Chapter3 Flashcards
Which of the following is the term usually applied to a representation of network devices, automatically compiled, and containing information such as IP addresses and connection speeds? Network map Network diagram Cable diagram Management information base
A. A network map is a depiction of network devices, not drawn to scale, with additional information added, such as IP addresses and link speeds. In most cases, network maps are automatically created by a software product, such as Nmap, that scans the network and creates a display from the information it discovers. The term network diagram is most often used to refer to a manually created document containing pictograms of network devices, with lines representing the connections between them. The diagram might be roughly similar to the actual layout of the site, but it is usually not drawn to scale. A cable diagram is a precise depiction of the cable runs installed in a site. Often drawn on an architect’s plan or blueprint, the cable diagram enables network administrators to locate specific cables and troubleshoot connectivity problems. A management information base (MIB) is a component of an SNMP-based network management system that contains information about only one device; it does not depict all of the devices on the network.
Which of the following types of network documentation is often overlaid on an architectural drawing or blueprint? Network map Network diagram Cable diagram Management information base
C. A cable diagram is a precise depiction of the cable runs installed in a site. Often drawn on an architect’s plan or blueprint, the cable diagram enables network administrators to locate specific cables and troubleshoot connectivity problems. A network map is a depiction of network devices, not drawn to scale, with additional information added, such as IP addresses and link speeds. In most cases, network maps are automatically created by a software product, such as Nmap, that scans the network and creates a display from the information it discovers. The term network diagram is most often used to refer to a manually created document containing pictograms of network devices, with lines representing the connections between them. The diagram might be roughly similar to the actual layout of the site, but it is usually not drawn to scale. A management information base (MIB) is a component of an SNMP-based network management system that contains information about only one device; it does not depict all of the devices on the network.
Which of the following is not one of the typical heights for devices mounted in IT equipment racks? 1 unit 2 units 3 units 4 units
C. Devices designed to fit into IT equipment racks typically have heights measured in units. One unit equals 1.75 inches. Most rack-mounted devices are one (1U), two (2U), or four units (4U) tall.
The cable plant for your company network was installed several years ago by an outside contractor. Now, some of the paper labels have fallen off your patch panels, and you do not know which wall plate is connected to each port. Assuming that you are working on a properly maintained and documented network installation, which of the following is the easiest way to determine which port is connected to which wall plate?
Consult the cable diagram provided by the cabling contractor at the time of the installation.
Call the cable installation contractor and see if he or she can remember which ports go with which wall plates.
Attach a tone generator to a patch panel port and then test each wall plate with a locator until you find the correct one. Repeat for each port that needs labeling.
Use a cable certifier to locate the patch panel port associated with each wall plate port.
A. A reputable cable installer should supply a cable diagram that indicates the locations of all the cable runs on a plan or blueprint of the site. You should be able to use this to determine which ports go with which wall plates. A busy cable installer is unlikely to remember specific details about an installation performed years ago. Using a tone generator and locator is an effective way to associate ports and wall plates, but it can be incredibly time-consuming and is certainly not the easiest method. A cable certifier can test the cable run for faults, measure its length, and perform other tests, but it cannot specify which wall plate goes with which port, unless you entered that information yourself earlier.
Which of the following IT asset management documents published by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) defines a standard for software identification tags (SWIDs) containing inventory information about the software running on a computer or other device? ISO 19770-1 ISO 19770-2 ISO 19770-3 ISO 19770-4 ISO 19770-5
B. ISO 19770 is a family of IT asset management (ITAM) standards that defines procedures and technology for the management of software and related assets in a corporate infrastructure. ISO 19770-2 defines the creation and use of SWID tags, which are XML files containing management and identification information about a specific software product. The other standards define other ITAM elements, such as compliance with corporate governance (ISO 19770-1) and resource utilization measurement (ISO 19770-4).
Which of the following are places where network wiring connections are found? (Choose all correct answers.) MDF MTBF IDF RDP
A and C. A large enterprise network will—at minimum—have demarcation points for telephone services and a connection to an Internet service provider’s network. In many cases, these services will enter the building in the same equipment room that houses the backbone switch. This room is then called the main distribution frame (MDF). An intermediate distribution frame (IDF) is the location of localized telecommunications equipment such as the interface between the horizontal cabling and the backbone. Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF) and Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) are not locations of network wiring.
A rack diagram is typically ruled vertically using which of the following measurements? Inches Centimeters Units Grids
C. Rack diagrams use vertical measurement called units, each of which is 1.75 inches. Most rack-mounted devices are one (1U), two (2U), or four units (4U) tall.
In a standard Cisco network diagram, what component does the symbol in the figure represent?
Diagram shows three-dimensional square box on which four arrows are drawn in red. Each pair of these four arrows points towards opposite direction.
A switch
A router
A hub
A gateway
A. The diagram symbol shown in the figure represents a network switch. It is not a router, a hub, or a gateway.
Which of the following statements about the differences between a diagram of a patch panel installation organized physically and one that is organized logically are true? (Choose all correct answers.)
A physical diagram is organized according to the floors and rooms where the cable drops are located.
