Chapter1 Flashcards

1
Q
Which of the following pairs of well-known ports are the default values you would use to configure a POP3 email client?
110 and 25
143 and 25
110 and 143
80 and 110
25 and 80
A

A. The default port for the Post Office Protocol (POP3) is 110. The default port for the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP), the other protocol used by email clients, is 25. Port 143 is the default for the Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP), a different email mailbox protocol that clients never use with POP3. Port 80 is the default for the Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP), which is not used by email clients.

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2
Q
Which of the following server applications use two well-known port numbers during a typical transaction?
NTP
SNMP
HTTP
FTP
A

D. The File Transfer Protocol (FTP) uses two port numbers. It uses the first, port 21, for a control connection that remains open during the entire client/server session. The second port, 20, is for a data connection that opens only when the protocol is actually transferring a file between the client and the server. Network Time Protocol (NTP), Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP), and Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) all use a single port on the server.

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3
Q
Which of the following protocols does the Ping utility use to exchange messages with another system?
UDP
TCP
ICMP
IGMP
A

. Ping uses the Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) to exchange messages with other systems. ICMP is also used to return error messages to sending systems. The User Datagram Protocol (UDP) and the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) are both transport layer protocols that carry application layer data; Ping does not use either one. The Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) is used to create multicast groups; Ping does not use it.

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4
Q
Which of the following components does the port number in a transport layer protocol header identify?
A transport layer protocol
An application
A gateway
A proxy server
A

B. The port numbers specified in a transport layer protocol header identify the application that generated the data in the packet or the application that will receive the data. Port numbers do not identify transport layer protocols, gateways, or proxy servers.

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5
Q

Which of the following organizations is responsible for assigning the well-known port numbers used in transport layer protocol headers?
Institute for Electronic and Electrical Engineers (IEEE)
Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA)
Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF)
International Organization for Standardization (ISO)

A

B. The IANA assigns values for well-known port numbers. The IEEE publishes Ethernet standards, among many others. The IETF develops standards for Internet technologies. The ISO developed the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model.

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6
Q
A client on a TCP/IP network is attempting to establish a session with a server. Which of the following correctly lists the order of Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) session establishment messages?
SYN, ACK, SYN, ACK
SYN, SYN, ACK, ACK
SYN/ACK, SYN/ACK
SYN, SYN/ACK, ACK
A

D. The TCP connection establishment exchange is a three-way handshake. The first frame contains a SYN message from the client, the second frame contains a SYN/ACK message from the server, and the last frame contains an ACK message from the client.

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7
Q
Which of the following is the default well-known port number for the Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) used for web client/server communications?
22
20
80
1720
A

C. Port 80 is the default well-known port for HTTP. Port 22 is for the Secure Shell (SSH) protocol, port 20 is for File Transfer Protocol (FTP), and 1720 is for the H.323 audio/video-conferencing protocol.

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8
Q
The secured version of the Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTPS) uses a different well-known port from the unsecured version. Which of the following ports is used by HTTPS by default?
25
80
110
443
A

D. The well-known port for HTTPS is 443. Port 25 is for the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP), port 80 is for unsecured HTTP, and port 110 is for the Post Office Protocol (POP3).

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9
Q
Which of the following Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) control bits is set to 1 to initiate the termination of a session?
SYN
URG
FIN
END
PSH
A

C. The termination phase of a TCP connection begins when either the client or the server sends a message containing the FIN control bit with a value of 1. The other control bits listed have nothing to do with the connection termination procedure, and there is no END bit.

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10
Q
What field in the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) Option subheader specifies the size of the largest segment a system can receive?
MSS
Window
MMS
WinMS
A

A. The Maximum Segment Size (MSS) field in the TCP Options subheader specifies the size (in bytes) of the largest segment a system can receive. The Window field indicates the amount of data (in bytes) that the receiver can accept. There are no MMS or WinMS fields in a TCP header.

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11
Q
What is the term for the combination of an IPv4 address and a port number, as in the following example: 192.168.1.3:23?
Socket
OUI
Well-known port
Network address
Domain
A

A. The term for an IPv4 address and port number in combination is socket. An organizationally unique identifier (OUI) identifies a manufacturer of networking hardware. A well-known port is a port number assigned to a specific application. A network address is the network identifier part of an IP address. A domain is a group of computers and other resources.

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12
Q
Which of the following protocols generate messages that are carried directly within Internet Protocol (IP) datagrams, with no intervening transport layer protocol? (Choose all correct answers.)
ICMP
IGMP
SMTP
SNMP
A

A and B. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) and Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) are unusual in that they generate messages that are encapsulated directly within IP datagrams. Nearly all of the other TCP/IP protocols, including Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) and Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP), are encapsulated within one of the transport layer protocols—User Datagram Protocol (UDP) or Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)—which is encapsulated in turn within an IP datagram.

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13
Q
Which of the following protocols is used to exchange directory service information?
RDP
LDAP
SNMP
SMB
A

B. The Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) is an application layer protocol used for managing and accessing information stored in directory services. Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) is used to establish a graphical remote control session with another computer. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is used to carry information gathered by management agents distributed around a network to a central management server. Server Message Block (SMB) is the primary file sharing protocol used by Windows systems.

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14
Q
Which of the following is the primary application layer protocol used by web browsers to communicate with web servers?
HTTP
HTML
SMTP
FTP
A

A. The Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is the primary protocol used for web client/server communications. Hypertext Markup Language is a coding language used to create web content. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) and File Transfer Protocol (FTP) can both be used in web communications, but neither is the primary protocol.

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15
Q
Which of the following protocols appears on the network as a service that client computers use to resolve names into IP addresses?
DHCP
BOOTP
DNS
SNMP
A

C. The Domain Name System (DNS) is a protocol that computers on a TCP/IP network use to resolve host and domain names into the IP addresses they need to communicate. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Bootstrap Protocol (BOOTP) are both IP address allocation protocols, and Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) carries information gathered by agents to a central management console.

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16
Q
Which of the following protocols use(s) the term datagram to describe the data transfer unit it creates? (Choose all correct answers.)
Ethernet
IP
TCP
UDP
A

B and D. The term datagram is typically used by protocols offering connectionless delivery service. The two main connectionless protocols in the TCP/IP suite are the Internet Protocol (IP) and the User Datagram Protocol (UDP), both of which use the term datagram. Ethernet uses the term frame, and Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) uses segment.

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17
Q

What is the native file sharing protocol used on all Microsoft Windows operating systems?
Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
Network File System (NFS)
File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
Server Message Block (SMB)
Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

A

D. The default file sharing protocol used on all Windows operating systems is SMB. HTTP is the native protocol used by web clients and servers. NFS is the native file sharing protocol used on Unix/Linux networks. FTP is a protocol used for transferring files from one system to another. LDAP is a protocol for transmitting directory service information.

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18
Q
When analyzing captured TCP/IP packets, which of the following control bits must you look for in the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) header to determine whether the receiving host has successfully received the sending host’s data?
ACK
FIN
PSH
SYN
URG
A

A. The receiving host uses the ACK bit to notify the sending host that it has successfully received data. The other control bits are not used to acknowledge receipt of information.

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19
Q
Which of the following terms describes the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) exchange that establishes a connection prior to the transmission of any data?
Synchronization
Initialization exchange
Connection establishment
Three-way handshake
A

D. Two systems establishing a TCP connection exchange three messages before they begin transmitting data. The exchange of these synchronization messages is referred to as a three-way handshake. The other terms listed are not formally used to describe this exchange.

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20
Q
Alice has been instructed to install 100 Windows workstations, and she is working on automating the process by configuring the workstations to use PXE boots. Each workstation therefore must obtain an IP address from a DHCP server and download a boot image file from a TFTP server. Which of the following well-known ports must Alice open on the firewall separating the workstations from the servers? (Choose all correct answers.)
65
66
67
68
69
A

C, D, and E. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) servers use port numbers 67 and 68. The Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) uses port number 69. Neither protocol uses port 65 or 66.

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21
Q

Which of the following explanations best describes the function of a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) or User Datagram Protocol (UDP) port number?
The port number indicates to the receiver that the sender can activate a specific port only.
The port number is used by both the sender and the receiver to identify the application that generated the information in the datagram.
The port number is used only by the receiver to indicate the application process running on the sender.
The port number is used by both the sender and the receiver to negotiate a well-known server port for the communicating processes.

A

B. TCP ports and UDP ports identify the application protocol or process that generated the information in a datagram. Client ports are chosen randomly from the range 1024 through 65,534. Server ports are well-known and are chosen from the range 1 through 1023.

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22
Q
What is the valid range of numbers for the ephemeral client ports used by the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and User Datagram Protocol (UDP)?
1023 through 65534
1 through 1024
49152 through 65535
1024 to 49151
A

C. Ephemeral client ports fall in the range of 49152 through 65535. Well-known TCP and UDP server ports fall in the range of 1 through 1023. Registered port numbers fall in the range from 1024 to 49151.

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23
Q

Which of the following statements about the User Datagram Protocol (UDP) are true? (Choose all correct answers.)
UDP does not use packet sequencing and acknowledgments.
UDP uses packet sequencing and acknowledgments.
UDP is a connection-oriented protocol.
UDP is a connectionless protocol.
UDP has an 8-byte header.
UDP has a 20-byte header.

A

A, D, and E. UDP is a connectionless transport layer protocol. It has a small, 8-byte header and does not use packet sequencing or acknowledgments.

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24
Q
Which of the following port values are used by the File Transfer Protocol (FTP)? (Choose all correct answers.)
21
23
20
53
69
A

A and C. FTP uses two ports: one for control messages (port 21) and one for data transfers (port 20). Port 23 is used by Telnet. Port 53 is used by the Domain Name System (DNS). Port 69 is used by the Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP).

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25
Q
Which of the following protocols provides connectionless delivery service at the transport layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model?
TCP
HTTP
UDP
ARP
A

C. The User Datagram Protocol (UDP) provides connectionless service at the transport layer. TCP provides connection-oriented service at the transport layer. HTTP is an application layer protocol, and ARP is a data link layer protocol

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26
Q
What is the valid range of numbers for the well-known Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and User Datagram Protocol (UDP) ports used by servers?
1024 through 49151
1 through 49151
49152 through 65534
1 through 1023
A

D. Well-known TCP and UDP server ports fall in the range of 1 through 1023. Registered port numbers fall in the range from 1024 to 49151. Ephemeral client ports fall in the range of 49152 through 65535.

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27
Q
Ralph is a network administrator who has just installed a new open source email server for the users at his company. The server is configured to send and receive Internet email and create a mailbox for each user that will permanently store the user’s mail on the server. Ralph next uses a protocol analyzer to examine the network traffic resulting from the new server installation. Which of the following new protocols should Ralph expect to see in his network traffic analysis? (Choose all correct answers.)
SNMP
SMTP
POP3
IMAP
RIP
A

B and D. Ralph’s traffic analysis should show the addition of the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP), which handles incoming and outgoing Internet mail, and Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP), which provides mailboxes for users who store their mail permanently on the server. POP3 is a mailbox protocol that enables users to download their messages and should therefore not be present on the network. SNMP is a network management protocol and RIP is a routing protocol; neither of them carries email traffic.

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28
Q
Which of the following values could a web client use as an ephemeral port number when communicating with a web server?
1
23
80
1024
1999
50134
A

F. An ephemeral port number is a temporary port supplied by a client to a server, for use during a single session or transaction. The allowed ephemeral port number values range from 49152 to 65535. The port values below 1024 are reserved for use as well-known ports, and the values from 1024 to 49151 are reserved for ports registered by specific manufacturers for their applications. Of these answers, 50134 is the only value that the client can use as an ephemeral port.

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29
Q
Which of the following protocols provides connection-oriented service with guaranteed delivery at the transport layer of the OSI model?
TCP
HTTP
UDP
IP
A

A. The Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) provides connection-oriented service at the transport layer, with guaranteed delivery. The User Datagram Protocol (UDP) provides connectionless service at the transport layer. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) operates at the application layer, and Internet Protocol (IP) is a connectionless network layer protocol.

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30
Q

Which of the following protocols is limited to use on the local subnet only?
Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
Domain Name System (DNS)
Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)

A

A. ARP relies on broadcast transmissions, which are not routable. It is therefore limited to use on the local subnet. DHCP also relies on broadcasts, but the ability to create DHCP relay agents makes it usable on an entire internetwork. DNS and SMTP do not rely on broadcasts and are therefore not limited to the local subnet.

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31
Q
At which of the following layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model do the protocols on a typical local area network use MAC addresses to identify other computers on the network?
Physical
Data link
Network
Transport
A

B. The Ethernet (or IEEE 802.3) protocol at the data link layer uses MAC addresses to identify computers on the local network. Media access control (MAC) addresses are coded into the firmware of physical network interface adapters by the manufacturer. The physical layer deals with signals and is not involved in addressing. The IP protocol at the network layer has its own addressing system. The transport layer protocols are not involved in addressing

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32
Q

Which of the following organizations developed the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model?
International Telecommunication Union (ITU-T)
Comité Consultatif International Télégraphique et Téléphonique (CCITT)
American National Standards Institute (ANSI)
Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE)
International Organization for Standardization (ISO)

A

E. ISO developed and published the OSI model to serve as a conceptual model for software and hardware developers. The ITU-T, formerly known as the CCITT, coordinates the development and advancement of international telecommunication networks and services. ANSI is a private organization that administers and coordinates a United States–based standardization and conformity assessment system. The IEEE publishes standards that define data link and physical layer standards. These standards are referred to collectively as the 802 series.

