Practice Test 1 Flashcards
Which of the following backup job types reset the archive bits of the files they back up? Full Incremental Differential Supplemental
A and B. Incremental and differential backup jobs both use the archive bit to determine which files have changed since the previous backup job. The files that have changed are the ones that need to be backed up. The primary difference between an incremental and a differential job is that incremental backups reset the archive bit so that unchanged files are not backed up in subsequent incremental jobs. Differential backups do not reset the archive bit. Full backups do not use the archive bit to select targets because they back up all the files. A full backup does reset the archive bit after the job is completed. There is no such thing as a supplemental backup job.
You are a new hire at Adatum Corp., and this is your first day on the job. You are setting up your workstation, but you are unsure whether you are permitted to install your favorite software on the company’s computer. The Human Resources server has a large library of employee documents. Which of the following is a document that you might want to consult to determine whether personal software is allowed? SLA AUP NDA BYOD
B. An acceptable use policy (AUP) specifies whether and how employees can use company-owned hardware and software resources. AUPs typically specify what personal work employees can perform while on the job, what hardware and software they can install, and what levels of privacy they are permitted when using company equipment. This is the document that will most likely include the information you seek. A service level agreement (SLA) is a contract between a provider and a subscriber. A nondisclosure agreement (NDA) specifies what company information employees are permitted to discuss outside the company. Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) is a policy that specifies how employees can connect their personal devices to the company network.
You are working the help desk when a user calls and reports that she is unable to connect to the Internet. Which of the following steps would you be least likely to perform first when troubleshooting the problem?
Check the configuration of the router connecting the LAN to the Internet.
Ask the user if she can access resources on the local network.
Check to see if anyone else is experiencing the same problem.
Check the user’s job title to see if she is an important person in the company.
A. There are many possible causes for the problem that are more likely than a router configuration error, so this is not something you should check first. Asking if the user can access the local network attempts to isolate the problem. If she cannot, the problem could be in her computer; if she can, then the problem lies somewhere in the Internet access infrastructure. If other users are experiencing the problem, then the issue should receive a higher priority, and you will know for sure that the problem does not lie in the user’s computer. While the user’s job title might not be the first thing you check, it is a political reality that higher ranking users get preferential treatment.
Which of the following is not a means of preventing unauthorized individuals from entering a sensitive location, such as a datacenter? Key fobs Motion detection Biometric scans Identification badges
B. Biometric scans, identification badges, and key fobs are all mechanisms that are designed to distinguish authorized from unauthorized personnel. Motion detection cannot make this distinction and is therefore not a means of preventing unauthorized access.
You are an IT consultant who has been contracted to install new computers on a client’s Gigabit Ethernet network. You want the performance of the new computers to be as good as it can be, so you configure their network adapters to run at the full speed of 1 Gbps and to use full-duplex communication. You test the computers after installing them, and they function well. However, once the computers are in service, you begin getting complaints from the client of extremely poor network performance on the new machines. You return to the site that evening and run some ping tests, but you do not detect any problem. You call in a colleague to perform a packet analysis, and she detects large numbers of packet collisions, late collisions, cyclical redundancy check (CRC) errors, and runt frames. Which of the following could be the cause of the problem? Damaged cables TX/RX reversal Duplex mismatch Incorrect cable type
C. The problem is most likely the result of a duplex mismatch. There should be no collisions at all on a full-duplex network, so the problem is clearly related to the duplexing of the communications. A twisted pair Ethernet adapter, running in its original half-duplex mode, detects collisions by looking for data on both the transmit and receive pins at the same time. In full-duplex mode, however, data is supposed to be transmitted and received at the same time. When one side of a connection is configured to use full duplex, as the new computers are, and the other end is configured to use half duplex (as the network switches must be), the full-duplex communications on the one side look like collisions to the half-duplex side. The half-duplex adapter transmits a jam signal as a result of each collision, which causes the full-duplex side to receive an incomplete frame. Both sides then start to retransmit frames in a continuing cycle, causing network performance to diminish alarmingly. The ping tests do not detect a problem because ping transmits only a small amount of data in one direction at a time. All of the other options would likely cause the ping tests to fail. The solution to the problem is to configure the new computers to autonegotiate their speed and duplex modes.