A physical diagram is precisely scaled to represent the actual patch panel hardware.
A logical diagram is organized according to the divisions within the company, such as departments and workgroups.
A logical diagram uses an organization that represents company divisions but does not physically resemble the actual patch panels.
A and C. A physical diagram, in this case, represents the actual physical locations of the cable drops connected to the patch panels. A logical diagram uses artificial division that corresponds to the organization of the company.
A diagram of a telecommunications room or intermediate distribution frame (IDF) for an office building is typically based on which of the following? A hand-drawn sketch A series of photographs An architect’s plan A 3D model
C. IDF diagrams should be based on an architect’s plan whenever possible so that actual lengths and locations of cable runs can be documented. In situations where an architect’s plan is not available, a detailed sketch, drawn to scale, can be acceptable. Photographs and models are impractical for this purpose.
The documentation for main distribution frames (MDFs) and intermediate distribution frames (IDFs) should incorporate details on which of the following elements? (Choose all correct answers.) Power Environment Distances Costs
A, B, and C. MDF and IDF documentation should take into account the power sources available at the locations, the environmental equipment needed to keep the temperature and humidity levels under control, and the distances that the cable runs must span. This type of documentation is typically used for installation and troubleshooting purposes, so the costs of components and services are unnecessary and can be dealt with elsewhere.
Which of the following, originally created for the UNIX sendmail program, is now a standard for message logging that enables tools that generate, store, and analyze log information to work together? Syslog Netmon Netstat Top
A. Syslog is a standard designed to facilitate the transmission of log entries generated by a device or process, such as the sendmail SMTP server, across an IP network to a message collector, called a syslog server. Network Monitor (Netmon) is a protocol analyzer. Netstat is a program that displays status information about a system’s network connections. Top is a utility to display system processes. None of these provide logging services.
At what point in the installation process should patch panel ports and wall plates be labeled?
When the patch panels and wall plates are installed
When a length of cable is cut from the spool
When the cables are attached to the connectors
When the cable runs are tested, immediately after their installation
C. Patch panel ports and wall plates should be labeled when the cable runs are attached to them. Labeling them at any earlier time can result in cable runs being connected incorrectly.
Which of the following is the term used to describe a wiring nexus that typically the termination point for incoming telephone and wide area network (WAN) services? MDF MTBF IDF RDP
A. A large enterprise network will—at minimum—have demarcation points for telephone services and a connection to an Internet service provider’s network. In many cases, these services will enter the building in the same equipment room that houses the backbone switch. This room is then called the main distribution frame (MDF). An intermediate distribution frame (IDF) is the location of localized telecommunications equipment such as the interface between the horizontal cabling and the backbone. Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF) and Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) are not locations of network wiring.
our department is experiencing frequent delays as users wait for images to render using their outdated graphics software package. As a result, you are planning to submit a change request for a new software product at the monthly meeting of the company’s change management team. Which of the following types of information are likely to be included in your request? (Choose all correct answers.)
The possibility of rolling back to the previous software, if necessary
The procedure for installing and configuring the new software
An estimate of the productivity increase realizable with the new software
A list of software and hardware upgrades or modifications needed to run the new software
A, B, C, and D. A change management team typically requires thorough documentation for all requested changes, specifying exactly what is needed; how the change will affect the current workflow, both to the direct recipients of the change and the rest of the organization; and what ramifications might come from the change.
A rack diagram is typically ruled into vertical rack units, which are standard-sized divisions that hardware manufacturers use when manufacturing rack-mountable components. Which of the following is the standard vertical height of a single rack unit? 1.721 inches 1.75 inches 40 mm 3.5 inches
B. A single rack unit is 1.75 inches, or 44.5 mm. Option A, 1.721 inches, is the height used for many components that are one rack unit tall, leaving a small space between components for easy insertion and removal.
The change request for new graphics software that you submitted to your company’s change management team has been approved. Now it is time to implement the change. Which of the following administrative tasks will most likely be the change management team’s responsibility during the implementation process? (Choose all correct answers.) Authorizing downtime Notifying users Designating a maintenance window Documenting all modifications made
A and C. The change management team is usually not responsible for tasks directly involved in the implementation of the changes they approve. Therefore, they would not be the ones to notify users exactly when the change will take place or document the procedure afterward. They would, however, be responsible for providing a maintenance window, during which the change must occur, and authorizing any downtime that would be needed.
Which of the following log types is the first place that an administrator should look for information about a server’s activities? System log Setup log Application log Security log
A. System logs document the server’s startup activities and the ongoing status of its services and device drivers and services. When a problem occurs or the server’s status changes, the system logs can provide information about what happened and when.
Which of the following Windows applications would you most likely use to create a baseline of system or network performance? Performance Monitor Event Viewer Syslog Network Monitor
A. Performance Monitor is a Windows application that can create logs of specific system and network performance statistics over extended periods. Such a log created on a new computer can function as a baseline for future troubleshooting. Event Viewer is a Windows application for displaying system log files; it cannot create a performance baseline. Syslog is a log compilation program originally created for Unix systems; it does not create performance baselines. Network Monitor is a protocol analyzer. Although it can capture a traffic sample that can function as a reference for future troubleshooting efforts, this ability cannot be called a performance baseline.
