensing according to the Oklahoma Medical Micropigmentation Regulation Act? Who must work under the supervision of a doctor or dentist?

  • Elliott is a registered nurse (RN)
  • Gwen is a doctor of osteopathy (DO)
  • Maria has no medical license but has received extensive training outside of Oklahoma and has been working as a micropigmentation technician since 1991
  • Michael is a dentist (DDS)
  • Hope is a licensed cosmetologist
  • Felice is a licensed practical nurse (LPN)
A

Gwen and Michael

Elliot, Maria, Hope, and Felice

145
Q

Which of the following is illegal under the Oklahoma Medical Micropigmentation Regulation Act?

A. covering a surgical scar with a design
B. filling in a scar on the scalp with hair simulation
C. performing work on a minor
D. using non-approved pigments

A

A. covering a surgical scar with a design

146
Q

When is it appropriate to refuse clients based on their medical conditions?

A

When the conditions will affect the outcome of micropigmentation or make it dangerous for them to receive micropigmentation.

147
Q

When is it illegal to refuse clients based on their medical conditions?

A

Simply because they have a medical condition that would not affect their results.

148
Q

You have refused to work on the following potential clients. Which one was refused illegally?

A. Andrew, a pre-teen brought in by his mother, who says other children tease him because of his burn scars.
B. Ben, a middle-aged man who makes you uncomfortable because he practices a pagan religion
C. Catherine, a middle-aged woman who giggles and says “I had to drink three glasses of wine to get up the nerve to come here today.”
D. Delia, a woman in her early 20s who says she has felt depressed and anxious for several months and hopes permanent cosmetics will cheer her up.

A

B. Ben, a middle-aged man who makes you uncomfortable because he practices a pagan religion

149
Q

A truthful advertisement for micropigmentation should avoid which of the following statements?

A. All pigments are FDA approved
B. Permanent cosmetics last several years
C. Technicians must be trained and certified
D. We use sterile equipment

A

A. All pigments are FDA approved

150
Q

List four questions you should answer before you can effectively market your services?

A
  • Who is your desired customer base?
  • Where will you advertise?
  • What is your budget?
  • What cooperative agreements can you form with others?
  • How much should you charge?
  • What makes you special?
151
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

A. Avoid working with plastic surgeons or cosmetologists, since they are your competition
B. Business cards and other printed materials should be bright and glossy to attract attention
C. Do not use client photos in your advertisements if the photo reveals the identity of the client
D. Including white space makes an advertisement more attractive and easier to read

A

D. Including white space makes an advertisement more attractive and easier to read

152
Q

Because your appearance reflects your work, you should always:

A. dress in classic, traditional styles
B. look clean, neat, and professional
C. maintain a cutting-edge style
D. wear full makeup

A

B. look clean, neat, and professional

153
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

A. All of your work should be included in your portfolio
B. Non-verbal communication is not as important as written or spoken communication
C. Your facial expression can say even more than the words you speak
D. All of the above

A

C. Your facial expression can say even more than the words you speak

154
Q

Which of the following is considered a basic procedure?

A. blush
B. eyeliner
C. eyeshadow
D. scar repigmentation

A

B. eyeliner

155
Q

Which of the following is considered an advanced procedure?

A. areola repigmentation
B. brow
C. eyelash enhancement
D. lip liner

A

A. areola repigmentation

Oklahoma Med Mic (7 decks)

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