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33
Q
Which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model is responsible for the logical addressing of end systems and the routing of datagrams on a network?
Physical
Data link
Network
Transport
Session
Presentation
Application
A

C. Network layer protocols specify logical addresses for end system communication and route datagrams across a network. The physical layer defines standards for physical and mechanical characteristics of a network. The data link layer uses media access control (MAC) or hardware addresses, not logical addresses. The transport layer uses port numbers, not logical addresses. Session layer protocols create and maintain a dialogue between end systems. Presentation layer protocols are responsible for the formatting, translation, and presentation of information. The application layer provides an entry point for applications to access the protocol stack and prepare information for transmission across a network.

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34
Q
What layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model is responsible for translating and formatting information?
Physical
Data link
Network
Transport
Session
Presentation
Application
A

F. The presentation layer implements functions providing formatting, translation, and presentation of information. No other layers of the OSI model translate and format application data.

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35
Q
Which of the following devices typically operates at the network layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model?
Proxy server
Hub
Network interface adapter
Router
A

D. A router connects networks together at the network layer of the OSI model. Proxy servers operate at the application layer. Network interface adapters operate at both the data link and the physical layers. Hubs are physical layer devices.

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36
Q
Which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model provides an entrance point to the protocol stack for applications?
Physical
Data link
Network
Transport
Session
Presentation
Application
A

G. The application layer provides an entry point for applications to access the protocol stack and prepare information for transmission across a network. All other layers of the OSI model reside below this layer and rely on this entry point.

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37
Q
Which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model is responsible for dialogue control between two communicating end systems?
Physical
Data link
Network
Transport
Session
Presentation
Application
A

E. The session layer is responsible for creating and maintaining a dialogue between end systems. This dialogue can be a two-way alternate dialogue that requires end systems to take turns transmitting, or it can be a two-way simultaneous dialogue in which either end system can transmit at will. No other layers of the OSI model perform dialogue control between communicating end systems.

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38
Q
Some switches can perform functions associated with two layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model. Which two of the following layers are often associated with network switching? (Choose all correct answers.)
Physical
Data link
Network
Transport
Session
Presentation
Application
A

B and C. The primary function of a switch is to process packets based on their media access control (MAC) addresses, which makes it a data link layer device. However, many switches can also perform routing functions based on IP addresses, which operate at the network layer.

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39
Q
At which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model are there TCP/IP protocols that can provide either connectionless or connection-oriented services to applications?
Physical
Data link
Network
Transport
Session
Presentation
Application
A

D. There are two types of transport layer protocols: connection-oriented and connectionless. Connection-oriented protocols guarantee the delivery of data from source to destination by creating a connection between the sender and the receiver before any data is transmitted. Connectionless protocols do not require a connection between end systems in order to pass data. The physical layer does not use connectionless or connection-oriented protocols; it defines standards for transmitting and receiving information over a network. The data link layer provides physical addressing and final packaging of data for transmission. The network layer is responsible for logical addressing and routing. The session layer is responsible for creating and maintaining a dialogue between end systems. The presentation layer is responsible for the formatting, translation, and presentation of information. The application layer provides an entry point for applications to access the protocol stack and prepare information for transmission across a network.

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40
Q
Which of the following layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model typically have dedicated physical hardware devices associated with them? (Choose all correct answers.)
Physical
Data link
Network
Transport
Session
Presentation
Application
A

A, B, and C. The physical layer of the OSI model is associated with hubs, cables, and network interface adapters. The data link layer is associated with bridges and switches. The network layer is associated with routers. The transport, session, presentation, and application layers are typically not associated with dedicated hardware devices.

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41
Q
At which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model is there a protocol that adds both a header and footer to the information that is passed down from an upper layer, thus creating a frame?
Physical
Data link
Network
Transport
Session
Presentation
Application
A

B. The only layer with a protocol (such as Ethernet) that adds both a header and a footer is the data link layer. The process of adding the headers and footers is known as data encapsulation. All other protocol layers that encapsulate data add just a header.

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42
Q

Identify the layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model that controls the addressing, transmission, and reception of Ethernet frames, and also identify the media access control method that Ethernet uses.
Physical layer; Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD)
Physical layer; Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA)
Data link layer; CSMA/CD
Data link layer; CSMA/CA

A

C. The Ethernet protocol that handles the addressing, transmission, and reception of frames operates at the data link layer. Each frame includes hardware addresses that identify the sending and receiving systems on the local network. Ethernet uses the CSMA/CD media access control method. Physical layer specifications include the transmission of signals in the form of electrical or light pulses to represent binary code, not frames. CSMA/CA is a data link layer media access control method used by wireless LAN protocols, but not Ethernet.

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43
Q
At which layer of the OSI model do you find the protocol responsible for the delivery of data to its ultimate destination on an internetwork?
Data link
Network
Session
Application
A

B. On a TCP/IP network, the Internet Protocol (IP) at the network layer is the protocol responsible for the delivery of data to its final destination. Data link layer protocols are only concerned with communication between devices on a local area network (LAN) or between two points connected by a wide area network (WAN). The session and application layers are not involved in the actual delivery of data.

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44
Q
Which of the following is not a protocol operating at the network layer of the OSI model?
IP
ICMP
IGMP
IMAP
A

D. Internet Protocol (IP), Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP), and Internet Group Message Protocol (IGMP) are all network layer protocols. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) is a mail protocol that operates at the application layer.

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45
Q
Ed is a software developer who has been given the task of creating an application that requires guaranteed delivery of information between end systems. At which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model does the protocol that provides the guaranteed delivery run, and what type of protocol must Ed use?
Data link layer; connectionless
Network layer; connection-oriented
Transport layer; connection-oriented
Application layer; connectionless
A

C. A connection-oriented transport layer protocol provides guaranteed delivery of data for upper layer applications. Connectionless protocols do not guarantee delivery of information and therefore are not a good choice. Guaranteed delivery of information is generally not a function of the data link, network, or application layer.

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46
Q
Which of the following devices operates only at the physical layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model?
Hub
Bridge
Switch
Router
A

A. A hub functions only at the physical layer by forwarding all incoming signals out through all of its ports. Bridges and switches operate at the physical layer and the data link layer by selectively propagating incoming data. Routers operate at the network layer by connecting local area networks and propagating only the traffic intended for another network, based on IP addresses.

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47
Q
Alice is a network administrator designing a new local area network (LAN). She needs to determine the type of cabling and the network topology to implement. Which layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model apply to cabling and topology elements?
Physical and data link layers
Data link and network layers
Network and transport layers
Transport and application layers
A

A. The physical layer defines the mechanical and electrical characteristics of the cables used to build a network. The data link layer defines specific network (LAN or WAN) topologies and their characteristics. The physical layer standard that Alice will implement is dependent on the data link layer protocol she selects. The network, transport, and application layers are not concerned with cables and topologies.

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48
Q
Which layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model do not have protocols in the TCP/IP suite exclusively dedicated to them? (Choose all correct answers.)
Physical
Data link
Network
Transport
Session
Presentation
Application
A

E and F. In the TCP/IP suite, the functions of the session layer are primarily implemented in the transport layer protocols: Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and User Datagram Protocol (UDP). The presentation layer functions are often implemented in application layer protocols, although some functions, such as encryption, can also be performed by transport or network layer protocols.

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49
Q
The protocols at which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model use port numbers to identify the applications that are the source and the destination of the data in the packets?
Application
Presentation
Transport
Network
A

C. Transport layer protocols, such as Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and User Datagram Protocol (UDP), have header fields that contain the port numbers of the applications that generated the data in the packet and that will receive it. The application, presentation, and network layers do not use port numbers.

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50
Q

Which of the following is a correct listing of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model layers, in order, from top to bottom?
Physical, data link, transport, network, session presentation, application
Application, session, presentation, transport, network, data link, physical
Presentation, application, transport, session, network, physical, data link
Session, application, presentation, transport, data link, network, physical
Application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical

A

E. The correct order of the OSI model layers, from top to bottom, is application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical.

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51
Q
At which of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model layers do switches and bridges perform their basic functions?
Physical
Data link
Network
Transport
A

B. Switches and bridges are involved in local area network (LAN) communications only and therefore operate at the data link layer.

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52
Q
Flow control is a function implemented in protocols operating at which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model?
Presentation
Session
Transport
Network
A

C. Flow control is a process that adjusts the transmission rate of a protocol based on the capability of the receiver. If the receiving system becomes overwhelmed by incoming data, the sender dynamically reduces the transmission rate. In the TCP/IP protocol suite, Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is responsible for implementing flow control. TCP runs at the transport layer. None of the other layers listed have TCP/IP protocols that provide flow control.

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53
Q
Which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model defines the medium, network interfaces, connecting hardware, and signaling methods used on a network?
Physical
Data link
Network
Transport
Session
Presentation
Application
A

A. The physical layer of the OSI model defines the standards for the physical and mechanical characteristics of a network, such as cabling (copper and fiber), connecting hardware (hubs and switches), and signaling methods (analog and digital). All of the other layers are not involved in the mechanical characteristics of the network.

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54
Q
Which of the OSI model layers is responsible for syntax translation and compression or encryption?
Data link
Network
Session
Presentation
Application
A

D. The presentation layer provides a syntax translation service that enables two computers to communicate, despite their use of different bit-encoding methods. This translation service also enables systems using compressed or encrypted data to communicate with each other.

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55
Q
Which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model is responsible for transmitting signals over the network medium?
Physical
Data link
Network
Transport
Session
Presentation
Application
A

A. The physical layer of the OSI model defines the functions specific to the network medium and the transmission and reception of signals. All of the other layers are implemented in software and do not physically send or receive signals.

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56
Q
Specify the layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model at which the Internet Protocol (IP) operates and whether it is connection-oriented or connectionless.
Network; connection-oriented
Network; connectionless
Transport; connection-oriented
Transport; connectionless
A

B. IP is a connectionless protocol that operates at the network layer of the OSI model. There are no connection-oriented protocols at this layer. The protocols at the transport layer include Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), which is connection-oriented, and User Datagram Protocol (UDP), which is connectionless.

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57
Q
An Ethernet network interface adapter provides functions that span which two layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model?
Physical and data link
Data link and network
Network and transport
Transport and application
A

A. A network interface adapter functions at the data link layer by encapsulating network layer data for transmission over the network. It provides physical layer functions by providing the connection to the network medium and generating the appropriate signals for transmission.

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58
Q
Which of the following protocols operate at the application layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model? (Choose all correct answers.)
HTTP
SNMP
ICMP
IGMP
UDP
A

A and B. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) and Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) operate at the application layer. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) and Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) both operate at the network layer. User Datagram Protocol (UDP) operates at the transport layer.

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59
Q
Which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model would be responsible for converting a text file encoded using EBCDIC on the sending system into ASCII code, when required by the receiving system?
Application
Presentation
Session
Physical
A

B. The presentation layer of the OSI model is responsible for translating different kinds of syntax, including text-encoding systems, such as EBCDIC and ASCII. The application, session, and physical layers do not perform this function.

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60
Q
Which of the following protocols operates at the network layer of the OSI model but does not encapsulate data generated by an upper layer protocol for transmission over the network?
IP
UDP
ARP
ICMP
TCP
A

D. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) operates at the network layer by sending operational and error messages. It does not encapsulate upper layer protocol data. Internet Protocol (IP) operates at the network layer, but it does encapsulate transport layer protocol data. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and User Datagram Protocol (UDP) are transport layer protocols that encapsulate upper layer protocol data. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) does not encapsulate upper layer protocol data, but it is a data link layer protocol.

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61
Q
Which of the following could be a valid MAC address for a network interface adapter?
10.124.25.43
FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF
00:1A:6B:31:9A:4E
03:AE:16:3H:5B:11
fe80::89a5:9e4d:a9d0:9ed7
A

C. A media access control (MAC) address is a six-byte hexadecimal value, with the bytes separated by colons, as in 00:1A:6B:31:9A:4E. Option A, 10.124.25.43, is all decimals and uses periods; this is an IPv4 address. Option B, FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF, is a valid MAC address, but this value is reserved for use as a broadcast address. Option D, 03:AE:16:3H:5B:11, is not a valid hexadecimal address, which should contain only numerals and the letters A to F. Option E, fe80::89a5:9e4d:a9d0:9ed7, is too long for a MAC address; this is a valid IPv6 address.

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62
Q
Which of the following TCP/IP parameters, configured on an end system, specifies the Internet Protocol (IP) address of a router on the local network that provides access to other networks?
WINS Server Addresses
Default Gateway
DNS Server Addresses
Subnet Gateway
A

B. The Default Gateway parameter specifies the address of the local router that the end system should use to access other networks. The WINS Server Addresses and DNS Server Addresses parameters are used to resolve names to IP addresses. There is no such parameter as Subnet Gateway.