Which of the following IT asset management documents published by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) provides an overview of the ITAM concepts discussed in the ISO 19770 family of standards? ISO 19770-1 ISO 19770-2 ISO 19770-3 ISO 19770-4 ISO 19770-5
E. ISO 19770 is a family of IT asset management (ITAM) standards that defines procedures and technology for the management of software and related assets in a corporate infrastructure. ISO 19770-5 provides a general overview of the functions provided by the standards and their benefits to an IT infrastructure.
The other standards define other ITAM elements, such as compliance with corporate governance (ISO 19770-1), creation and use of software ID (SWID) tags (ISO 19770-2), and resource utilization measurement (ISO 19770-4).
A rack-mounted device that is four units tall will be approximately what height in inches? 1.75 3.5 4 7
D. The standard unit height for IT equipment racks is 1.75 inches, which is the equivalent of one unit. Four units would therefore be 7 inches.
Which of the following types of documentation should indicate the complete route of every internal cable run from wall plate to patch panel? Physical network diagram Asset management Logical network diagram Wiring schematic
D. The main purpose of a wiring schematic is to indicate where cables are located in walls and ceilings. A physical network diagram identifies all of the physical devices and how they connect together. Asset management is the identification, documentation, and tracking of all network assets, including computers, routers, switches, and so on. A logical network diagram contains addresses, firewall configurations, access control lists, and other logical elements of the network configuration.
Which of the following statements about physical network diagrams and logical network diagrams are true? (Choose all correct answers.)
A physical network diagram is created automatically, and a logical network diagram is created manually.
A physical network diagram depicts hardware devices and the connections between them.
A logical network diagram contains all of the information you would need to rebuild your network from scratch.
A logical network diagram typically contains the IP addresses of network devices.
B and D. A physical network diagram identifies all of the physical devices and how they connect together. A logical network diagram contains IP addresses, firewall configurations, access control lists, and other logical elements of the network configuration. Both physical and logical network diagrams can be created automatically or manually. It is the physical network diagram that contains the information needed to rebuild the network from scratch.
In a standard Cisco network diagram, what component does the symbol in the figure represent?
Diagram shows three-dimensional circle box on which four arrows are drawn in red. Two arrows points towards center from outside while two other arrows points towards outside from center.
A switch
A router
A hub
A gateway
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B. The diagram symbol shown in the figure represents a network router. It is not a switch, a hub, or a gateway.
Which of the following is the term used to describe a wiring nexus—typically housed in a closet—where horizontal networks meet the backbone? MDF MTBF IDF SLA
C. An intermediate distribution frame (IDF) is the location of localized telecommunications equipment such as the interface between a horizontal network, which connects to workstations and other user devices, and the network backbone. A large enterprise network will typically have demarcation points for telephone services and a connection to an Internet service provider’s network. In many cases, these services will enter the building in the same equipment room that houses the backbone switch. This room is then called the main distribution frame (MDF). Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF) and service level agreements (SLAs) are not locations of network wiring.
Which of the following event logs on a Windows server can record information about both successful and failed access attempts? System Application Security Setup
C. When you enable audit policies on Windows systems, you can specify whether to audit successful or failed events (or both), including access attempts. This audit information is recorded in the Security event log. The System, Application, and Setup events logs typically do not record both successful and failed access attempts.
What is the width of a standard equipment rack in a datacenter? 12 inches 16 inches 19 inches 24 inches
C. The standard width of an equipment rack in a data center is 19 inches. Network hardware manufacturers use this width when designing rack-mountable components.
When a service fails to start on a Windows server, an entry is typically created in which of the following event logs? Application Security Setup System
D. On a Windows system, information about services, including successful service starts and failures, is recorded in the System event log. The Application, Security, and Setup logs typically do not contain this type of information.
In a standard Cisco network diagram, what component does the symbol in the figure represent?
Diagram shows three-dimensional square box on which one double-headed arrow is drawn in red. One side of box has six small boxes shaded in red.
A switch
A router
A hub
A gateway
C. The diagram symbol shown in the figure represents a network hub. It is not a switch, a router, or a gateway.
The precise locations of devices in a datacenter are typically documented in which of the following documents? Rack diagram Network map Wiring schematic Logical diagram
A. Datacenters typically mount components in racks, 19-inch-wide and approximately 6-foot-tall frameworks in which many networking components are specifically designed to fit. A rack diagram is a depiction of one or more racks, ruled out in standardized 1.752-inch rack units, and showing the exact location of each piece of equipment mounted in the rack. Network maps, wiring schematics, and logical diagrams are documents that document the relationships between components, not their precise locations.
Which of the following statements about network maps is true?
Network maps are typically drawn to scale.
Network maps typically contain more information than network diagrams.
Network maps must be read/write accessible to all personnel working on the network.
Network maps diagram only the locations of cable runs and endpoints.