Which of the following is a wireless topology that does not require the use of an access point? Star Ad hoc Bus Infrastructure
B. An ad hoc topology is one in which wireless computers communicate directly with one another without the need for an access point. A wireless access point is a device with a wireless transceiver that also connects to a standard cabled network. Wireless computers communicate with the access point, which forwards their transmissions over the network cable. This is called an infrastructure topology. Star and bus topologies are not used by wireless networks; they require the computers to be physically connected to the network cable.
You want to create a network in which computers from different departments are assigned to separate virtual local area networks (VLANs). You also want to be able to forward traffic between the VLANs so that each computer is capable of accessing any other computer. Which of the following will enable you to perform all these functions with a single device? Load balancer Virtual router Multilayer switch Broadband router
C. A multilayer switch is a network connectivity device that functions at both layer 2 and layer 3 of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model. At layer 2, the data link layer, the device functions like a normal switch, providing an individual collision domain to each connected node and enabling you to create multiple VLANs. At layer 3, the network layer, the device also provides routing capabilities by forwarding packets between the VLANs. Virtual routers, load balancers, and broadband routers are strictly layer 3 devices that can route traffic but cannot create VLANs.
Which of the following are standard terms used in data loss prevention to describe specific data states? (Choose all correct answers.) Data-on-line Data-at-rest Data-in-motion Data-in-use
B, C, and D.
Data-at-rest is a data loss prevention term that describes data that is currently in storage while not in use. Data-in-motion is the term used to describe network traffic. Data-in-use describes endpoint actions. Data-on-line is not one of the standard data loss prevention terms.
Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) is an encryption protocol that was introduced in the IEEE 802.11 wireless network standards to replace another protocol that was found to be easily penetrated. Which of the following 802.11 wireless security protocols uses TKIP for encryption? AES WEP WPA WPA2
C. Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) is the wireless security protocol that was designed to replace the increasingly vulnerable Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) protocol. WPA added an encryption protocol called Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) that was more difficult to penetrate. However, over time TKIP too became vulnerable, and WPA2 was introduced, which replaced TKIP with the Advanced Encryption Standard protocol (CCMP-AES).
You have been asked by your supervisor in the IT department to test some newly installed cable runs. She hands you the tool shown in the following figure. What is the function of the tool and how do you use it?
Reprinted from CompTIA Network+ Study Guide: Exam N10-006, third edition, by Todd Lammle (Wiley, 2015)
When you place the tool at one end of a wire, it generates a tone that can be detected at the other end.
When you touch the end of the tool to a copper cable, you can detect and measure the electrical current flowing through it.
When you connect the tool to the end of a fiber-optic cable, you can measure the length of the cable run.
When you attach the tool to the end of a twisted pair cable, it tests for crosstalk and other performance characteristics.
A. The device shown in the figure is a tone generator and locator, which you can use to test twisted pair wiring and detect certain basic wiring faults. By connecting the tone generator to each wire in turn and locating the tone at the other end, you can determine whether each wire is attached to the appropriate pin in the connector. This tool is not capable of performing any of the tasks described in the other options.
A multifactor authentication system consists of at least two different identifying criteria, typically falling into two of the following categories: something you have, something you do, something you know, and something you are. Which of the following authentication factors is an example of something you have? A password A fingerprint A smartcard A finger gesture
C. The term something you have refers to a physical possession that identifies a user, such as a smartcard. This type of authentication is nearly always used as part of a multifactor authentication procedure because it is possible for a smartcard or other physical possession to be lost or stolen. A fingerprint would be considered something you are, a password something you know, and a finger gesture something you do.
Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) is a framework for the encapsulation of authentication messages. Used on wireless networks and point-to-point connections, EAP supports dozens of different authentication methods. Which of the following EAP variants use tunneling to provide security for the authentication process? (Choose all correct answers.) EAP-FAST EAP-PSK EAP-TLS PEAP
A and D. Protected Extended Authentication Protocol (PEAP) encapsulates EAP inside a tunnel created by the Transport Layer Security (TLS) protocol. Flexible Authentication via Secure Tunneling (FAST) also establishes a TLS tunnel to protect user credential transmissions. EAP-TLS uses TLS for encryption, but not for tunneling. EAP-PSK uses a preshared key to implement an authentication process that does not use encryption.