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63
Q
Which of the following services enables computers on a private IPv4 network to access the Internet using a registered IP address?
DHCP
NAT
DNS
NTP
A

B. Network Address Translation (NAT) is a service that enables computers with unregistered IP addresses to access the Internet by substituting a registered address in packets as they pass through a router. The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is an IP address allocation service. Domain Name System (DNS) resolves domain and hostnames into IP addresses, and Network Time Protocol (NTP) enables network devices to synchronize their time settings.

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64
Q
Which of the following protocols prevents network switching loops from occurring by shutting down redundant links until they are needed?
RIP
STP
VLAN
NAT
A

B. The Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) prevents packets from endlessly looping from switch to switch due to redundant links. Creating redundant links is a good preventive against switch failure, but packets transmitted over multiple links can circulate from switch to switch infinitely. STP creates a database of switching links and shuts down the redundant ones until they are needed. Routing Information Protocol (RIP) propagates routing table information. A virtual local area network (VLAN) is an organizational tool that operates within switches by creating multiple broadcast domains. Network Address Translation (NAT) is a routing method that enables private networks to share registered IP addresses.

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65
Q
Which of the following are techniques used in traffic shaping to prevent networks from being overwhelmed by data transmissions? (Choose all correct answers.)
Bandwidth throttling
Rate limiting
Broadcast storming
Network address translation
A

A and B. Bandwidth throttling is a traffic shaping technique that prevents specified data streams from transmitting too many packets. Rate limiting is a traffic shaping technique that controls the transmission rate of sending systems. A broadcast storm is a type of network switching loop. Network address translation is a method by which private networks can share registered IP addresses. Neither of these last two is a traffic shaping technique.

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66
Q

Which of the following best defines the concept of the dual stack?
A computer with two network interface adapters
A computer with two installed operating systems
A computer with two sets of networking protocols
A computer with connections to two different network segments

A

C. A dual stack is an IP implementation that includes both IPv4 and IPv6 protocol stacks, operating simultaneously. A computer with two network adapters or connections to two network segments is often called multihomed. A computer with two installed operating systems is called a dual-boot system.

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67
Q
An enterprise network has been designed with individual departmental switches because in most cases, the devices in a specific department exchange network traffic with other devices in the same department. Each of the departmental switches is also connected to a host switch, which enables devices to communicate with other departments. Which of the following terms describes this switching architecture?
Distributed switching
Port forwarding
Traffic shaping
Neighbor discovery
A

A. Distributed switching describes a hierarchical switching architecture in which remote switches (in this case departmental switches) handle most of the network traffic, with a host switch used only for traffic between the remote locations. Port forwarding is a routing method that redirects traffic intended for one IP address and port number to another. Traffic shaping is a series of techniques that optimize the allocation of network bandwidth. Neighbor discovery is an IPv6 technique used to find addresses of devices and services on the local network.

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68
Q
Which of the following terms refers to methods by which network traffic is prioritized to prevent applications from suffering faults due to network congestion?
Port forwarding
Dynamic routing
VLANs
QoS
A

D. Quality of service (QoS) is a general term that refers to various mechanisms for prioritizing network traffic so that applications or data streams requiring a certain level of performance are not negatively affected by lower-priority transmissions. Port forwarding is a routing method that redirects traffic intended for one IP address and port number to another. Dynamic routing is a method by which routing tables are automatically updated with new information as the routing fabric of an internetwork changes. Virtual local area networks (VLANs) are a means for partitioning a broadcast domain into discrete units that are functionally equivalent to physical LANs.

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69
Q

Which of the following statements about Routing Information Protocol version 1 (RIPv1) is true? (Choose all correct answers.)
RIPv1 broadcasts the entire contents of the routing table every 30 seconds.
RIPv1 advertises the subnet mask along with the destination network.
RIPv1 broadcasts only the elements in the routing table that have changed every 60 seconds.
RIPv1 does not include the subnet mask in its network advertisements.

A

A and D. Routers that are running the RIPv1 routing protocol broadcast their entire routing tables every 30 seconds, regardless of whether there has been a change in the network. RIP v1 does not include the subnet mask in its updates, so it does not support subnetting.

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70
Q

Which of the following is an example of a circuit-switched network connection, as opposed to a packet-switched network connection?
Two wireless computers using an ad hoc topology
A landline voice telephone call
A smartphone connecting to a cellular tower
Computers connected by a wired LAN

A

B. A circuit switched network connection requires a dedicated physical connection between the communicating devices. In a landline telephone call, a dedicated circuit is established between the two callers, which remains in place for the entire duration of the call. Wireless computers in an ad hoc topology and computers connected to a wired LAN use packet switching instead. A smartphone connection uses cell switching.

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71
Q
Which of the following mechanisms for prioritizing network traffic uses a 6-bit classification identifier in the Internet Protocol (IP) header?
Diffserv
CoS
Traffic shaping
QoS
A

A. Differentiated services (Diffserv) is a mechanism that provides quality of service on a network by classifying traffic types using a 6-bit value in the differentiated services (DS) field of the IP header. Class of Service (CoS) is a similar mechanism that operates at the data link layer by adding a 3-bit Priority Code Point (PCP) value to the Ethernet frame. Traffic shaping is a means of prioritizing network traffic that typically works by delaying packets at the application layer. Quality of service (QoS) is an umbrella term that encompasses a variety of network traffic prioritization mechanisms.

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72
Q
Which of the following is a network layer protocol that uses ICMPv6 messages to locate routers, DNS servers, and other nodes on an IPv6 network?
BGP
NDP
OSPF
PoE
A

B. The Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP) is a network layer protocol that defines five new Internet Control Message Protocol version 6 (ICMPv6) packet types, which enable IPv6 systems to locate resources on the network, such as routers and DNS servers, as well as autoconfigure and detect duplicate IPv6 addresses. Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) is an exterior gateway protocol that is designed to exchange routing information among autonomous systems. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) is a link state routing protocol that enables routers to exchange routing table information. Power over Ethernet (PoE) is a general term for standards defining mechanisms for power delivery over Ethernet cables, along with data signals.

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73
Q
Which of the following is a protocol that identifies VLANs by inserting a 32-bit field in the Ethernet frame?
IEEE 802.1P
IEEE 802.1Q
IEEE 802.1X
IEEE 802.1AB
A

B. IEEE 802.1Q is a standard that defines a mechanism (called Ethernet trunking by some manufacturers) that identifies the virtual local area network (VLAN) to which a packet belongs by inserting an extra 32-bit field into its Ethernet frame. IEEE 802.1P is a standard that defines a mechanism for implementing quality of service (QoS) at the data link layer by adding a 3-bit field into Ethernet frames. IEEE 802.1X is a standard defining an authentication mechanism called port-based network access control (PNAC). IEEE 802.1AB is a standard defining the Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP).

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74
Q

Which of the following is not an advantage of packet switching over circuit switching?
Packets can be transmitted out of order.
Packets can take different routes to the destination.
Packets can be stored temporarily in the event of network congestion.
Packets can be routed around areas of network congestion.

A

C. On a packet-switched network, packets can take different routes to the destination, can be transmitted out of order, and can be routed around network congestion. The packets are then reassembled into a complete message once all of them reach the destination. Temporary message storage is an advantage of circuit switching networks.

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75
Q

Which of the following statements about static routing are true? (Choose all correct answers.)
Static routes are manually configured routes that administrators must add, modify, or delete when a change in the network occurs.
Static routes are automatically added to the routing table by routing protocols when a new network path becomes available.
Static routes adapt to changes in the network infrastructure automatically.
Static routes are a recommended solution for large internetworks with redundant paths to each destination network.
Static routes are a recommended solution for small internetworks with a single path to each destination network.

A

A and E. Administrators must manually add, modify, or delete static routes when a change in a network occurs. For this reason, static routes are not recommended for use in large internetworks where there are multiple paths to each destination network. Static routes are not automatically added by routing protocols and do not adapt to changes in a network.

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76
Q

Which of the following TCP/IP routing protocols does not include the subnet mask within its route update messages, preventing it from supporting subnetting?
Routing Information Protocol, version 1 (RIPv1)
Routing Information Protocol, version 2 (RIPv2)
Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)
Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)

A

A. RIP v1 does not include the subnet mask in its updates. RIPv2 supports subnetting and includes the subnet mask of each network address in its updates. OSPF and BGP both include the subnet mask within their updates.

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77
Q
Which of the following terms refers to a routing protocol that does not rely on hop counts to measure the efficiency of routes?
Interior gateway protocol
Edge gateway protocol
Distance vector protocol
Link state protocol
A

D. Distance vector protocols rely on hop counts to evaluate the efficiency of routes. Link state protocols use a different type of calculation, usually based on Dijkstra’s algorithm. The terms interior gateway protocol and edge gateway protocol do not refer to the method of calculating routing efficiency.

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78
Q
What is the maximum number of routes that can be included in a single RIP broadcast packet?
20
25
32
Unlimited
A

B. A single RIP broadcast packet can include up to 25 routes. If there are more than 25 routes in the computer’s routing table, then RIP must generate additional packets.

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79
Q

Which of the following routing protocols can you use on a TCP/IP internetwork with segments running at different speeds, making hop counts an inaccurate measure of route efficiency? (Choose all correct answers.)
Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP)
Routing Information Protocol (RIP)
Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)
Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)

A

A and C. OSPF is a link state routing protocol, which means that it does not rely solely on hop counts to measure the relative efficiency of a route. EIGRP is a hybrid protocol that can use link state routing. RIP is a distance vector routing protocol, meaning that it uses hop counts to measure route efficiency. BGP is an exterior gateway protocol that exchanges routing information among autonomous systems using path vectors or distance vectors.

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80
Q
What is the term for the process by which dynamic routing protocols update other routers with routing table information?
Convergence
Distance vectoring
Redistribution
Dissemination
A

A. Convergence is the term for the process by which routers propagate information from their routing tables to other routers on the network using dynamic routing protocols. Distance vectoring, redistribution, and dissemination do not describe this process.

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81
Q
Which of the following are terms for an area of an enterprise network, separated by firewalls, that contains servers that must be accessible both from the Internet and from the internal network? (Choose all correct answers.)
Intranet
DMZ
EGP
Stateless network
Perimeter network
A

B and E. Servers that must be accessible both from the internal network and from the Internet are typically located in an area of the enterprise called a perimeter network or a demilitarized zone (DMZ). This area is separated from both the Internet and the internal network by firewalls, which prevents unauthorized internet users from accessing the internal network. Intranet is another term for the internal network. Edge Gateway Protocol (EGP) is a type of routing protocol, and stateless is a type of firewall; neither applies to this definition.

82
Q

Each of the following Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) events occurs on an Ethernet network when two stations transmit simultaneously, although not in the order listed. Which of the following events occurs immediately after the collision?
The two stations observe a random back-off interval.
The two stations transmit a jam signal.
The two stations stop transmitting.
The two stations listen to see if the channel is idle.
The two stations begin retransmitting their frames.

A

C. Stations on a CSMA/CD network first check the medium to see if it’s idle. If they detect an idle medium, they begin transmitting. If two or more devices transmit at the same time, a collision occurs. Immediately after a collision occurs, the two stations involved stop transmitting and then send out a jam signal. Then, the two stations back off for a random interval, and the transmission process begins again.

83
Q

Which of the following TCP/IP routing protocols measures the efficiency of routes by the number of hops between the source and the destination?
Routing Information Protocol (RIP)
Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)
Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)
Intermediate System to Intermediate System (IS-IS)

A

A. RIP is a distance vector protocol, which uses hop counts to measure the efficiency of routes. OSPF, BGP, and IS-IS are all link state protocols, which do not rely on hop counts.

84
Q
Which of the following IEEE standards calls for the use of the Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) media access control mechanism?
802.11ac
802.1X
802.3
All of the above
A

A. The IEEE 802.11ac standard, like all of the wireless LAN standards in the 802.11 working group, uses CSMA/CA for media access control. The 802.1X standard defines an authentication mechanism and does not require a media access control mechanism. The IEEE 802.3 (Ethernet) standard uses Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD).

85
Q
Which of the following devices is used to physically connect computers in the same VLAN?
A bridge
A hub
A switch
A router
A

C. Replacing routers with switches turns an internetwork into a single large subnet, and virtual local area networks (VLANs) exist as logical elements on top of the switching fabric. Although VLANs are the functional equivalent of network layer subnets, the systems in a single VLAN are still physically connected by switches, not routers. Bridges connect network segments at the data link layer and selectively forward traffic between the segments. However, bridges do not provide a dedicated connection between two systems like a switch does, and they do not make it possible to convert a large routed internetwork into a single switched network. Therefore, they have no role in implementing VLANs. Hubs are physical layer devices that propagate all incoming traffic out through all of their ports. Replacing the routers on an internetwork with hubs would create a single shared broadcast domain with huge amounts of traffic and many collisions. Hubs, therefore, do not connect the computers in a VLAN.