B. Network diagrams typically specify device types and connections, but network maps can also include IP addresses, link speeds, and other information. Network maps diagram the relationships between devices, and provide information about the links that connect them, but they are not drawn to scale and usually do not indicate the exact location of each device. Although universal accessibility would be desirable, there are individuals who should not have access to network maps and other documentation, including temporary employees and computer users not involved in IT work. A network maps include all networking devices, not just cable runs and endpoints.
Which of the following RAID levels uses disk striping with distributed parity? RAID 0 RAID 1 RAID 5 RAID 10
C. Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID) is a technology for storing data on multiple hard disk drives, providing fault tolerance, increased performance, or both. The various RAID levels provide different levels of functionality and have different hardware requirements. RAID 5 combines disk striping (blocks written to each disk in turn) with distributed storage of parity information, for fault tolerance. RAID 0 provides data striping only. RAID 1 provides disk mirroring. RAID 10 creates mirrored stripe sets.
While negotiating a new contract with a service provider, you have reached a disagreement over the contracted reliability of the service. The provider is willing to guarantee that the service will be available 99 percent, but you have been told to require 99.9 percent. When you finally reach an agreement, the negotiated language will be included in which of the following documents? SLA AUP NDA BYOD
A. A service level agreement (SLA) is a contract between a provider and a subscriber that specifies the percentage of time that the contracted services are available. Acceptable use policies (AUPs) specify whether and how employees can utilize company-owned hardware and software resources. A nondisclosure agreement (NDA) specifies what company information employees are permitted to discuss outside the company. A Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) policy specifies the personal electronics that employees are permitted to use on the company network and documents the procedures for connecting and securing them.
A server with dual power supplies must be running in which of the following modes for the system to be fault tolerant? Combined mode Redundant mode Individual mode Hot backup mode
B. A server with dual power supplies can run in one of two modes: redundant or combined. In redundant mode, both power supplies are capable of providing 100 percent of the power needed by the server. Therefore, the server can continue to run if one power supply fails, making it fault tolerant. In combined mode, both power supplies are needed to provide the server’s needs, so a failure of one power supply will bring the server down. Individual mode and hot backup mode are not terms used for this purpose.
Redundant power circuits can enable a server to continue running in spite of which of the following events?
A citywide power outage
A server power supply failure
An uncorrected building circuit failure
A failure of the server’s uninterruptable power supply
C. If a server is connected to two building circuits, it can continue to function if the breaker for one circuit trips and remains uncorrected. All of the other scenarios will bring the server down, unless additional redundancies are in place.
Installing an electrical generator for your datacenter is an example of which of the following fault tolerance concepts? Uninterruptible power supply (UPS) Power redundancy Dual power supplies Redundant circuits
B. Power redundancy is a general term describing any fault tolerance mechanism that enables equipment to continue functioning when one source of power fails. A UPS is a device that uses battery power, not a generator. The term dual power supplies refers to the power supply units inside a computer, not a separate generator. The term redundant circuits refers to multiple connections to the building’s main power, not to a generator.
Which of the following Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID) levels provides fault tolerance by storing parity information on the disks, in addition to the data? (Choose all correct answers.) RAID 0 RAID 1 RAID 5 RAID 10
C. Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID) is a technology for storing data on multiple hard disk drives, providing fault tolerance, increased performance, or both. The various RAID levels provide different levels of functionality and have different hardware requirements. RAID 5 combines disk striping with distributed storage of parity information, which provides fault tolerance. The parity information enables the array to rebuild a disk whose data has been lost. RAID 0 uses data striping only (blocks written to each disk in turn), which does not provide any form of fault tolerance. RAID 1 provides fault tolerance through disk mirroring. RAID 10 creates fault-tolerant mirrored stripe sets.
Which of the following RAID levels provide fault tolerance without using parity data? (Choose all correct answers.) RAID 0 RAID 1 RAID 5 RAID 10
B and D. Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID) is a technology for storing data on multiple hard disk drives, providing fault tolerance, increased performance, or both. The various RAID levels provide different levels of functionality and have different hardware requirements. RAID 1 and RAID 10 both use disk mirroring to provide fault tolerance, which does not require parity data. RAID 0 uses data striping only (blocks written to each disk in turn), which does not provide any form of fault tolerance. RAID 5 combines disk striping with distributed storage of parity information.
Which of the following is not a fault tolerance mechanism? Port aggregation Clustering MTBF UPS
C. Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF) is a hardware specification used to predict the approximate lifetime of a component. It does not refer to any type of fault tolerance mechanism. Port aggregation, clustering, and uninterruptible power supplies (UPSs) are all mechanisms that provide fault tolerance in the event of network adapter, server, and power failures, respectively.
Which of the following backup job types does not reset the archive bits of the files it backs up? Full Incremental Differential Supplemental
C. Differential backups use the archive bit to determine which target files to back up. However, a differential backup does not reset the archive bit. Full backups do not pay attention to the archive bit because they back up all of the files. A full backup, however, does clear the archive bit after the job is completed. Incremental backups also use the archive bit to determine which files have changed since the previous backup job. The primary difference between an incremental and a differential job, however, is that incremental backups clear the archive bit so that unchanged files are not backed up. There is no such thing as a supplemental backup job.