At a garage sale, you purchase some 802.11a wireless network adapter cards for desktop computers at a very low price. Your plan is to use them to expand your 802.11g home network. After installing one of the adapters in a computer, you attempt to connect to the network, but you can’t see the SSID in the list of available networks. You try installing a different adapter, thinking the first one might be broken, but the second one does not work either. What can you do to resolve the problem and connect the computer to your network?
Configure the access point to use the 5 GHz frequency.
Move the computer closer to the access point.
Manually enter the SSID in the computer’s wireless network client software.
Nothing. 802.11a equipment cannot connect to an 802.11g network.
D. Wireless LAN equipment built to the 802.11a standard can only use the 5 GHz frequency band. However, an 802.11g access point can only use the 2.4 GHz frequency band. Therefore, the network adapters cannot be made connect to your access point by any means.
Parity is a fault tolerance technique used by disk storage arrays in which an additional parity bit is stored for a specified number of data bits. By using the parity information, the storage subsystem can calculate the values of bits that have been lost due to a disk failure, enabling the system to re-create the lost data. Redundant array of independent disks (RAID) is a type of storage array that sometimes uses parity to provide fault tolerance. Which of the following RAID levels provide fault tolerance by using parity data? (Choose all correct answers.) RAID 0 RAID 1 RAID 5 RAID 6 RAID 10
C and D. RAID is a technology for storing data on multiple hard disk drives, providing fault tolerance, increased performance, or both. The various RAID levels provide different levels of functionality and have different hardware requirements. RAID 5 and RAID 6 both combine disk striping with distributed storage of parity information. RAID 5 enables recovery from a single disk failure. RAID 6 uses redundant parity to enable recovery from a double disk failure. RAID 1 and RAID 10 both use disk mirroring to provide fault tolerance, which does not require parity data. RAID 0 uses data striping only (blocks written to each disk in turn), which does not provide any form of fault tolerance.
You are setting up an 802.11n wireless network using the 2.4 GHz frequency band. You plan to install three wireless access points. Which of the following channels should you use for your access points to avoid channel overlap that can result in interference? (Choose all correct answers.) 1 4 6 8 11
A, C, and E. The 2.4 GHz band used by wireless LANs (WLANs) consists of channels that are 20 (or 22) MHz wide. However, the channels are only 5 MHz apart, so it is possible for channel overlap to occur between the access points, which can result in interference. Channels 1, 6, and 11 are the only channels that are far enough apart from each other to avoid any overlap with the adjacent channels. Channels 4 and 8 are susceptible to overlap.
Your supervisor has asked you to increase the security of the servers on your network. Which of the following procedures can be considered to be server hardening techniques? (Choose all correct answers.) Upgrading firmware Disabling unnecessary services Creating privileged user accounts Disabling unused TCP and UDP ports
B, C, and D. Disabling services and ports that are not in use is a server hardening technique that reduces the attack surface of a server. Creating privileged user accounts that are only used for tasks that require those privileges reduces the chance that the administrative accounts will be compromised. These, therefore, are all forms of server hardening. Upgrading the UEFI or BIOS firmware on a server typically does not enhance its security, so it cannot be considered a form of server hardening.
You are working the IT help desk when a user calls to report that he cannot access the Internet, although he is able to connect to computers on the local network. At the user’s workstation, you run the ipconfig /all command and examine the output. Which of the options is the most likely explanation for the user’s problem, based on the following ipconfig results?
Windows IP Configuration
Host Name . . . . . . . . . . . . : Client12
Primary Dns Suffix . . . . . . . :
Node Type . . . . . . . . . . . . : Hybrid
IP Routing Enabled. . . . . . . . : No
WINS Proxy Enabled. . . . . . . . : No
Ethernet adapter Local Area Connection:
Connection-specific DNS Suffix . :
Description . . . . . . . . . . . : PCIe Family Controller
Physical Address. . . . . . . . . : 60-EB-69-93-5E-E5
DHCP Enabled. . . . . . . . . . . : No
Autoconfiguration Enabled . . . . : Yes
Link-local IPv6 Address . . . . . : fe80::c955:c944:acdd:3fcb%2
IPv4 Address. . . . . . . . . . . : 192.168.23.234
Subnet Mask . . . . . . . . . . . : 255.255.255.0
Lease Obtained. . . . . . . . . . : Monday, October 23, 2017 6:23:47 PM
Lease Expires . . . . . . . . . . : Saturday, November 18, 2017 9:49:24 PM
Default Gateway . . . . . . . . . : 192.168.216.99
DHCPv6 IAID . . . . . . . . . . . : 241232745
DHCPv6 Client DUID . . . . . . . : 00-01-00-01-18-10-22-0D-60-EB-69-93-5E-E5
DNS Servers . . . . . . . . . . . : 192.168.22.114
NetBIOS over Tcpip. . . . . . . . : Enabled
DHCP is not enabled.