86
Q

Which of the following statements is true about an Ethernet network that uses CSMA/CD?
Collisions are a normal occurrence.
Collisions never occur unless there is a network fault.
Collisions cause data to be irretrievably lost.
Collisions are the result of duplicate IP addresses.

A

A. Collisions are a normal occurrence on an Ethernet network; they occur when two nodes transmit at exactly the same time. There need not be a network fault for collisions to occur. When collisions occur, the nodes involved retransmit their packets so that no data is lost. Collisions are a phenomenon of data link layer protocols; they have nothing to do with IP addresses, which are network layer constructs.

87
Q
VLANs create the administrative boundaries on a switched network that are otherwise provided by which of the following devices?
Hubs
Routers
Domains
Bridges
A

B. Connecting subnets with routers at the network layer maintains the data link layer administrative boundaries that prevent broadcast transmissions from being propagated throughout the entire internetwork. Switching eliminates those data link layer boundaries, and administrators can use virtual local area networks (VLANs) to simulate them. Because hubs propagate all of the traffic they receive out through all of their ports indiscriminately, they create no administrative boundaries. Domains are logical groups of network devices defined by the Domain Name System (DNS). Their functions are not related to VLANs in any way. Switches are essentially multiport bridges that forward incoming traffic only to the device for which it is destined. Therefore, bridges are more closely related to eliminating administrative boundaries than to establishing them.

88
Q

Which of the following statements about VLANs are true? (Choose all correct answers.)
All of the devices in a particular VLAN must be physically connected to the same switch.
A VLAN creates a limited broadcast domain on a switched network.
You must have VLANs on a switched network for communication between computers on different cable segments to occur.
A router is required for communication between VLANs.

A

B and D. The computers in a single virtual local area network (VLAN) can be located anywhere on a switched network, irrespective of the switches’ physical configuration. A broadcast message generated by a computer in a VLAN is transmitted to all of the other computers in that VLAN only, just as if the systems were physically located on a separate LAN or subnet. Unicast transmissions between computers on a switched network do not require VLANs because the switches create what amounts to a direct connection between the two systems. VLANs are needed only for communication processes that require the use of broadcasts, which if transmitted without VLANs, would flood the network. Even though they are a purely logical construction, VLANs function just like physical subnets and require routers for communication between them. Routing capabilities are often integrated into switches to enable communication between VLANs.

89
Q
hich of the following elements can be used to identify the devices in a particular VLAN? (Choose all correct answers.)
Hardware addresses
IP addresses
DNS names
Switch port numbers
A

A and D. Every network device has a unique hardware address coded into its network interface adapter, and administrators can use these addresses to select the devices that will be part of a specific virtual local area network (VLAN). When VLANs are implemented inside the switch, selecting the ports to which specific computers are attached is a simple way to identify the computers in a particular VLAN. IP addresses are layer 3 (network layer) constructs, so they do not apply to layer 2 (data link layer) devices like switches. Although DNS names do uniquely identify computers on a network, DNS is an application layer process and has nothing to do with the switching and routing processes, which occur at the data link and network layers. Therefore, you cannot use DNS names to identify the computers in a VLAN.

90
Q
Network address translation (NAT) operates at which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model?
Data link
Network
Transport
Application
A

B. NAT works by modifying IP addresses, which are a network layer element. The data link layer is concerned only with communications on the local subnet and is not involved with NAT processing. Because NAT modifies only the IP packet headers, it works with any transport layer protocol. NAT also works with most TCP/IP applications because it operates below the application layer of the OSI model.

91
Q
Which of the following types of routing protocols route datagrams between autonomous systems?
EGP
RIP
IGP
OSPF
A

A. An Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP) routes datagrams between autonomous systems. An Interior Gateway Protocol (IGP) routes datagrams within an autonomous systems. Routing Information Protocol (RIP) and Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) are examples of interior gateway protocols.

92
Q

Which of the following is the most accurate description of the subnetting process on a TCP/IP network?
You extend the IP address by adding bits for a subnet identifier.
You borrow bits from the network identifier to create a subnet identifier.
You borrow bits from the host identifier to create a subnet identifier.
You create a subnet identifier by borrowing half of the bits from the network identifier and half from the host identifier.

A

C. You cannot extend the IP address beyond its 32-bit size, and you cannot remove bits from the network identifier, or the packets will not be routed properly. You must therefore create a subnet by borrowing bits from the host identifier.

93
Q

Which of the following IPv4 addresses are you unable to assign to a network host? (Choose all correct answers.)

  1. 1.1.1
  2. 6.87.3
  3. 256.77.4
  4. 34.0.1
A

B and C. IPv4 addresses with first byte values from 224 to 239 are Class D addresses, which are reserved for use as multicast addresses. Therefore, you cannot assign 229.6.87.3 to a host. Option C, 103.256.77.4, is an invalid address because the value 256 cannot be represented by an 8-bit binary value. The other options, 1.1.1.1 and 9.34.0.1, are both valid addresses.

94
Q
How many bits are allocated to the host identifier in an IPv4 address on the 10.72.0.0/17 network?
8
15
16
17
A

B. The value after the slash in a classless inter-domain routing (CIDR) address specifies the number of bits in the network identifier. An IP address has 32 bits, so if 17 bits are allocated to the network identifier, 15 bits are left for the host identifier.

95
Q

Which of the following are not valid IPv4 addresses in the private address space defined by RFC 1918? (Choose all correct answers.)

  1. 16.225.1
  2. 33.19.7
  3. 168.254.77
  4. 255.255.255
  5. 15.2.9
A

B and E. RFC 1918 defines the private address space as the following ranges:
10.0.0.0–10.255.255.255
172.16.0.0–172.31.255.255
192.168.0.0–192.168.255.255
Option B, 172:33:19:7, and Option E, 172.15.2.9, both fall outside the specified private Class B range and are therefore not valid private addresses.

96
Q

lice has been instructed to create a network with 8 subnets and 30 hosts per subnet. She has been assigned a Class C network address. Which of the following subnet masks will she have to use?

  1. 255.255.128
  2. 255.255.192
  3. 255.255.224
  4. 255.255.240
  5. 255.255.248
  6. 255.255.252
A

C. To create a network with 8 subnets and 30 hosts per subnet, Alice would have to allocate 3 of the 8 bits in the last octet for subnet identifiers. This would result in a binary value of 11100000 for the last octet in the subnet mask, which converts to a decimal value of 224.

97
Q

Which of the following is the default subnet mask for an IPv4 Class A network?

  1. 0.0.0
  2. 255.0.0
  3. 255.255.0
  4. 255.255.255
A

A. A Class A address uses only the first octet as the network identifier, which yields a binary subnet mask of 11111111 00000000 00000000 00000000. In decimal form, the subnet mask is 255.0.0.0. The 255.255.0.0 mask is for Class B addresses, and 255.255.255.0 is for Class C addresses. Option D, 255.255.255.255, is the broadcast address for the current network.

98
Q

hich of the following is the range of IPv4 addresses that Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) assigns to DHCP clients that cannot access a DHCP server?

  1. 0.0.0 to 10.0.255.255
  2. 254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255
  3. 168.0.0 to 192.168.0.255
  4. 0.0.0 to 224.0.255.255
A

B. When a DHCP client cannot access a DHCP server, APIPA assigns it a Class B address in the range 169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255.

99
Q
In which IPv4 class is the address 127.0.0.1 found?
Class A
Class B
Class C
None of the above
A

D. Address 127.0.0.1 is the designated IPv4 local loopback address, and as such, it is reserved. It falls between Class A, which has first octet values from 1 to 126, and Class B, which has first octet values of 128 to 191.

100
Q

ich of the following is a valid IPv6 address?

fe00: :b491:cf79:p493:23ff
2001: 0:49e6:39ff:8cf5:6812:ef56
fe00: :c955:c944:acdd:3fcb
2001: 0:44ef68:23eb:99fe:72bec6:ea5f

A

C. The address fe00::c955:c944:acdd:3fcb is correctly formatted for IPv6, with the double colon replacing three blocks of zeroes. Uncompressed, the address would appear as follows: fe00:0000:0000:0000:c955:c944:acdd:3fcb. Option A contains a nonhexadecimal digit. Option B contains only seven 16-bit blocks (and no double colon) instead of the eight required for 128 bits. Option D contains blocks larger than 16 bits.

101
Q
To which class does the following IPv4 address belong: 190.126.14.251?
Class A
Class B
Class C
Class D
A

B. All Class B addresses have first octet values between 128 and 191. The first octet range of a Class A address is 1 to 126, and the Class C first octet range is 192 to 223. Class D addresses have a first octet range of 224 to 239.

102
Q
Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR) is a standard for IP addressing that includes the ability to create subnets using any number of IP address bits, rather than using 8-bit blocks. Which of the following terms describes this ability?
VLSM
APIPA
VLAN
EUI-64
A

A. Variable-length subnet masking (VLSM) describes the process of subnetting a network address by assigning an arbitrary number of host bits as subnet bits, providing administrators with great flexibility over the number of subnets created and the number of hosts in each subnet. Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) is the process by which a DHCP client assigns itself an IP address when no DHCP servers are accessible. Virtual local area networks (VLANs) are logical structures used to create separate broadcast domains on a large, switched network. Extended Unique Identifier-64 (EUI-64) is an addressing method used to create IPv6 link local addresses out of media access control (MAC) addresses.

103
Q

Ralph has been instructed to use the network address 10.12.0.0/14 for the new network he is installing. What subnet mask value should he use when configuring his computers?

  1. 248.0.0
  2. 252.0.0
  3. 254.0.0
  4. 255.248.0
  5. 255.252.0
  6. 255.254.0
A

B. The 14-bit prefix indicated in the network address will result in a mask with 14 ones followed by 18 zeroes. Broken into 8-bit blocks, the binary mask value is as follows:
11111111 11111100 00000000 00000000
Converted into decimal values, this results in a subnet mask value of 255.252.0.0.

104
Q

Ed has been hired to design a company’s network. The company has an assigned Class C network address of 192.168.30.0. Ed’s client wants the network to be configured with 10 subnets, each with 14 hosts. Is this configuration possible with the given address, and if so, how many subnets and hosts can Ed create on the network?
Yes, this will work. By using 4 subnet bits, it is possible for Ed to create up to 16 subnets. He can then use the remaining 4 host bits to create 14 hosts on each subnet.
No, this will not work. A Class C address cannot be subnetted to create 8 subnets.
No, this will not work. Although there are sufficient bits available to create 10 subnets, there are not enough bits left over for Ed to create 14 hosts per subnet.
Yes, this will work. Ed can create 10 subnets with 14 hosts per subnet. By using 3 subnet bits, he can create 10 subnets, which leaves 5 bits to create up to 30 hosts per subnet.

A

A. In this scenario, the company has a Class C Internet Protocol (IP) address, which consists of 24 network bits and 8 host bits. The company wants 10 subnets and 14 hosts per subnet, so Ed must subdivide the 8 host bits into subnet and host bits. He can allocate 4 of the 8 host bits for subnets, enabling him to create up to 16 subnets. This leaves 4 bits for host addresses, enabling Ed to create 14 hosts per subnet.
E. The formula for calculating the

105
Q
What is the greatest number of subnets you can create with a Class A IPv4 address if you use a 14-bit subnet identifier?
256
1,022
1,024
16,382
16,384
A

E. The formula for calculating the number of subnets you can create using a subnet identifier of a given length is 2x, where x is the number of bits in the subnet identifier. Therefore, with a 14-bit subnet, you can conceivably create 214, or 16,384, subnets.

106
Q

Alice has been asked to design her company’s Internet Protocol (IP) addressing scheme. The company has been assigned Class C network address of 192.168.30.0. Alice’s director wants 4 subnets with 28 hosts per subnet. How many bits are required for subnets? How many bits are required for hosts? What will the new subnet mask be for this network?
3 subnet bits, 5 host bits, and subnet mask 255.255.255.240
4 subnet bits, 3 host bits, and subnet mask 255.255.255.248
3 subnet bits, 5 host bits, and subnet mask 255.255.255.224
5 subnet bits, 3 host bits, and subnet mask 255.255.255.192

A

C. In this scenario, the last byte of the IP address assigned to the company must be subdivided into 3 subnet bits and 5 host bits. The 3 subnet bits will give Alice up to 8 subnets, with 5 host bits for up to 30 hosts per subnet. The new subnet mask is 255.255.255.224. The 224 is the decimal equivalent of the binary value 11100000, which represents the 3 subnet bits and the 5 host bits.