Which of the following RAID levels does not provide fault tolerance? RAID 0 RAID 1 RAID 5 RAID 10
A. Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID) is a technology for storing data on multiple hard disk drives, providing fault tolerance, increased performance, or both. The various RAID levels provide different levels of functionality and have different hardware requirements. RAID 0 uses data striping only (blocks written to each disk in turn), which does not provide any form of fault tolerance. RAID 1 provides disk mirroring. RAID 5 combines disk striping with distributed storage of parity information. RAID 10 creates mirrored stripe sets. These three levels all provide fault tolerance.
Which of the following is the criterion most commonly used to filter files for backup jobs? Filename File extension File attributes File size
C. The archive bit that backup software uses to perform incremental and differential jobs is a file attribute, so this is the most commonly used filter type. It is possible to filter files based on their names, their extensions, and their size, but these are not used as often as the archive file attribute.
What are the three elements in the Grandfather-Father-Son media rotation system?
Hard disk drives, optical drives, and magnetic tape drives
Incremental, differential, and full backup jobs
Monthly, weekly, and daily backup jobs
QIC, DAT, and DLT tape drives
C. The generational media rotation system uses the terms grandfather, father, and son to refer to backup jobs that are run monthly, weekly, and daily. The jobs can be full, incremental, or differential, and the terms have nothing to do with whether the backup medium is a hard disk, optical, or any type of tape drive.
You are installing a new Windows server with two hard disk drives in it, and you want to use RAID to create a fault-tolerant storage system. Which of the following RAID levels can you configure the server to use? RAID 0 RAID 1 RAID 5 RAID 10
B. Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID) is a technology for storing data on multiple hard disk drives, providing fault tolerance, increased performance, or both. The various RAID levels provide different levels of functionality and have different hardware requirements. RAID 1 provides disk mirroring for fault tolerance and requires two or more disk drives. RAID 0 provides data striping only, with no fault tolerance. RAID 5 combines disk striping (blocks written to each disk in turn) with distributed storage of parity information for fault tolerance, but it requires a minimum of three disk drives. RAID 10 creates mirrored stripe sets and requires at least four disk drives.
Which of the following types of backup jobs are supported by the Windows Server Backup program? (Choose all correct answers.) Incremental Differential Full Supplemental
A and C. Windows Server Backup can perform full backups and incremental backups. It does not support differential backups, and there is no backup job called a supplemental.
Which of the following media types is Windows Server Backup unable to use to store backed-up data? Local hard disks Local optical disks Magnetic tape drives Remote shared folders
C. Windows Server Backup cannot back up data to magnetic tape drives. However, it can back up to local hard disks, optical disks, and remote shares.
Which of the following is not a type of server load balancing mechanism? DNS round-robin Network address translation Content switching Multilayer switching
B. Load balancing is a method of distributing incoming traffic among multiple servers. Network address translation (NAT) is a routing mechanism that enables computers on a private network to share one or more public IP addresses. It is therefore not a load balancing method. DNS round-robin, multilayer switching, and content switching are all mechanisms that enable a server cluster to share client traffic.
Which of the following mechanisms for load balancing web servers is able to read the incoming HTTP and HTTPS requests and perform advanced functions based on the information they contain? Content switches Multilayer switches Failover clustering DNS round-robin
A. A content switch is an application layer device, which is what renders it capable of reading the incoming Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP/HTTPS) messages. HTTP is an application layer protocol. Multilayer switches do not operate above the transport layer. Failover clustering and DNS round-robin are both techniques for distributing incoming traffic with actually processing it.
Why does performing incremental backups to a hard drive, rather than a tape drive, make it possible to restore a server with a single job, rather than multiple jobs?
Because hard drives hold more data than tape drives
Because hard drives can transfer data faster than tape drives
Because hard drives are random access devices and tape drives are not
Because hard drives use a different block size than tape drives
C. Data is stored on tape drives in a linear fashion. Once you write backup data to a tape, you cannot selectively replace individual files. When you perform a restore job, you might have to restore the most recent full backup, followed by incremental backups, which overwrite some of the full backup files with newer ones. Hard disk drives are random access devices, meaning that individual files can be written to and read from any location on the disk. When you perform incremental backup jobs to a hard disk, the software can restore data using any version of each file that is available. Data capacity, transfer speed, and block size are not relevant.
Which of the following statements about the differences between online and standby uninterruptible power supplies (UPSs) are correct? (Choose all correct answers.)
A standby UPS runs devices using battery power all the time.
An online UPS provides no gap in the power supplied to the devices during a main power failure.
An online UPS switches devices to battery power only during a main power failure.
A standby UPS provides only enough power for an orderly shutdown of the devices.
B and D. It is an online UPS that runs devices using battery power all the time so that there is no gap to the power supplied to devices during a failure. It is a standby UPS that switches devices to battery power during a main power failure. Both online and standby UPSs provide only enough power for an orderly shutdown of the devices.
Which of the following are valid reasons why online uninterruptible power supplies (UPSs) are more expensive than standby UPSs?
Online UPSs enable devices to run longer when a main power failure occurs.
Online UPSs enable devices to run continuously when a main power failure occurs.
Online UPSs are managed devices that can generate alerts.