The Subnet Mask setting is incorrect.
The Default Gateway setting is incorrect.
The DNS Servers setting is located on another network.
C. The Default Gateway setting should contain the address of a router on the workstation’s local network that provides access to other networks, such as the Internet. In this case, therefore, the Default Gateway address should be on the 192.168.23.0 network, but it contains an address on the 192.168.216.0 network, which is not local. Therefore, the user can only access systems on the 192.168.23.0/24 network. The Subnet Mask setting must be correct, or the user would not be able to access any other systems. Unlike the default gateway, the DNS server does not have to be on the workstation’s local network, so the address shown can be correct. DHCP does not have to be enabled for the computer to access the Internet.
Which of the following are typically examples of the Internet of Things (IoT)? A television remote control A key fob that unlocks your car A smartphone home automation app A remotely monitored cardiac pacemaker
C and D. A home automation app running on a smartphone and a remotely monitored cardiac pacemaker are both examples of IoT devices because they both have IP addresses and use the Internet to communicate with a controller or monitoring station. Key fobs that unlock cars and TV remote controls are typically short-range radio or infrared devices that do not use the Internet for their communications.
When an internal Windows user logs on to an Active Directory domain, which of the following protocols authenticates the user? Kerberos WPA2 RADIUS EAP-TLS
A. Windows networks that use Active Directory Domain Services authenticate clients using the Kerberos protocol, in part because it never transmits passwords over the network, even in encrypted form. RADIUS is an authentication, authorization, and accounting service for remote users connecting to a network. Windows does not use it for internal clients. WPA2 is a security protocol used by wireless LANs. It is not used for AD DS authentication. EAP-TLS is a remote authentication protocol that AD DS networks do not use for internal clients.
You are installing an ADSL router for your company’s new branch office. The router has a switch module containing four Ethernet ports, all of which are assigned to the default VLAN1. When you plug a laptop into one of the Ethernet ports, you can access the Internet with no difficulties. You now need to connect the ADSL router to the company network so that the wireless access points on the network can provide users with Internet access through the ADSL router. However, when you plug the router into a network switch port that is assigned to VLAN4, the switch starts generating “Native VLAN mismatch detected” errors once every minute. Which of the following steps should be part of the solution you implement to stop the error messages from appearing? (Choose all correct answers.) Create a VLAN1 on the network switch. Configure the network switch port connected to the router to use VLAN1. Create a VLAN4 on the ADSL router’s switch module. Configure the router port connected to the network switch to use VLAN4.
C and D. The solution requires you to create a VLAN on the ADSL router that matches the VLAN the network switch port is using. Therefore, you should create a VLAN4 on the router’s switch module and assign an Ethernet port to it, which will be the port you use to connect the ADSL router to the network switch. There is no need to create a VLAN1 on the network switch, because all switches already have a default VLAN called VLAN1. Modifying the VLAN assignments on the network switch is not a good idea, because it might interfere with the existing VLAN strategy in place.
Which of the following steps will not help to prevent war driving attacks from compromising your wireless network? (Choose all correct answers.)
Configure your clients and access point to use WEP security.
Configure your clients and access point to use WPA2 security
Configure your access point not to broadcast its SSID.
Configure your access point to use a longer SSID.
A and D. Changing the length of the SSID will be no help in preventing a war driving attack. The SSID is just an identifier; its length has no effect on security. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) is a security protocol that has been found to have serious weaknesses that are easily exploitable. It is not a satisfactory way to avoid attacks. On the other hand, configuring the access point not to broadcast its SSID will prevent a war driving attacker from seeing the network. Configuring your equipment to use Wi-Fi Protected Access II (WPA2) security will make it difficult for a war driver who detects your network to connect to it.