107
Q

Alice has been asked to design her company’s Internet Protocol (IP) addressing scheme. The company has been assigned Class C network address of 192.168.30.0. Alice’s director wants 4 subnets with 28 hosts per subnet. How many bits are required for subnets? How many bits are required for hosts? What will the new subnet mask be for this network?
3 subnet bits, 5 host bits, and subnet mask 255.255.255.240
4 subnet bits, 3 host bits, and subnet mask 255.255.255.248
3 subnet bits, 5 host bits, and subnet mask 255.255.255.224
5 subnet bits, 3 host bits, and subnet mask 255.255.255.192
A network interface adapter in a workstation has a hexadecimal MAC address of 001F9EFC7AD0. Which of the following would be the adapter’s IPv6 link local address based on its EUI-64 value?
FE80::001F:9EFF:FEFC:7AD0
FE80::FFFE:021F:9EFC:7AD0
FE80::FF00:1F9E:FC7A:D0FE
FE80::021F:9EFF:FEFC:7AD0

A

D. To convert a MAC address to an Extended Unique Identifier (EUI-64), you split the 6-byte MAC address into two 3-byte halves and insert the 2-byte value FFFE in between, as follows:
001F9E FFFE FC7AD0
Then, you change the seventh bit in the first byte, the universal/local bit, from 0 to 1, indicating that this is a locally created address. This results in a binary first byte value of 00000010, which converts to 02 in hexadecimal.
Finally, you add the IPv6 link local prefix FE80::/10, resulting in the following complete address:
FE80::021F:9EFF:FEFC: 7AD0
All of the other answers either insert the FFFE bytes in the wrong place or fail to change the universal/local bit.

108
Q

The default mask for a Class B network is 255.255.0.0. How many subnet bits do you need to create 600 subnets with 55 hosts per subnet, and what is the new subnet mask for the network?
10 subnet bits with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192
9 subnet bits with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.128
10 subnet bits with a subnet mask of 255.255.224.0
11 subnet bits with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192

A

A. A standard Class B address with a mask of 255.255.0.0 has 16 bits that can be used for subnets and hosts. To get 600 subnets, you must use 10 of the available bits, which gives you up to 1024 subnets. This leaves 6 host bits, which gives you up to 62 hosts per subnet, which exceeds the requirement of 55 requested by the client. Using 9 bits would give you only 510 subnets, while 11 bits would give you 2046 subnets but leave you only 5 bits for a maximum of 30 hosts, which is not enough.

109
Q
What is the greatest number of host addresses you can create on a single subnet of a network with the following address: 172.16.0.0/20?
142
144
4,094
4,096
A

C. The formula for calculating the number of hosts you can create using a host identifier of a given length is 2x–2, where x is the number of bits in the host identifier. You cannot create a host with an address of all zeroes or all ones, which is why you subtract 2. On a network that uses 20 bits for network identification, 12 bits are left for the host identifier. Using those 12 bits, you can create 212–2 or 4,094 host addresses.

110
Q
Ralph has a Class B network with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0. How many subnets can he create, and how many hosts can he create per subnet?
64 subnets and 2046 hosts
32 subnets and 2046 hosts
30 subnets and 1022 hosts
62 subnets and 1022 hosts
A

B. With a Class B subnet mask of 255.255.248.0, the binary form of the third and fourth bytes is 11111000 00000000. There are 5 subnet bits, providing up to 32 subnets and 11 host bits, providing up to 2046 hosts.

111
Q

Convert the binary mask 11111111.11111111.11100000.00000000 into its equivalent decimal value. What is the decimal representation of this mask?

  1. 255.224.0
  2. 255.240.0
  3. 255.248.0
  4. 255.252.0
A

A. The decimal value for 11111111 is 255, the value for 11100000 is 224, and the value for 00000000 is 0, so the mask is 255.255.240.0.

112
Q

If you have a network address of 192.168.1.32/27, what is the valid range of host addresses you can use for your workstations?

  1. 168.1.33 through 192.168.1.63
  2. 168.1.33 through 192.168.1.62
  3. 168.1.34 through 192.168.1.62
  4. 168.1.34 through 192.168.1.63
A

B. With a network address of 192.168.1.32 and 27 mask bits, the subnet mask value is 11111111.11111111.11111111.11100000 in binary form, or 255.255.255.224 in decimal form. This leaves 5 bits for the host identifier. The valid range of host bits is therefore 00001 (1) through 11110 (30). This gives you a range of 192.168.1.32 + 1 (33) through 192.168.1.32 + 30 (62).

113
Q
Alice has been assigned the network address 172.21.0.0/22 for the creation of a new department network in her company. How many host addresses does she have available to her?
510
512
1022
1024
A

C. To calculate the number of host addresses available, Alice must determine the number of host bits in the address, which is 10, raise 2 to that power, and subtract 2 for the network and broadcast addresses, which are unusable for hosts. The formula is therefore 2x–2. 210–2=1022.

114
Q
Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) assigns IPv4 addresses from which of the following classes to Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) clients that cannot contact a DHCP server?
Class A
Class B
Class C
Class D
A

B. When a DHCP client cannot access a DHCP server, APIPA assigns it a Class B address in the range 169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255.

115
Q
Which of the following Internet Protocol (IP) address classes identifies multicast addresses?
Class A
Class B
Class C
Class D
Class E
A

D. Class D addresses are used for multicast transmissions. Class A, Class B, and Class C addresses are used for unicast transmissions. Class E is for experimental use only.

116
Q

Which of the following is an address that you can assign to a host on a private IPv4 network?

  1. 167.9.46
  2. 16.255.255
  3. 1.0.253
  4. 87.34.1
A

C. The address 10.1.0.253 is a proper address in the private address range 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255. The address 192.167.9.46 falls outside the designated private IP address range, which is 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255, and is therefore not a viable address on a private network. 172.16.255.255 is a broadcast address, which you cannot assign to a host. 225.87.34.1 falls in the Class D multicast address range and cannot be assigned to a single host.

117
Q

Which of the following is the correct subnet mask for a network with the address 172.16.0.0/20?

  1. 255.224.0
  2. 255.240.0
  3. 255.248.0
  4. 255.255.224
  5. 255.255.240
A

B. The address given uses 20 bits to identify the network, leaving 12 bits for the host identifier. In binary form, therefore, the subnet mask value would be 11111111 11111111 11110000 00000000. The decimal value for 11111111 is 255, and the decimal value for 11110000 is 240. Therefore, the subnet mask is 255.255.240.0.

118
Q

Ed has been assigned the IPv4 network address 192.168.2.32/28 for the computers in his department. Which of the following ranges of addresses can Ed use to configure the TCP/IP clients on his computers?

  1. 168.2.32 to 192.168.2.55
  2. 168.2.33 to 192.168.2.46
  3. 168.2.33 to 192.168.2.40
  4. 168.2.1 to 192.168.2.254
A

B. A /28 address leaves 4 bits for the host identifier. To calculate the number of hosts, Ed uses 24–2=14. The first address on the subnet is therefore 192.168.2.33, and the 14th is 192.168.2.46.

119
Q

Which of the following IP addresses is available for use on a network device?

  1. 0.0.1
  2. 98.127.0
  3. 9.76.32
  4. 65.8.124
A

A. 1.0.0.1 is a legitimate address that falls into Class A. Option B, 127.98.127.0, falls into the range of addresses reserved for use as loopback addresses (127.0.0.1 to 127.255.255.255). Option C, 234.9.76.32, falls into Class D, which is reserved for use as multicast addresses. Option D, 240.65.8.124, is a Class E address; that class is reserved for experimental use.

120
Q
Which of the following IPv6 address types is the functional equivalent of an IPv4 APIPA address?
Link local
Global unicast
Site local
Anycast
A

A. An IPv6 link local address is automatically assigned to each interface. Like Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA), it provides communication on the local network only. Global unicast addresses are routable; they are the functional equivalent of IPv4 registered addresses. Site local addresses are the equivalent of private IPv4 addresses. Anycast addresses are designed to transmit to any one host in a multicast group.

121
Q

Ralph is having trouble accessing the Internet this morning and calls his colleague Ed in another department to find out if he’s experiencing the same problem. Ed says he’s having no problem accessing the Internet, but that might not mean anything because they might be on different subnets. Ralph asks Ed how to tell if they’re on different subnets. Ed asks Ralph to read him his IP address. Ralph’s address is 192.168.176.171, and Ed says his is 192.168.176.195. Both of them are using the same subnet mask: 255.255.255.224. Are the two men working on the same subnet?
No, they are not on the same subnet. Ralph’s subnet address is 192.168.176.192, and Ed’s subnet address is 192.168.176.160.
No, they are not on the same subnet. Ralph’s subnet address is 192.168.176.160, and Ed’s subnet address is 192.168.176.192.
Yes, they are on the same subnet. The subnet address for both is 192.168.176.192.
Yes, they are on the same subnet. The subnet address for both is 192.168.176.160.

A

B. A subnet mask of 255.255.255.224 indicates that the systems are using a Class C address that has been subnetted using a 3-bit subnet identifier. When you convert the last byte of the IP addresses to binary form, you get 10101011 for Ralph’s and 11000011 for Ed’s. Because the first three bits (the subnet identifiers) are different, the two are on different subnets. Convert the subnet addresses 10100000 and 11000000 back to binary, and you get their respective subnet addresses: 192.168.176.160 for Ralph and 192.168.176.192 for Ed.

122
Q
Ralph has been contracted to consult for a company that wants to update its legacy Ethernet network to Gigabit Ethernet. On examining the site, he discovers that the network is still using coaxial-based Thin Ethernet. What change in network topology must occur to upgrade the existing network to Gigabit Ethernet using unshielded twisted pair (UTP) cable?
Bus to ring
Ring to star
Star to bus
Bus to star
Star to ring
A

D. All coaxial-based Ethernet networks, including Thin Ethernet, use a bus topology. All UTP-based Gigabit Ethernet networks use a star topology. Therefore, an upgrade from coaxial to UTP cable must include a change in topology from bus to star.

123
Q
An electrician installing a new light fixture accidentally severs one of the LAN cables running through the dropped ceiling space. With which topology would the severed cable cause the greatest amount of disturbance to the network?
Bus
Star
Logical ring
Mesh
A

A. A cable break in a bus topology would split the network into two halves, preventing the nodes on one side of the break from communicating with those on the other. In addition, both halves of the network would be left with one unterminated end, which would prevent the computers on each side of the break from communicating effectively. A cable break in a star or logical ring topology would only interrupt the connection of a single computer to the network. The mesh topology is not often used for LANs, but redundant network connections are a characteristic of mesh networks, which means that a single cable break would have no effect on the network at all.

124
Q

Which of the following statements about a wired local area network (LAN) is true?
Wired LANs support only the star topology.
Wired LANs support only the star and bus topologies.
Wired LANs support only the star and ring topologies.
Wired LANs can support ring, bus, or star topologies.

A

D. A wired LAN is a group of computers within a small area, connected by a common network medium. A wired LAN can be configured using a ring, bus, or star topology.

125
Q
Which type of network is typically confined to a small area, such as a single room, floor, or building?
WAN
LAN
MAN
CAN
A

B. A local area network (LAN), as the name implies, is a group of computers contained within a small geographic area. WANs (wide area networks) connect LANs that are geographically distant. MANs (metropolitan area networks) are not confined to a small area; they are typically larger than a LAN but smaller than a WAN. A campus area network (CAN) typically includes a group of adjacent buildings, such as those of a corporation or university.

126
Q
Which type of network connects local area networks (LANs) in distant locations?
WAN
LAN
MAN
CAN
A

A. WANs (wide area networks) connect LANs that are geographically distant. A LAN (local area network), as the name implies, is a group of computers, not other LANs, and it is contained within a small area. MANs (metropolitan area networks) connect LANs in a single metropolitan area; they are not confined to a small area. A MAN is typically larger than a LAN but smaller than a WAN. A campus area network (CAN) typically includes a group of adjacent buildings, such as those of a corporation or university.

127
Q
Which of the following topologies requires the installation of terminating resistors at two locations?
Bus
Star
Ring
Mesh
A

A. A bus topology requires terminating resistors at each end of the bus, to remove signals as they reach the end of the cable and prevent them from reflecting back in the other direction and interfering with newly transmitted signals.

128
Q
A wireless access point (AP) enables computers equipped with wireless network interface adapters to function in which of the following topologies?
Star
Ad hoc
Bus
Infrastructure
A

D. A wireless access point is a device with a wireless transceiver that also connects to a standard cabled network. Wireless computers communicate with the access point, which forwards their transmissions over the network cable. This is called an infrastructure topology. A star or bus network requires the computers to be physically connected to the network cable, and an ad hoc topology is one in which wireless computers communicate directly with one another.

129
Q
Which of the following topologies is used by the majority of new Ethernet networks installed today?
Bus
Virtual ring
Mesh
Hierarchical star
A

D. Virtually all of the new Ethernet networks installed today use the star or the hierarchical star topology, with one or more switches functioning as a cabling nexus.

130
Q
Which of the following technologies associated with the Internet of Things (IoT) is often used to identify pets using embedded chips?
Z-wave
Bluetooth
NFC
RFID
A

D. Radio-frequency identification (RFID) uses tags containing data, frequently embedded in pets, which can be read using electromagnetic fields. Z-wave is a short-range wireless technology, frequently used for home automation. Bluetooth is a short-range wireless protocol, frequently used for computer peripherals and personal area networks (PANs). Near-field communication (NFC) provides wireless communication over ranges of 4 cm or less, and it is often used for payment systems.