Online UPSs provide greater protection against power spikes and sags.
B. Online UPSs run devices from the battery all the time, while simultaneously keeping the battery charged. There is therefore no switchover gap when a power failure occurs. Online UPSs do not necessarily run longer than standby UPSs, nor do they provide more protection again power spikes and sags. Both online and standby UPSs can be managed devices.
Which of the following are equivalent terms for the process of combining the bandwidth of two or more network adapters to increase the overall speed of the connection and provide fault tolerance? (Choose all correct answers.) Bonding Link aggregation Clustering Port aggregation NIC teaming
A, B, D, and E. Bonding, link aggregation, port aggregation, and NIC teaming are all terms for the same basic technology, in which the bandwidth of multiple network adapter connections is joined to speed up transmissions. The technology also enables the network communication to continue if one of the adapters should be disconnected. Clustering refers to combining servers into a single unit, not network adapters.
Which of the following statements best describes the difference between the fault tolerance mechanisms disk mirroring and disk duplexing?
Disk mirroring enables a server to survive the failure of a disk drive.
Disk duplexing enables a server to survive the failure of a disk controller.
Disk duplexing enables a server to survive a failure of a disk drive or a disk controller.
Disk duplexing enables a server to survive a failure of a disk drive or a disk controller.
C. As with disk mirroring, disk duplexing uses multiple hard disk drives to store duplicate copies of all data. However, disk duplexing calls for each disk to be connected to a separate controller so that the data remains available despite a disk failure or a controller failure.
A network load balancing cluster is made up of multiple computers that function as a single entity. Which of the following terms is used to describe an individual computer in a load balancing cluster? Node Host Server Box
A. In a network load balancing cluster, each computer is referred to as a host. Other types of clusters use other terms. For example, in a failover cluster, each computer is called a node.
If you back up your network by performing a full backup every Wednesday at 6 p.m. and differential backups in the evening on the other six days of the week, how many jobs would be needed to completely restore a computer with a hard drive that failed on a Tuesday at noon? One Two Six Seven
B. A differential backup is a job that backs up all the files that have changed since the last full backup. Therefore, to restore a system that failed on Tuesday at noon, you would have to restore the most recent full backup from the previous Wednesday and the most recent differential from Monday.
Which of the following is an element of high availability systems that enables them to automatically detect problems and react to them? Backups Snapshots Failover Cold sites
C. Highly available systems often have redundant components that enable them to continue operating even after a failure of a hard disk, server, or other component. Backups, snapshots, and cold sites can all contribute to a system’s high availability, but they do not function automatically.
Which of the following networking concepts frequently use virtual IP addresses to provide high availability? (Choose all correct answers.) Clustering Load balancing Network address translation (NAT) NIC teaming
A and B. A high availability virtual IP address implementation is when multiple servers are identified by a single address, enabling all of the servers to receive incoming client traffic. In the case of server clustering and network load balancing arrangements, the cluster itself has a unique name and IP address, separate from those of the individual servers. Clients address themselves to the cluster, not to one of the servers in the cluster. NAT is not a high availability technology, and NIC teaming does not use virtual IP addresses.
Which of the following disaster recovery mechanisms can be made operational in the least amount of time? A cold site A warm site A hot site All of the options are the same.
C. Cold, warm, and hot backup sites differ in the hardware and software they have installed. A cold site is just a space at a remote location. The hardware and software must be procured and installed before the network can be restored. It is therefore the least expensive and takes the most time. A warm site has hardware in place that must be installed and configured. A hot site has all of the necessary hardware installed and configured. A warm site is more expensive than a cold site, and a hot site is the most expensive and takes the least amount of time to be made operational.
Which of the following terms defines how long it will take to restore a server from backups if a complete system failure occurs? RPO RTO BCP MIB
B. The recovery time objective (RTO) specifies the amount of time needed to restore a server from the most recent backup if it should fail. This time interval depends on the amount of data involved and the speed of the backup medium. A recovery point objective (RPO) specifies how much data is likely to be lost if a restore from backups should be necessary. This figure is based on the frequency of the backups and the amount of new data generated by the system. Business contingency planning (BCP) is an umbrella term for procedures enacted to keep the organization functioning in the event of a disaster. A management information base (MIB) is a database used by Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) systems.
If you back up your network by performing a full backup every Wednesday at 6 p.m. and incremental backups in the evening of the other days of the week, how many jobs would be needed to completely restore a computer with a hard drive that failed on a Monday at noon? One Two Five Six
C. An incremental backup is a job that backs up all of the files that have changed since the last backup of any kind. Therefore, to restore a system that failed on Monday at noon, you would have to restore the most recent full backup from the previous Wednesday and the incrementals from Thursday, Friday, Saturday, and Sunday.
Which of the following elements would you typically not expect to find in a service level agreement (SLA) between an Internet service provider (ISP) and a subscriber?
A definition of the services to be provided by the ISP
A list of specifications for the equipment to be provided by the ISP
The types and schedule for the technical support to be provided by the ISP
The types of applications that the subscriber will use when accessing the ISP’s services
D. An ISP provides subscribers with access to the Internet. The applications that the subscriber uses on the Internet are typically not part of the SLA. An SLA does typically specify exactly what services the ISP will supply, what equipment the ISP will provide, and the technical support services the ISP will furnish as part of the agreement.