You have just created a new virtual machine using remote controls provided by a cloud service provider on the Internet. You then install Windows Server 2016 on the virtual machine and configure it to function as a web server. Which of the following cloud architectures are you using when you do this? (Choose all correct answers.) IaaS PaaS SaaS Public cloud Private cloud Hybrid cloud
A and D. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) provides consumers with processing, storage, and networking resources that they can use to install and run operating systems and other software of their choice. In the public cloud model, one organization functions as the provider, and another organization—in this case, you—consumes the services of the provider. Platform as a Service (PaaS) provides consumers with the ability to install applications of their choice on a server furnished by the provider. Software as a Service (SaaS) provides consumers with access to a specific application running on the provider’s servers, but the consumers have no control over the operating system, the servers, or the underlying resources. In a private cloud, the same organization that uses the cloud services is also the sole owner of the infrastructure that provides those services. A hybrid cloud is a combination of public and private infrastructure so that the consumer organization is only a partial owner of the infrastructure.
It is your first day working for a consultant that does network cable installations. Your new boss hands you a spool of Category 6 cable, a bag of little clear plastic components, and the tool shown in the following figure. He then tells you to “get started on fives and tens.” What is your new boss expecting you to do?
Image shows handy tool that has handle for grip attached to metal using screw or bolts. It has hole between metal for holding wire.
Reprinted from CompTIA Network+ Study Guide: Exam N10-006, third edition, by Todd Lammle (Wiley, 2015)
Pull cable runs
Attach keystone connectors
Install a patch panel
Create patch cables
D. The plier-like device is a crimper, which cable installers use to attach RJ45 connectors, like those in the bag, to lengths of bulk cable. This is the process of creating patch cables, which are used to connect computers to wall plates and patch panels to switches. Your boss is telling you to start making patch cables in five- and ten-foot lengths. You do not use a crimper to attach keystone connectors, and the boss has not given you the tools and components needed to pull cable runs or install a patch panel.
Which of the following well-known ports do you use to configure outgoing mail on a POP3 email client? 110 25 143 80
B. The default port for the Post Office Protocol (POP3) is 110, but that is used for incoming mail. The default port for the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP), which is used for outgoing mail, is 25; 143 is the default port for the Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP), a different email mailbox protocol that clients never use with POP3; and 80 is the default port for the Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP), which is not used by email clients.
You are a consultant who has been hired to extend a network by a client that is still running thin Ethernet. Which of the following cable types will you have to bring with you to add thin Ethernet network segments? RG-8 RG-58 RJ45 RJ11
B. The cable type used for Thin Ethernet segments is a coaxial cable called RG-58. RG-8 coaxial is used exclusively on Thick Ethernet segments. RJ45 is a type of connector used in twisted pair cabling for data networks. RJ11 is a connector type used in twisted pair cabling for telecommunications networks.
Which of the following are examples of a packet-switched network connection, as opposed to a circuit-switched network connection? (Choose all correct answers.)
Two wireless computers using an ad hoc topology
A landline voice telephone call
A smartphone connecting to a cellular tower
Computers connected by a wired LAN
A and D. Wireless computers in an ad hoc topology and computers connected to a wired LAN use packet switching. Their transmissions are divided into packets that are transmitted individually and then reassembled at the destination. A circuit switched network connection requires a dedicated physical connection between the communicating devices. In a landline telephone call, a dedicated circuit is established between the two callers, which remains in place for the entire duration of the call. A smartphone connection uses cell switching.
Which of the following protocols does IPsec use to provide data origin authentication by digitally signing packets before transmitting them over the network? AH SSL ESP RDP
A. Authentication Header (AH) is a protocol in the TCP/IP suite that provides digital integrity services, in the form of a digital signature, which ensures that an incoming packet actually originated from its stated source. Encapsulating Security Protocol (ESP) provides encryption services for IPsec. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) is a security protocol that provides encrypted communications between web browsers and servers. Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) is a component of Remote Desktop Services, a Windows mechanism that enables a client program to connect to a server and control it remotely.
You have constructed a network on which all of the computers are connected to a single switch. You then create virtual local area networks (VLANs) on the switch, corresponding to the company’s departments, and add the switch port for each user workstation and department server to the appropriate VLAN. Later, users report that while they can access their departmental servers and the workstations of other users in the same department, they cannot communicate with any of the other departments. What is the problem, and what must you do to correct it?
There is a faulty VLAN configuration on the switch. You must re-create all of the VLANs and configure each VLAN for routing.