131
Q
Alice has constructed a five-node failover cluster in which all five servers are connected to a hard disk array using a dedicated Fibre Channel network. Which of the following terms describes this network arrangement?
SAN
PAN
WAN
MAN
A

A. A storage area network (SAN) is a network that is dedicated to carrying traffic between servers and storage devices. A personal area network (PAN) provides communication among devices associated with a single person, such as smartphones. A wide area network (WAN) is a network that connects devices or networks at different geographic locations. A metropolitan area network (MAN) is a type of WAN that connects devices within a limited geographic area.

132
Q
Which of the following is not a technology typically used for a personal area network (PAN)?
Bluetooth
Z-Wave
NFC
ISDN
A

D. Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) is a wide area networking technology that uses the telephone infrastructure to provide a high-speed dial-up service. It is therefore not suitable for use on a PAN. Bluetooth, Z-Wave, and near-field communication (NFC) are all short-range wireless technologies that are capable of proving communications between PAN devices.

133
Q
Near-field communication (NFC) is a short-range wireless technology that is designed to facilitate communications between two devices within which of the following distances from each other?
4 millimeters
4 centimeters
4 decimeters
4 meters
A

B. NFC is designed to provide wireless communication between devices up to 4 cm apart, such as smartphones and payment systems.

134
Q
Which of the following network topologies are used by wireless local area networks (WLANs)? (Choose all correct answers.)
Ad hoc
Bus
Infrastructure
Star
A

A and C. WLANs can use the ad hoc topology, in which devices communicate directly with each other, or the infrastructure topology, in which the wireless devices connect to an access point. The bus and star topologies are used by wired networks only.

135
Q
Which of the following cabling topologies was used by the first Ethernet networks?
Bus
Ring
Star
Mesh
A

A. The first Ethernet networks used a physical layer implementation commonly known as Thick Ethernet or 10Base5. The network used coaxial cable in a bus topology. Later Ethernet standards use twisted pair cable in a star topology. Ethernet has never used a ring or mesh topology.

136
Q
On an Ethernet network using the star topology, which of the following devices can function as the cabling nexus that forms the figurative center of the star? (Choose all correct answers.)
Hub
Router
Switch
All of the above
A

A and C. A hub or a switch can function as the cabling nexus at the center of a star topology. Each of the devices on the network is connected by a cable to a hub or switch. Routers are used to connect networks to each other; they cannot function as the center of a star topology.

137
Q
Which of the following topologies enables wireless devices to access resources on a wired network?
Ad hoc
Star
Infrastructure
Bus
A

C. An infrastructure topology uses a wireless access point (AP) to connect wireless devices to a wired network. An ad hoc topology connects wireless devices to each other, without connecting to a wired network. The star and bus topologies do not support wireless devices.

138
Q
Which of the following components are required for two computers to communicate using an IEEE 802.11 wireless LAN using an ad hoc topology?
A router connected to the Internet
A wireless access point
An external antenna
None of the above
A

D. An ad hoc topology describes wireless computers that communicate directly with each other, without the need for any hardware other than their wireless network adapters. The ad hoc topology therefore does not require a router, an Internet connection, an access point, or a special antenna.

139
Q
Which of the following is typically not an example of the Internet of Things (IoT)?
A key fob that unlocks your car
A smartphone home automation app
A remotely monitored cardiac pacemaker
A seismic early warning system
A

A. A key fob that unlocks your car is typically a short-range radio or infrared (IR) device that does not use the Internet for its communications. Each of the other examples describes a device with an IP address that uses the Internet to communicate with a controller or monitoring station.

140
Q
Which of the following topologies provides the greatest number of redundant paths through the network?
Star
Ring
Mesh
Bus
A

C. A mesh topology is one in which every node is directly connected to every other node, therefore providing complete redundancy through the network. In a star topology, each node is connected to a central nexus, providing each with a single path to the rest of the network. In a ring topology, each node is connected to two other nodes, providing two possible paths through the network. In a bus topology, nodes are chained together in a line, providing no redundancy.

141
Q
Which of the following Ethernet physical layer options does not use the star topology?
10Base2
10Base-T
100Base-TX
1000Base-T
A

A. 10Base2 is the physical layer specification for Thin Ethernet, which uses coaxial cable in a bus topology. 10Base-T, 100Base-TX, and 1000Base-T all use twisted pair cable in a star topology.

142
Q
Which of the following network types are typically wireless? (Choose all correct answers.)
WAN
PAN
SAN
WLAN
A

B and D. Personal area networks (PANs) connect devices associated with a single person, such as smartphones, and are nearly always wireless. Wireless local area networks (WLANs) are wireless by definition. Wide area networks (WANs) typically span long distances and are typically wired, at least in part. Storage area networks (SAN) require high performance levels and are nearly always wired.

143
Q
In its physical implementation, a LAN using a logical ring topology most closely resembles which of the following physical topologies?
Bus
Mesh
Star
Ad hoc
A

C. In a logical ring topology, the signal path leads from each node to the next one, but physically, the network resembles a star, with each node connected to a central nexus. Signals travel from one node to the nexus, then to the next node, and then back to the nexus, and so on. A logical ring could not be implemented on a physical bus topology. A mesh topology could conceivably host a logical ring, but this would be highly impractical on a LAN. Ad hoc is a wireless topology that is not applicable in this situation.

144
Q
Which of the following wireless networking technologies will never experience interference from a 2.4 GHz wireless telephone? (Choose all correct answers.)
IEEE 802.11a
IEEE 802.11b
IEEE 802.11g
IEEE 802.11n
IEEE 802.11ac
A

A and E. IEEE 802.11b, 802.11g, and 802.11n networks all can use the 2.4 GHz frequency band for their transmissions, which can experience interference from a wireless telephone using the same frequency. IEEE 802.11a and IEEE 802.11ac, however, use the 5 GHz band, which will not experience interference from a 2.4 GHz phone.

145
Q
Which of the following wireless networking standards is capable of supporting speeds of 54 Mbps and is also backward compatible with IEEE 802.11b?
IEEE 802.11a
IEEE 802.11 g
IEEE 802.11n
Bluetooth
IEEE 802.11
A

B. IEEE 802.11g supports transmission speeds up to 54 Mbps, and it is backward compatible with 802.11b equipment. IEEE 802.11 cannot run at 54 Mbps, and while 802.11a can, it is not compatible with 802.11b. IEEE 802.11n cannot run at 54 Mbps, though it can run at faster speeds. Bluetooth is not compatible with any of the IEEE 802.11 standards.

146
Q
Which of the following wireless LAN standards include the ability to use multiple input and multiple output (MIMO) antennae? (Choose all correct answers.)
IEEE 802.11a
IEEE 802.11b/g
IEEE 802.11n
IEEE 802.11ac
A

C and D. Both the IEEE 802.11n and 802.11ac standards include MIMO, which enables them to effectively multiplex signals using multiple antennae. This capability was first introduced in the 802.11n standard, so the 802.11a and 802.11b/g standards do not support it.

147
Q
Which of the following is a cellular communication technology that is virtually obsolete in the United States?
GSM
CDMA
CSMA/CD
TDMA
A

D. Time Division Multiple Access (TDMA) is a communication technique that splits a frequency into multiple time slots, enabling it to carry multiple data streams. Commonly used in 2G cellular systems, the major U.S. carriers no longer use it in their 3G systems. Code Division Multiple Access (CDMA) and Global System for Mobile Communication (GSM) are alternative communications techniques that are currently used by the major U.S. cellular carriers. Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) is a media access control method used by Ethernet networks; it is not a cellular communication technology.

148
Q

Which of the following IEEE wireless LAN standards uses the Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS) signal modulation technique?

  1. 11a
  2. 11b
  3. 11 g
  4. 11n
  5. 11ac
A

B. The IEEE 802.11b standard calls for DSSS signal modulation. All of the other standards listed call for Orthogonal Frequency-Division Multiplexing (OFDM) encoding.

149
Q

When designing a wireless LAN installation, which of the following are valid reasons to install a unidirectional antenna in an access point, rather than an omnidirectional one? (Choose all correct answers.)
The access point will be located against an outside wall.
There are many interior walls between the access point and the most distant workstation.
A unidirectional antenna can be focused to a specific signal pattern width.
All of the above.

A

D. By placing a unidirectional antenna against an outside wall, you can limit network access to users inside the structure. Unidirectional antennae provide greater signal strength than omnidirectional antennae, enabling their signals to penetrate more interior walls. It is possible to focus a unidirectional antenna to a wider or narrower signal pattern.

150
Q

How do wireless networking devices conforming to the IEEE 802.11n and 802.11ac standards achieve transmission speeds greater than 72.2 Mbps?
By using direct sequence spread spectrum (DSSS) modulation
By using multiple antennae to transmit several data streams simultaneously
By using frequencies in the 5 GHz band
By sacrificing transmission range for speed

A

B. The IEEE 802.11n and 802.11ac standards support a transmission technique called multiple input and multiple output (MIMO), which combines the bandwidth of multiple data streams to achieve greater throughput. IEEE 802.11n and 802.11ac do use the 5 GHz band, but this in itself does not yield greater transmission speeds. The specified standards do not call for the use of DSSS modulation, nor do they sacrifice range for speed. In fact, 802.11n and 802.11ac networks can achieve greater ranges than the previous technologies.

151
Q

Which of the following are possible reasons why the 5 GHz frequency tends to perform better than the 2.4 GHz frequency on a wireless LAN? (Choose all correct answers.)
The 5 GHz frequency has more channels than the 2.4 GHz frequency.
The 5 GHz frequency supports longer ranges than the 2.4 GHz frequency.
The 5 GHz frequency conflicts with fewer common household devices than the 2.4 GHz frequency.
The 5 GHz frequency transmits at faster speeds than the 2.4 GHz frequency.

A

A, C, and D. The 5 GHz frequency has 23 channels available in the United States, while the 2.4 GHz frequency has only 11. Many household devices, such as cordless telephones, use the 2.4 GHz frequency band, but relatively few devices use the 5 GHz band. Higher frequencies typically support faster transmission speeds, because with all other conditions equal, they can carry more data in the same amount of time. The 5 GHz frequency typically has a shorter range than 2.4 GHz, because it is less able to penetrate barriers.

152
Q

Alice is attempting to deploy an IEEE 802.11b/g wireless LAN on the fifth floor of a ten-story office building that is surrounded on all sides by other office buildings, all of which seem to be running many wireless LANs. Scanning the 2.4 GHz band, she sees literally dozens of networks, spread across all of the available channels. As a result, her wireless devices have trouble connecting to their access point, and when they do, they achieve only low speeds. Choose the two tasks from the following list that Alice should perform to enable the wireless clients to connect to the network most reliably. (Choose two correct answers.)
Upgrade all of the wireless network devices to IEEE 802.11n.
Configure the wireless devices to use the 5 GHz band.
Configure all of the network devices to use WPA2 encryption with AES.
Configure the access point to suppress SSID broadcasts.
Upgrade all of the network devices to the latest firmware.

A

A and B. Upgrading the devices to 802.11n will enable them to use the 5 GHz band and evade the traffic generated by the surrounding networks. Configuring the devices to use the 5 GHz band will provide many more channels to choose from and will avoid the interference from the surrounding 2.4 GHz networks. The type of encryption that a wireless network uses has no bearing on the ability of the devices to avoid the interference generated by surrounding networks. Suppressing SSID broadcasts will not help the devices to connect to the network. Upgrading the firmware on the devices is not likely to have any effect on the connection problems when they are the result of interference from other networks.

153
Q
Which of the following is the fastest speed achievable by a wireless LAN using the currently ratified IEEE 802.11 standards?
54 Mbps
600 Mbps
1.3 Gbps
2.6 Gbps
A

C. The 802.11ac standard defines a wireless LAN running at a speed of up to 1.3 gigabits per second (Gbps). None of the other 802.11 standards call for speeds beyond 600 Mbps. No currently ratified standard enables speeds of 2.6 Gbps.

154
Q
What is the term for the technology implemented in the IEEE 802.11ac standard that enables a wireless device to transmit multiple frames to multiple clients simultaneously?
MIMO
Channel bonding
CSMA/CA
MU-MIMO
A

D. The multiple input and multiple output (MIMO) technology introduced in the IEEE 802.11n standard enables wireless devices to transmit and receive signals using multiple antennae simultaneously. The Multiuser MIMO (MU-MIMO) variant defined in the 802.11ac standard advances this technique by enabling wireless devices to transmit multiple frames to different users simultaneously, using multiple antennae. Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) is a media access control mechanism used by all 802.11 networks. Channel bonding is a wireless networking technique that combines channels to increase bandwidth.

155
Q

On an IEEE 802.11b/g/n wireless network running at 2.4 GHz with multiple access points, the traditional best practice is to use channels 1, 6, and 11, with no two adjacent access points configured to use the same channel. Which of the following is the real reason why this is a good plan?
Channels 1, 6, and 11 are the only three channels with frequencies that do not overlap.
Channels 1, 6, and 11 have more bandwidth than the other channels.
Channels 1, 6, and 11 have greater ranges than the other channels.
Channels 1, 6, and 11 are the default settings on most wireless devices.