How does an autochanger increase the overall storage capacity of a backup solution?
By compressing data before it is stored on the medium
By automatically inserting media into and removing it from a drive
By running a tape drive at half its normal speed
By writing two tracks at once onto a magnetic tape
B. An autochanger is a robotic device containing one or more removable media drives, such as magnetic tape or optical disk drives. The robotic mechanism inserts and removes media cartridges automatically so that a backup job can span multiple cartridges, increasing its overall capacity.
For a complete restore of a computer that failed at noon on Tuesday, how many jobs would be needed if you performed full backups to tape at 6 a.m. every Wednesday and Saturday and incremental backups to tape at 6 a.m. every other day? One Two Three Four
D. An incremental backup is a job that backs up all of the files that have changed since the last backup of any kind. Therefore, to restore a system that failed on Tuesday at noon, you would have to restore the most recent full backup from the previous Saturday and the incrementals from Sunday, Monday, and Tuesday morning.
If you have a server with dual power supplies, both of which are connected to a single UPS, with a building power circuit connected to a backup generator, which of the following failures can the server survive and keep running indefinitely? (Choose all correct answers.) Failure of one server power supply Failure of the UPS Failure of the building power circuit Failure of the building backup generator
A and D. If one of the server’s power supplies fails, the other will continue to function. If the building’s backup generator fails, the server will continue to run as long as the building still has outside power. If the UPS fails, the server will go down. If the breaker for the building power circuit trips, the server will run only as long as the UPS battery holds out.
If you have a server with dual power supplies, one of which is plugged in a single UPS and the other into wall socket with a surge protector, and the building’s power circuit is connected to a backup generator, which of the following failures can the server survive and keep running indefinitely? (Choose all correct answers.) Failure of one server power supply Failure of the UPS Failure of the building power circuit Failure of the building backup generator
A, B, and D. If one of the server’s power supplies fails, the other will continue to function. If the UPS fails, the server will continue to using the power supply plugged into the wall socket. If the building’s backup generator fails, the server will continue to run as long as the building still has outside power. If the breaker for the building power circuit trips, the server will run only as long as the UPS battery holds out.
If you have a server with dual power supplies, each of which is connected to a separate UPS, with each UPS connected to a separate building power circuit connected to a backup generator, which of the following failures can the server survive and keep running indefinitely? (Choose all correct answers.) Failure of one server power supply Failure of one UPS Failure of one building power circuit Failure of the building backup generator
A, B, C, and D. If one of the server’s power supplies fails, the other will continue to function. If one of the UPSs fails, the server will continue to run using the other. If one of the building power circuit breakers trips, the server will continue to run using the other one. If the building’s backup generator fails, the server will continue to run as long as the building still has outside power.
You have just completed negotiating an annual contract with a provider to furnish your company with cloud services. As part of the contract, the provider has agreed to guarantee that the services will be available 99.9 percent of the time, around the clock, seven days per week. If the services are unavailable more than 0.1 percent of the time, your company is due a price adjustment. Which of the following terms describes this clause of the contract? SLA MTBF AUP MTTR
A. A service level agreement (SLA) is a contract between a provider and a subscriber that specifies the percentage of time that the contracted services are available. Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF) is a hardware specification that estimates how long a particular component can be expected to function. Acceptable use policies (AUPs) specify whether and how employees can utilize company-owned hardware and software resources. Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) specifies the average time it will take to repair a specific hardware company when it malfunctions.
Which of the following disaster recovery mechanisms is the least expensive to implement? A cold site. A warm site. A hot site. All of the options cost the same.
A. Cold, warm, and hot backup sites differ in the hardware and software they have installed. A cold site is just a space at a remote location. The hardware and software must be procured and installed before the network can be restored. It is therefore the least expensive. A warm site has hardware in place that must be installed and configured. A hot site has all of the necessary hardware installed and configured. A warm site is more expensive than a cold site, and a hot site is the most expensive.
The technical support clause of a service level agreement will typically include which of the following elements? (Choose all correct answers.)
Whether the provider will provide on-site, telephone, or online support
The time service for responses to support calls
The percentage of time that the service is guaranteed to be available
The amount of support that will be provided and the costs for additional support
A, B, and D. The technical support clause of an SLA typically defines the type of support that the provider will furnish, the time service for support, and the amount of support that is included in the contract, as well as the cost for additional support. An SLA will typically guarantee service ability in the form of a percentage, but this refers to problems at the provider’s end and is not a customer technical support matter.
Which of the following statements about port aggregation is not true?
All of the aggregated ports use the same MAC address.
Port aggregation can be a fault tolerance mechanism.
Aggregating ports increases network throughput.
Port aggregation provides load balancing.
D. Load balancing refers to the distribution of traffic between two or more channels. Port aggregation combines ports into a single logical channel with a single MAC address and provides greater throughput. Port aggregation also provides fault tolerance in the event of a port failure.