VLANs are limited to data link layer communication only. To enable communication between the VLANs, you must install a router or a layer 3 switch on the network and configure it to route traffic between the VLANs.
The VLANs are using different data link layer protocols. You must configure the VLANs to use the same data link layer protocol in order for them to communicate with each other.
One of the VLANs is configured to filter all of the other VLAN traffic for security purposes. You must change the filter on this one VLAN.
B. VLANs are virtual layer 2 (data link layer) LANs defined within switches. As with physical LANs, only devices in the same VLAN can communicate with each other until a layer 3 device, such as a router or a layer 3 switch, is added to the network. Re-creating and reconfiguring the VLANs will not correct the problem. Traffic filters are usually implemented on routers, not switches. Once a router is in place, VLANs do not have to use the same data link protocol to communicate with each other.
The TCP/IP term socket consists of which of the following elements? (Choose all correct answers.) Port number MAC address IP address Subnet mask
A and C. The term for an IPv4 address and port number in combination, which identifies an application running on a specific host, is socket. A MAC address is an address hard-coded into a network adapter. It is not a TCP/IP element. A subnet mask is not needed to identify a host or an application running on it.
You are installing a cable modem to provide your home network with access to the Internet through your cable television provider. The cable modem is a multifunction device that the cable company says provides everything you need for a home network. Which of the following network functions does a home cable modem typically provide? (Choose all correct answers.) DHCP server Wireless access point Broadband router Ethernet switch Proxy server RADIUS server
A, B, C, and D. A cable modem must function as a broadband router to provide access to the cable provider’s network. Many cable modems are also wireless access points, enabling users to construct a LAN without a cable installation. Many cable modems have switched Ethernet ports for connections to wired devices, such as printers and computers. Most cable modems use DHCP to assign IP addresses to devices on the home network. Cable modems for home use typically do not function as proxy servers or Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service RADIUS servers, which are devices generally used on large networks.
Which of the following Domain Name System (DNS) resource records is not used for forward name resolution? PTR CNAME AAAA MX
A. Like A and AAAA records, which are used for forward name resolution, Pointer (PTR) records contain hostnames and IP addresses. However, PTR records are used only for reverse name resolution—that is, resolving IP addresses into hostnames. A Mail Exchange (MX) record specifies the mail server that the domain should use. Canonical name (CNAME) records specify aliases for a given hostname. An AAAA resource record maps a hostname to an IPv6 address for name resolution purposes. All of these records except PTR are used for forward name resolution.
Which of the following are tasks that can be performed by a protocol analyzer that could provide potential intruders with information about the network? (Choose all correct answers.)
A protocol analyzer can decrypt protected information in packets captured from the network.
A protocol analyzer can detect open ports on network systems and launch attacks against them.
A protocol analyzer can display the IP addresses of the systems on the network.
A protocol analyzer can display the application data in packets captured from the network.
C and D. Protocol analyzers capture packets from the network and interpret their contents, which can include displaying the application layer payload. Depending on the application, the payload can conceivably include confidential information, such as passwords. Protocol analyzers also display the IP addresses of the systems involved in packet transmissions. Although this in itself might not be a great security threat, intruders might use the IP address information to launch other types of attacks. Protocol analyzers cannot decrypt the protected information they find in captured packets. Vulnerability scanners detect open ports and launch attacks against them; protocol analyzers do not do this.
Which of the following services are provided by a RADIUS server? (Choose all correct answers.) Attenuation Authentication Assistance Authorization Accounting
B, D, and E. A Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) server, also known as an AAA server, provides authentication, authorization, and accounting services. Assistance and attenuation are not functions provided by RADIUS or AAA servers.
Some users are having a problem connecting to an application server on their local network. You go to their department and start to troubleshoot the problem by testing connectivity using the ping tool at one of the user workstations. You discover that you can ping the server successfully using its computer name, but pinging the computer’s fully qualified domain name (FQDN) fails. As a result of these tests, which of the following can you determine is the most likely source of the problem? EMI DHCP DNS ACL
C. Only Domain Name System (DNS) servers perform FQDN resolutions, so that is likely to be the source of the problem. It is possible to successfully ping a device on the local network using its computer name without the use of DNS. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) cannot be the problem, or you would not be able to ping the server at all. Electromagnetic interference (EMI) would inhibit all network communication, and access control lists (ACLs) have no effect on ping tests.