A

A. The 22 MHz channels in the 2.4 GHz band are spaced 5 MHz apart, which means that they overlap. Channels 1, 6, and 11 are the only three channels that are distant enough from each other not to overlap. Therefore, they do not interfere with each other. Channels 1, 6, and 11 do not differ from the other channels in their bandwidth or their transmission range. Each wireless device can be set to use only one channel. Therefore, channels 1, 6, and 11 cannot all be the default setting.

156
Q
Ralph is performing a site survey for a wireless LAN installation in a warehouse with two offices at either end of the building, approximately 300 feet apart. If he installs a single access point in the center of the warehouse, equidistant from the two offices, which of the following standards should he look for when purchasing hardware so that workstations in both offices will be able to connect to the network at the best possible speed?
IEEE 802.11a
IEEE 802.11g
IEEE 802.11n
IEEE 802.11ac
A

C. Wireless networks using equipment based on the IEEE 802.11n standard can span indoor distances of up to 175 feet at speeds up to 600 Mbps. An 802.11ac network can run at faster speeds—up to 1.3 Gbps—but it is limited to approximately 115-foot distances. Networks using 802.11g equipment can span 150 feet, but they run at only a maximum of 54 Mbps. An 802.11a network cannot span more than 75 feet, and it runs at no more than 54 Mbps.

157
Q
Which of the following terms defines a wireless LAN transmission technique in which devices use multiple antennae to increase transmission speeds?
MIMO
TDMA
PAN
Ant+
A

A. Multiple input and multiple output (MIMO) calls for the use of two or more antennae, enabling wireless devices to effectively multiplex signals, hereby increasing their transmission speeds. Time Division Multiple Access (TDMA) is a communication technique that splits a frequency into multiple time slots, enabling it to carry multiple data streams. A personal area network (PAN) provides communication among devices associated with a single person, such as smartphones. Ant+ is a wireless protocol that is typically used to monitor data gathered by sensors, such as those in cardiac pacemakers.

158
Q
What is the maximum channel width possible using wireless networking equipment based on the ratified IEEE 802.11 standards?
20 MHz
40 MHz
80 MHz
160 MHz
A

D. The 802.11ac standard defines the bonding of up to eight 20 MHz channels, for a total possible channel width of 160 MHz. The 802.11n standard can bond up to two channels, for a 40 MHz width. Earlier standards are limited to a single 20 MHz channel.

159
Q
Which of the following wireless networking standards are capable of using only the 5 GHz frequency? (Choose all correct answers.)
IEEE 802.11a
IEEE 802.11b
IEEE 802.11g
IEEE 802.11n
IEEE 802.11ac
A

A and E. The IEEE 802.11a and IEEE 802.11ac standards can use the 5 GHz band only. IEEE 802.11b and IEEE 802.11g can use the 2.4 GHz band only. IEEE 802.11n can use either the 2.4 or 5 GHz band.

160
Q

Which of the following IEEE wireless LAN standards provides the greatest possible throughput?

  1. 11a
  2. 11ac
  3. 11b
  4. 11g
  5. 11n
A

B. The IEEE 802.11ac standard provides the greatest possible throughput, at up to 1.3 Gbps. The 802.11n standard runs at speeds up to 600 Mbps. The 802.11a and 802.11g standards run at up to 54 Mbps. The 802.11b standard runs at up to 11 Mbps.

161
Q

Which of the following IEEE 802.11 wireless LAN standards are capable of supporting both the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequencies?

  1. 11a
  2. 11b
  3. 11g
  4. 11n
  5. 11ac
A

D. Only the 802.11n standard defines wireless LAN devices that can support both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequencies. The 802.11a and 802.11ac standards use only 5 GHz, and the 802.11b and 802.11g standards use only 2.4 GHz.

162
Q
What is the maximum number of transmit and receive antennae supported by the currently ratified IEEE 802.11 wireless LAN standards?
2
4
8
16
A

C. The 802.11ac standard supports multiple input and multiple output (MIMO) through the use of up to eight antennae on a single device. The 802.1n standard is the only standard that supports MIMO, with up to four antennae.

163
Q
Which of the following is the term for the network name that you use to connect a client device to an access point on a wireless LAN?
BSS
ESS
SSID
BSSID
A

C. The Service Set Identifier (SSID) is the name that you use when connecting to a wireless network. A Basic Service Set (BSS) refers to the wireless network itself, consisting of a single access point and a number of clients. An Extended Service Set (ESS) consists of two or more BSSs, using multiple access points. The Basic Service Set Identifier (BSSID) is the MAC address of the access point associated with a BSS.

164
Q

Which of the following IEEE wireless LAN standards define devices with a maximum aggregate channel width of 20 MHz? (Choose all correct answers.)

  1. 11a
  2. 11g
  3. 11n
  4. 11ac
A

A and B. Devices conforming to the IEEE 802.11a and 802.11g standards can only use a single 20 MHz channel. IEEE 802.n devices can use channel bonding to join two channels together and achieve an aggregate channel width of 40 MHz. IEEE 802.11ac devices can bond up to eight channels, for an aggregate width of 160 MHz.

165
Q
Which of the following cloud service models enables you to select the operating system you want to install?
IaaS
PaaS
SaaS
All of the above
A

A. The Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) model provides consumers with processing, storage, and networking resources that they can use to install and run operating systems and other software of their choice. Platform as a Service (PaaS) provides consumers with the ability to install applications of their choice on a server installed by the provider. Software as a Service (SaaS) provides consumers with access to specific applications running on the provider’s servers.

166
Q
When you contract with a provider to obtain email services for your company using their servers in the public cloud, which of the following service models are you using?
IaaS
PaaS
SaaS
None of the above
A

C. The Software as a Service (SaaS) model provides consumers with access to a specific application running on the provider’s servers. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) provides the consumers with processing, storage, and networking resources that they can use to install and run operating systems and other software of their choice. Platform as a Service (PaaS) provides consumers with the ability to install applications of their choice on a server installed by the provider.

167
Q

Which of the following cloud service models provides the consumer with the most control over the cloud resources?
IaaS
PaaS
SaaS
IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS all provide the same degree of control.

A

A. The Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) model provides the consumers with the most control, as the provider furnishes processing, storage, and networking resources that the consumer can use as needed. Platform as a Service (PaaS) provides consumers with the ability to install applications of their choice on a server furnished by the provider, but they have only limited control over the server and no control over the underlying resources. Software as a Service (SaaS) provides consumers with access to a specific application running on the provider’s servers, but the consumers have no control over the operating system, the servers, or the underlying resources.A. The Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) model provides the consumers with the most control, as the provider furnishes processing, storage, and networking resources that the consumer can use as needed. Platform as a Service (PaaS) provides consumers with the ability to install applications of their choice on a server furnished by the provider, but they have only limited control over the server and no control over the underlying resources. Software as a Service (SaaS) provides consumers with access to a specific application running on the provider’s servers, but the consumers have no control over the operating system, the servers, or the underlying resources.

168
Q
Alice has just created a new Windows Server 2016 virtual machine using remote controls provided by a cloud service provider on the Internet. Which of the following cloud architectures is she using? (Choose all correct answers.)
IaaS
PaaS
SaaS
Public cloud
Private cloud
Hybrid cloud
A

A and D. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) provides the consumers like Alice with processing, storage, and networking resources that they can use to install and run operating systems and other software of their choice. In the public cloud model, one organization functions as the provider, and another organization—in this case, Alice—consumes the services of the provider.
Platform as a Service (PaaS) provides consumers with the ability to install applications of their choice on a server furnished by the provider. Software as a Service (SaaS) provides consumers with access to a specific application running on the provider’s servers, but the consumers have no control over the operating system, the servers, or the underlying resources. In a private cloud, the same organization that utilizes the cloud services is also the sole owner of the infrastructure that provides those services. A hybrid cloud is a combination of public and private infrastructure so that the consumer organization is only a partial owner of the infrastructure.

169
Q
In which of the following cloud models does a single organization function as both the provider and the consumer of all cloud services?
Public cloud
Private cloud
Hybrid cloud
Ad hoc cloud
A

B. In a private cloud, the same organization that utilizes the cloud services is also the sole owner of the infrastructure that provides those services. In the public cloud model, one organization functions as the provider, and another organization consumes the services of the provider. A hybrid cloud is a combination of public and private infrastructure so that the consumer organization is only a partial owner of the infrastructure. There is no such thing as an ad hoc cloud model.

170
Q
Ed is the overnight manager of his company’s datacenter, and he is responsible for both private and public resources in the company’s hybrid cloud. Due to a new TV commercial shown that night, the company’s website experiences a massive upsurge in traffic. The web server farm on the private cloud is being overwhelmed, so Ed configures some virtual machines in the public cloud to take up the slack. Which of the following is a common term for what Ed has done?
Cloud busting
Cloud bursting
Cloud splitting
Cloud migrating
A

B. Cloud bursting is a common term for the offloading of excess traffic from private to public cloud resources when necessary to maintain satisfactory performance levels.

171
Q
Microsoft’s Outlook.com email service is an example of which of the following cloud service models?
IaaS
PaaS
SaaS
None of the above
A

C. Software as a Service (SaaS) provides consumers with access to a specific application running on the provider’s servers, in this case an email service. Consumers have control over some of their email functions, but they have no control over the operating system, the servers, or the underlying resources. The Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) model provides the consumers with access to processing, storage, and networking resources that the consumer can use as needed. Platform as a Service (PaaS) provides consumers with the ability to install applications of their choice on a server furnished by the provider.

172
Q

Which of the following statements about cloud delivery models is true?
A public cloud is inherently insecure because anyone can access it.
A private cloud consists of hardware that is all located in a single datacenter.
A hybrid cloud enables administrators to migrate services between public and private resources.
Public, private, and hybrid clouds all utilize the same hardware resources.

A

C. A hybrid cloud consists of both public and private resources. One of its main advantages is that administrators can move services from private to public cloud servers and back again as needed, depending on the current workload. Public cloud resources require authentication, so while they might be less secure than a private cloud, they are not inherently insecure. The term private cloud refers to hardware resources that are owned and operated by a single organization, regardless of their location. The various cloud delivery models do not impose specific hardware resource requirements.

173
Q
Ed has just created a new Windows application for his company, and he wants to deploy it in the public cloud. He is looking for a provider that will furnish his company with a fully installed and configured Windows server on which he can install and run his application. Which of the following service models is he seeking to use?
IaaS
PaaS
SaaS
None of the above
A

B. The Platform as a Service (PaaS) model provides consumers with the ability to install applications of their choice on a server furnished by the provider. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) provides the consumers with processing, storage, and networking resources that they can use to install and run operating systems and other software of their choice. Software as a Service (SaaS) provides consumers with access to a specific application running on the provider’s servers.

174
Q

in which of the following DNS transactions does the querying system generate a recursive query? (Choose all correct answers.)
A DNS client sends the server name www.adatum.com from a URL to its designated DNS server for resolution.
A client’s DNS server sends a request to a root domain server to find the authoritative server for the com top-level domain.
A client’s DNS server sends a request to the com top-level domain server to find the authoritative server for the adatum.com domain.
A client’s DNS server, which has been configured to function as a forwarder, sends the server name www.adatum.com from a URL to its ISP’s DNS server for resolution.
A client’s DNS server sends a request to the adatum.com domain server to find the IP address associated with the server name www.

A

A and D. When a client sends a name resolution query to its DNS server, it uses a recursive request so that the server will take on the responsibility for resolving the name. The only other use of recursive requests is in the case of a forwarder, which is configured to pass that responsibility on to another server. All of the other queries issued by the client’s server to the various domain authorities are iterative queries.

175
Q
ich of the following devices would you most likely configure to function as a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server?
A wireless router
An unmanaged switch
A hub
A bridge
A

A. Most wireless routers are designed to provide connecting workstations with IP addresses and other TCP/IP configuration parameters. Switches and bridges are data link layer devices and hubs are physical layer devices, none of which are capable providing clients with network layer IP addresses.

176
Q

Which of the following protocols are responsible for assigning IP addresses to hosts? (Choose all correct answers.)
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
Domain Name System (DNS)
File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
Bootstrap Protocol (BOOTP)

A

A and E. DHCP and BOOTP are both designed to allocate IP addresses to hosts. The primary difference between the two is that DHCP is capable of dynamic allocation and BOOTP is not. DNS resolves hostnames into IP addresses, and ARP resolves IP addresses into data link layer hardware (or MAC) addresses. FTP is designed to transfer files between systems and has no role in IP address allocation.

177
Q
Which of the following Domain Name System (DNS) resource records is used only for reverse name resolution?
MX
AAAA
CNAME
PTR
A

D. Like A and AAAA records, Pointer (PTR) records contain hostnames and IP addresses, but they are used for reverse name resolution—that is, resolving IP addresses into hostnames. A Mail Exchange (MX) record specifies the mail server that the domain should use. Canonical name (CNAME) records specify aliases for a given host name. An AAAA resource record maps a hostname to an IPv6 address for name resolution purposes.