Which of the following can be provided by clustering servers? Fault tolerance Load balancing Failover All of the above
D. A cluster is a group of computers configured with the same application that function as a single unit. The cluster can function as a fault tolerance mechanism by failing over from one server to the next, when necessary, or provide load balancing by distributing traffic among the servers.
Which of the following RAID levels provides fault tolerance with the smallest amount of usable disk space? (Choose all correct answers.) RAID 0 RAID 1 RAID 5 RAID 10
B and D. Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID) is a technology for storing data on multiple hard disk drives, providing fault tolerance, increased performance, or both. The various RAID levels provide different levels of functionality and have different hardware requirements. RAID 1 provides disk mirroring, and RAID 10 creates mirrored stripe sets. Both provide fault tolerance by maintaining two copies of every stored file, for a usable disk space percentage of 50 percent. Some mirroring configurations store more than two copies of each file, for even less usable space. RAID 0 provides data striping only, with no fault tolerance. RAID 5 combines disk striping (blocks written to each disk in turn) with distributed storage of parity information, for fault tolerance with a usable disk space percentage of at least 66 percent.
Which of the following specifications would you most want to examine when comparing hard disk models for your new RAID array? MTBF SLA AUP MTTR
A. Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF) specifies how long you can expect a device to run before it malfunctions. For a hard disk, this specification indicates the life expectancy of the device. A service level agreement (SLA) and an accepted use policy (AUP) are not specifications associated with hard disk drives. Mean Time To Repair (MTTP) can conceivably be specified for a hard disk, but hard disk drives in a RAID array are typically replaced, not repaired.
When you configure NIC teaming on a server with two network adapters in an active/ passive configuration, which of the following services is provided? Load balancing Fault tolerance Server clustering Traffic shaping
B. NIC teaming enables you to combine the functionality of two network interface cards (NIC) in one connection. However, when you configure a NIC team to use an active/passive configuration, one of the network adapters remains idle and functions as a fault tolerance mechanism. If the other NIC should fail, the passive NIC becomes active. In this configuration, NIC teaming does not provide load balancing, server clustering, or traffic shaping.
Which of the following is not a load balancing mechanism? NIC teaming Server clustering DNS round robin RAID 1
D. Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID) level 1 is a fault tolerance mechanism that is also known as disk mirroring. A storage subsystem writes data to two or more disks at the same time so that if a disk fails, the data remains available. Because data is written to the disks at the same time, this RAID level does not provide load balancing. NIC teaming balances a network traffic load among two or more NICs, whereas server clustering and DNS round-robin balance a traffic load among multiple servers.
hich of the following describes the difference between cold, warm, and hot backup sites?
Whether the backup site is owned, borrowed, or rented
The age of the most recent backup stored at the site
The cost of the hardware used at the site
The time needed to get the site up and running
D. Cold, warm, and hot backup sites are a disaster recovery mechanism that enables a network to be activated at a remote location when a catastrophe occurs. The temperature refers to the sites readiness to assume the role of the network. A cold site is just a space at a remote location. The hardware and software must be procured and installed before the network can be restored. A warm site has hardware in place that must be installed and configured. It takes less time to restore the network than at a cold site, but more than at a hot site. A hot site has all of the necessary hardware installed and configured. The network can go live as soon as the most recent data is restored.
Which of the following storage techniques prevents version skew from occurring during a system backup? Incrementals Differentials Iterations Snapshots
D. Version skew can occur when a data set changes while a system backup is running. A file written to a directory that has already been backed up will not appear on the backup media, even though the job might still be running. This can result in unprotected files, or worse, data corruption. A snapshot is a read-only copy of a data set taken at a specific moment in time. By creating a snapshot and then backing it up, you can be sure that no data corruption has occurred due to version skew. Incrementals and differentials are types of backup jobs, and iteration is not a specific storage technology.
Which of the following is a term for a read-only copy of a data set made at a specific moment in time? Snapshot Incremental Hot site Differential
A. A snapshot is a read-only copy of a data set taken at a specific moment in time. By creating a snapshot and then backing it up, you can be sure that no data corruption has occurred due to version skew. A hot site is an alternative network location in which all hardware and software is installed and ready. Incrementals and differentials are types of backup jobs.
Which of the following processes scans multiple computers on a network for a particular open TCP or UDP port? Port scanning War driving Port sweeping Bluejacking
C. Port scanning identifies open ports on a single computer, whereas port sweeping scans multiple computers for a single open port. War driving and bluejacking are methods of attacking wireless networks.
hich of the following statements best explains the difference between a protocol analyzer and a sniffer?
Analyzers examine the contents of packets, whereas sniffers analyze traffic trends.
Analyzers are software products, whereas sniffers are hardware products.
Analyzers connect to wired networks, whereas sniffers analyze wireless traffic.
There is no difference between analyzers and sniffers.
A. The difference between analyzers and sniffers is that analyzers read the internal contents of the packets they capture, parse the individual data units, and display information about each of the protocols involved in the creation of the packet. Sniffers look for trends and patterns in the network traffic without examining the contents of each packet. Both analyzers and sniffers can be implemented as hardware or software. Analyzers and sniffers are available for wired and wireless networks.