You have been given the job of devising a plan to provide a 500-node private internetwork with access to the Internet. The primary objective of the project is to provide all of the network users with access to web and email services while keeping the client computers safe from unauthorized users on the Internet. There are two secondary objectives for the project: one is to provide a means of monitoring and regulating the users’ Internet activities, and the other is to avoid having to manually configure IP addresses on each one of the client computers. You submit a proposal that calls for the use of private IP addresses on the client computers and a series of proxy servers with public, registered IP addresses, which are connected to the Internet. Which of the following statements about your proposed Internet access solution is true?
The proposal satisfies the primary objective and both of the secondary objectives.
The proposal satisfies the primary objective and one of the secondary objectives.
The proposal satisfies the primary objective but neither of the secondary objectives.
The proposal fails to satisfy both the primary and secondary objectives.
B. Proxy servers provide network users with access to Internet services, and the unregistered IP addresses on the client computers protect them from unauthorized access by users on the Internet, which satisfies the primary objective. The proxy servers also make it possible for network administrators to monitor and regulate users’ access to the Internet, which satisfies one of the two secondary objectives. However, proxy servers are not capable of assigning IP addresses to the client computers, and the proposal makes no mention of a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server or any another automatic TCP/IP configuration mechanism. Therefore, the proposal does not satisfy the other secondary objective.
Which of the following cloud service models provides the consumer with the least amount of control over the cloud resources?
IaaS
PaaS
SaaS
IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS all provide the same degree of control.
C. Software as a Service (SaaS) provides the least amount of control. Consumers receive access to a specific application running on the provider’s servers, but they have no control over the operating system, the servers, or the underlying resources. The Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) model provides the consumers with the most control, as the provider furnishes processing, storage, and networking resources that the consumer can use as needed. Platform as a Service (PaaS) provides consumers with the ability to install applications of their choice on a server furnished by the provider, but they have only limited control over the server and no control over the underlying resources.
The jumbo frame capability is associated with which networking protocol? Ethernet Internet Protocol (IP) Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
A. Ethernet uses jumbo frames at the data link layer to transfer large amounts of data more efficiently. Ethernet typically restricts frame size to 1,500 bytes, but jumbo frames enable Ethernet systems to create frames up to 9,000 bytes. PPP does not support the use of jumbo frames. Frames are protocol data units associated only with the data link layer, so they do not apply to IP and TCP, which operate at the network and transport layers, respectively.
You are working your company’s IT help desk, where you are required to follow a specific troubleshooting protocol when handling calls from users. In which of the following troubleshooting steps would you create a trouble ticket?
Establish a theory of probable cause
Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventive measures
Identify the problem
Test the theory to determine cause
Document findings, actions, and outcomes
Implement the solution or escalate as necessary
Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and identify potential effects
C. The first step in the troubleshooting protocol involves identifying the problem by questioning the user and creating a trouble ticket. You complete the other steps in the troubleshooting protocol after the trouble ticket has been prioritized.
You are working your company’s help desk when a user calls to report that he can’t access any of the data on his computer. He says that a message has appeared on his screen stating that all of his data has been encrypted by the FBI and that it will be decrypted only after he pays $768 in Bitcoin to an unknown address. The user wants to know if he is responsible for making the payment. Which of the following types of attacks has the user experienced? Denial of service War driving Ransomware ARP poisoning
C. The user has experienced a ransomware attack. Ransomware is a type of attack in which a user’s access to his or her data is blocked unless a certain amount of money is paid to the attacker. The blockages can vary from simple screen locks to data encryption. War driving is an attack method that consists of driving around a neighborhood with a computer scanning for unprotected wireless networks. Denial of service is a type of attack that overwhelms a computer with traffic, preventing it from functioning properly. ARP poisoning is the deliberate insertion of fraudulent information into the ARP cache stored on computers and switches.
Which of the following wide area network (WAN) services provide unequal amounts of upstream and downstream bandwidth? (Choose all correct answers.) SDSL CATV ADSL ISDN
B and C. The word asymmetric in Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL) means that the service provides different amounts of bandwidth in each direction. In nearly all cases, asymmetric WAN services provide more downstream bandwidth than upstream. Cable television (CATV) networks are also asymmetrical. The word symmetric in Symmetric Digital Subscriber Line (SDSL) means that the service provides equal amounts of bandwidth in both directions. Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) is also symmetrical.