178
Q
201.Which of the following features is supported by DHCP, but not by BOOTP and RARP?
Dynamic address allocation
Relay agents
Manual address allocation
Automatic address allocation
A

A. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) can dynamically allocate IP address to clients and reclaim them when their leases expire. Bootstrap Protocol (BOOTP) and Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP) can allocate addresses automatically or manually, but they cannot reclaim them. DHCP and BOOTP both support relay agents.

179
Q
Which of the following message types are exchanged by Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) clients and servers during a successful IP address allocation transaction? (Choose all correct answers.)
DHCPDISCOVER
DHCPOFFER
DHCPINFORM
DHCPACK
DHCPREQUEST
DHCPNAK
DHCPRENEW
DHCPRELEASE
A

A, B, D, and E. In a successful DHCP address allocation, the client issues DHCPDISCOVER broadcasts to locate servers, and the servers reply with DHCPOFFER messages containing addresses. Then, the client sends a DHCPREQUEST message to one server accepting an offered address, to which the server replied with a DHCPACK. DHCPNAK messages are only used in unsuccessful transactions, and DHCPRENEW, DHCPRELEASE, and DHCPINFORM messages are not used during the address allocation process.

180
Q
Which of the following message types are exchanged by Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) clients and servers during a successful IP address lease renewal transaction? (Choose all correct answers.)
DHCPDISCOVER
DHCPOFFER
DHCPINFORM
DHCPACK
DHCPREQUEST
DHCPNAK
DHCPRENEW
DHCPRELEASE
A

D and E. In a successful DHCP address renewal transaction, the client issues a DHCPDREQUEST message, and the server replies with a DHCPACK. DHCPNAK messages are only used in unsuccessful transactions, and the other message types are not used during the address renewal process.

181
Q
Which of the following is not a protocol used to allocate IP address assignments to clients on a network?
ARP
RARP
BOOTP
DHCP
A

A. Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP), Bootstrap Protocol (BOOTP), and Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) are all protocols that are designed to allocate IP addresses to clients. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP), on the other hand, resolves existing IP addresses into data link layer MAC (or hardware) addresses.

182
Q

Which of the following best describes what happens when a DNS server receives an iterative name resolution query?
The DNS server responds immediately to the query with the best information it has in its resource records or in its cache or, failing that, with an error message stating that it could not resolve the requested name.
The DNS server attempts to resolve the requested name by checking its own resource records and cache or, failing that, by issuing its own iterative queries to other DNS servers.
The DNS server attempts to resolve the requested name by checking its own resource records and cache or, failing that, by forwarding the name resolution request to another DNS server in a recursive query.
The DNS server responds immediately if it is the authoritative server for the domain in which the requested name is located. Otherwise, it returns an error message stating that it could not resolve the requested name.

A

A. When a DNS server receives an iterative query, it responds immediately with the best information that it has available or with an error message. It does not send queries to other servers.

183
Q
What is the term used to refer to the DNS client mechanism that generates name resolution queries and sends them to DNS servers?
Requestor
Forwarder
Authority
Resolver
A

D. The client component of the Domain Name System is called the resolver. Requestor is a generic term for any system issuing requests, and only DNS servers can be authorities or forwarders.

184
Q
Which of the following TCP/IP parameters, configured on an end system, specifies the IP address of a device that performs domain name resolution services?
WINS Server Addresses
Default Gateway
DNS Server Addresses
Subnet Gateway
A

C. The DNS Server Addresses parameter contains the addresses of servers that resolve domain names into IP addresses. Windows Internet Name Service (WINS) provides Network Basic Input/Output System (NetBIOS) name resolution. The Default Gateway parameter defines the local router to be used to access other networks. There is no such parameter as Subnet Gateway.

185
Q
Which IP address allocation method is not supported by Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)?
Manual
Dynamic
Stable
Automatic
A

C. Stable is not a DHCP allocation method. DHCP supports three allocation methods: manual, dynamic, and automatic.

186
Q
On a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server, what is the name of the element you create to specify which IP addresses the server should assign to clients?
Range
Scope
Pool
Subnet
A

B. On a DHCP server, you create a scope that consists of a beginning and an ending IP address. Range, pool, and subnet are not technical terms for DHCP.

187
Q

Why is it necessary to use a relay agent to enable a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server to assign IP addresses to clients on other networks? (Choose all correct answers.)
Because DHCP requires a separate license for each subnet
Because clients cannot initiate an address assignment by contacting DHCP servers on other networks directly
Because DHCP must use the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) to communicate with clients
Because the DHCP address assignment process relies on broadcast transmissions

A

B and D. DHCP clients cannot contact servers on different networks to initiate an address assignment. Clients locate DHCP servers by transmitting broadcast messages, and broadcasts are limited to the local network. Relay agents forward the broadcast messages to other networks, enabling the server to assign IP addresses to clients on other subnets. DHCP does not require special licenses. DHCP uses User Datagram Protocol (UDP) transmissions, not TCP.

188
Q
Which of the following Domain Name System (DNS) resource records is used to resolve a hostname into an IPv6 address?
MX
PTR
AAAA
CNAME
A

C. An AAAA resource record maps a hostname to an IPv6 address for name resolution purposes. A Mail Exchange (MX) record specifies the mail server that the domain should use. Pointer (PTR) records also contain hostnames and IP addresses, but they are used for reverse name resolution—that is, resolving IP addresses into hostnames. Canonical name (CNAME) records specify aliases for a given hostname.

189
Q
Ralph has configured a server called NE6 to function as a web server. He does not want to change the server’s existing name, but he wants it to be accessible to clients using the name www. What Domain Name System (DNS) modification can Ralph make to accomplish this?
Create an additional A resource record.
Create a new CNAME resource record.
Modify the existing A resource record.
Create a new PTR resource record.
A

B. A canonical name (CNAME) resource record specifies an alternative host name (or alias) for a system already registered in the DNS. By creating a CNAME record specifying the www name, the server can be addressed using either NE6 or www. Creating an additional A resource record will cause the server to be recognized using one name or the other, but not both. Modifying the existing A record will change the hostname. PTR resource records are used only for reverse name resolution.

190
Q
Which of the following options should you configure on a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server to supply clients with a default gateway address?
Router
Time Server
Name Server
LPR Server
A

A. The Router option specifies the addresses of routers on the local network, including the default gateway router. The Time Server option specifies the addresses of servers providing time signals to the network. The Name Server option specifies the addresses of up to ten name resolution servers (other than DNS servers) on the network. The LPR Server option specifies the addresses of line printer servers on the network.

191
Q
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) clients rely on which of the following types of transmissions to locate and initiate contact with DHCP servers on the local network?
Unicast
Broadcast
Multicast
Anycast
A

B. DHCP clients use broadcasts to transmit DHCPDISCOVER messages on the local network. DHCP servers are then required to respond to the broadcasts. DHCP clients cannot use unicast, multicast, or anycast messages to initiate contact with DHCP servers because they have no way of learning their addresses.

192
Q
Which of the following Domain Name System (DNS) resource record types specifies the IP addresses of the authoritative DNS servers for a particular zone?
NS
PTR
MX
SRV
A

A. The Name Server (NS) resource record identifies the authoritative servers for a particular DNS zone. Pointer (PTR) resource records are used to resolve IP addresses into hostnames. Mail Exchange (MX) records identify the mail servers for a particular domain. Service Locator (SRV) records identify the designated servers for a particular application.

193
Q
Which of the following must you create on a DHCP server if you want it to always assign the same IP address to a particular computer?
Exclusion
Scope
Reservation
Relay
A

C. On a DHCP server, a reservation is a permanent IP address assignment to a specific MAC address. A scope is a range of IP addresses to be allocated to clients. An exclusion is a range of IP addresses that is to be excluded from a scope. A relay is a component that routes DHCP traffic between networks.

194
Q
Which of the following DHCP address allocation methods enables the server to reclaim IP addresses when they are no longer in use by clients?
Automatic
Dynamic
Manual
Static
A

B. Dynamic allocation enables a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server to lease IP addresses to clients for a specific time interval. When the lease period expires, the client can renew it, if it is still using the address. If the address is no longer in use when the lease expires, it is returned to the scope for reallocation. Automatic allocation permanently assigns an IP address from the scope to a client. Manual and static allocation are two terms describing the allocation of a specific IP address to a specific client.

195
Q
Which of the following technologies enables the IP addresses assigned to clients by a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server to be automatically added to the DNS namespace?
Reverse name resolution
Dynamic DNS
Automatic allocation
HOSTS
A

B. Dynamic DNS (DDNS) is an addition to the DNS standards that eliminates the need for administrators to manually create certain DNS resource records. For example, when a DHCP server allocates an address to a client, DDNS creates a host (A) record containing the host name of the client and the newly allocated IP address. Reverse name resolution is the process of looking up host names based on IP addresses. Automatic allocation is a DHCP process by which IP addresses are permanently assigned to clients. HOSTS is a text-based name resolution method that predates DNS.

196
Q
Which of the following is a tool that integrates DHCP and DNS so that each is aware of the changes made by the other?
HOSTS
DHCPv6
IPAM
APIPA
A

C. IP address management (IPAM) is a system for planning, managing, and monitoring the IP address space for an entire enterprise network. IPAM provides links between the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and the Domain Name System (DNS) so that each is aware of the naming and addressing changes made by the other. DHCPv6 is an IPv6 version of the DHCP service, which enables it to allocate IPv6 addresses to network clients. HOSTS is a text-based name resolution method that predates DNS. Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) is the mechanism that enables a DHCP client to assign itself an address when no DHCP servers are accessible.

197
Q
Which of the following protocols is used to synchronize computer clocks to a time signal provided by a server?
TFTP
HTTP
SMTP
NTP
A

D. The Network Time Protocol (NTP) is used to synchronize computer clocks. Time signals can be provided by internal servers or time servers on the Internet. The Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) is used to transfer files between systems without authentication. The Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is used to exchange web traffic between clients and servers. The Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is used to transmit email traffic between clients and servers.

198
Q
Which of the words in the fully qualified domain name (FQDN) www.paris.mydomain.org represents the topmost layer in the DNS namespace hierarchy?
www
paris
mydomain
org
A

D. The topmost layer in the DNS hierarchy is represented by org, which is a top-level domain. mydomain is a second-level domain registered by a particular organization. Paris is a subdomain within mydomain, and www is the name of a particular host in the paris.mydomain.org domain.

199
Q
Which of the following Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) options prevents the client from transmitting IP datagrams that circulate endlessly around the network?
Interface MTU
Default IP TTL
ARP cache timeout
TCP keepalive interval
A

B. The Default IP Time-to-live (TTL) option specifies the maximum number of seconds or hops allowed to an IP datagram before a router removes it from the network. This prevents datagrams from circulating endlessly. The Interface Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU) option specifies the maximum size of an IP datagram. The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) cache timeout specifies how long entries containing the IP address assigned by the server can remain in the cache maintained by a client’s ARP implementation. The Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) keepalive interval option specifies the number of seconds that the client should wait before transmitting a keepalive message over a TCP connection.

200
Q
In designing a network for a client, Ed has decided to use both internal and external DNS servers. Which of the following resources should Ed register with the external DNS server? (Choose all correct answers.)
Company database servers
Internet web servers
Incoming email servers
Domain controllers
A

B and C. The external DNS server should contain records only for the resources that must be accessible from the Internet, such as web servers and public email servers. For security reasons, servers containing sensitive data, such as database servers and domain controllers, should be registered on the internal DNS server.

201
Q
Which of the following features enables an intrusion detection system (IDS) to monitor all of the traffic on a switched network?
Stateful packet inspection
Port mirroring
Trunking
Service dependent filtering
A

B. Port mirroring is a feature found in some switches that takes the form of a special port that runs in promiscuous mode. This means that the switch copies all incoming traffic to that port, as well as to the dedicated destination ports. By connecting an IDS or protocol analyzer to this port, an administrator can access all of the network’s traffic. Stateful packet inspection is a firewall feature that enables the device to examine network and transport layer header fields, looking for patterns that indicate damaging behaviors, such as IP spoofing, SYN floods, and teardrop attacks. Trunking is a switch feature that enables administrators to create VLANs that span multiple switches. Service dependent filtering is a firewall feature that blocks traffic based on transport layer port numbers.

202
Q
Which of the following Domain Name System (DNS) resource records is used to implement email security mechanisms such as Sender Policy Framework and DomainKey Identified Mail?
MX
PTR
TXT
CNAME
A

C. A TXT resource record contains a text string that can be used for various applications. Sender Policy Framework (SPF) inserts a list of authorized email hosts into the TXT record and DomainKey Identified Email (DKIM) inserts a public key. MX, PTR, and CNAME records are not used for SPF and DKIM. A Mail Exchange (MX) record specifies the mail server that the domain should use. Pointer (PTR) records also contain host names and IP addresses, but they are used for reverse name resolution, that is, resolving IP addresses into host names. Canonical name (CNAME) records specify aliases for a given host name.