Chapter2 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following best describes the function of the network medium?
The network medium provides the physical connection between networked computers.
The network medium provides the protocol used to transmit data between end systems.
The network medium passes data between two routers.
The network medium processes electrical or light signals and converts them to data.

A

A. The network medium provides the physical connection between networked computers. This connection can be made through a copper-based, fiber-optic, or wireless medium. The network medium is not a protocol, and it does pass data; it only carries signals. The network medium does not process electrical or light pulses and convert them to data; it carries only the signals generated by transceivers.

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2
Q
Which of the following signal types is carried by copper cable?
Fiber optic
Microwave
Infrared
Electrical
A

D. Copper cables use electrical signals to transmit data. Fiber optic is a cable type, not a signal type. Microwave signals can’t be transmitted over copper cable. Infrared signals are used only for wireless networks.

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3
Q
Identify the organizations that developed the general cable type standards for voice and data communications that are currently in use, and identify the document name.
ANSI/TVA, document C568
TWA/ANSI/EIA, document T530-A
EIA/ANSI/TWA, document 802.2
TDA/EIA/TIA, document 802.11
ANSI/TIA/EIA, document T568b
A

E. The three organizations that collectively developed the T568b document, which defines the standard for a structured cabling system for voice and data communications, are the American National Standards Institute (ANSI), the Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA), and the Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA). All of the other options are not standards organizations or cabling standards.

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4
Q

Which of the following cable types and connectors are used to attach a television set to a cable television (CATV) network?
A fiber-optic cable and a straight tip (ST) connector
A coaxial cable and a Bayonet-Neill-Concelman (BNC) connector
A twisted pair cable and an RJ-45 connector
A coaxial cable and an F-type connector
An AUI cable and a vampire tap connector

A

D. The cable type and connector used to attach a television set to a CATV network is a coaxial cable with a screw-on F-type connector. Although CATV networks typically use fiber-optic cables and ST connectors for outdoor connections, they do not use fiber for internal connections to television sets. Coaxial cables with BNC connectors are most commonly used for Thin Ethernet LANs, not CATV network connections. Twisted pair cables and RJ45 connectors are used for Ethernet LANs and telephone networks, but not CATV networks. AUI cables and vampire tap connectors are used for Thick Ethernet networks.

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5
Q
Which of the following cable types is used for Thick Ethernet network segments?
RG-8
RG-58
RJ-45
RJ-11
A

A. The cable type used for Thick Ethernet segments is a coaxial cable called RG-8. RG-58 is used exclusively on Thin Ethernet segments. RJ45 is a connector type used in twisted pair cabling for data networks. RJ11 is a connector type used in twisted pair cabling for telecommunications networks.

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6
Q
Which of the following cable types is used for Thin Ethernet network segments?
RG-8
RG-58
RJ-45
RJ-11
A

B. RG-58 coaxial cable is used exclusively for Thin Ethernet segments. RG-8 cable is used for Thick Ethernet segments. RJ45 is a connector type used in twisted pair cabling for data networks. RJ11 is a connector type used in twisted pair cabling for telecommunications networks.

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7
Q
Which of the following telecommunications components is all but obsolete and is found only in old, analog telephone installations?
66 block
110 block
Patch panel
Fiber distribution panel
A

A. A 66 block is a type of punchdown block for telephone systems that was first introduced in 1962. By the year 2000, nearly all commercial telephone installations had begun using 110 blocks instead; 110 blocks are still in use, as are patch panels and fiber distribution panels, both of which are termination points for network cable runs.

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8
Q
Which of the following coaxial cable types are still in general use? (Choose all correct answers.)
RG-6
RG-8
RG-58
RG-59
A

A and D. RG-6 and RG-59 are 75 ohm cables that are still used for cable television and similar connections. RG-8 and RG-58 are 50 ohm cables that were formerly used for Thick Ethernet and Thin Ethernet, respectively, but are no longer in general use.

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9
Q

Under which of the following conditions might the local building code require that a data network use plenum cable?
When multiple cables run through the same conduit
When cables run near to devices that generate electromagnetic interference (EMI)
When cables must run through heating ducts
When cable runs exceed the maximum length specified by the physical layer specification

A

C. A plenum space is an area of a building that provides air circulation as part of its heating or cooling system, such as a heating or air conditioning duct. Plenum cables have a sheath made of a fire retardant material that does not outgas toxic fumes should it be exposed to fire. When network cables are installed in plenum spaces, many local building codes require that installers use plenum-rated cables conforming to specific standards. Plenum cables provide no benefit when installed near other cables, or EMI sources, or when they exceed specified lengths.

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10
Q

Which of the following statements about the differences between fiber-optic angle-polished connectors (APCs) and ultra-polished connectors (UPCs) are true? (Choose all correct answers.)
APCs should only be joined to other APCs.
APCs generate more insertion loss that UPCs.
UPCs generate more return loss than APCs.
UPCs use a green connector boot or body.

A

A, B, and C. Joining an APC to a UPC creates a mismatched connection that generates an extremely high rate of insertion loss (attenuation). APCs do generate more insertion loss than UPCs and less return loss (reflection). It is APCs, not UPCs, that use green boots or bodies on the connectors.

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11
Q
Which of the following is not a type of fiber-optic connector?
SC
MTRJ
ST
BNC
A

D. Bayonet-Neill-Concelman (BNC) is a type of connector used with coaxial cable. Subscriber connector (SC), mechanical transfer registered jack (MTRJ), and straight tip (ST) are all types of fiber-optic connectors.

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12
Q
Which of the following physical layer transceiver module standards is the oldest and therefore the most obsolete?
SFP
BiDi
QSFP
GBIC
A

D. The Gigabit Interface Converter (GBIC) transceiver standard was first published in 1995 and defines a maximum data transfer rate of 1.25 Gbps. It was rendered all but obsolete by the Small Form-factor Pluggable (SFP) standard, introduced in 2001, which ran at the same maximum speed but was smaller in size. Subsequent variations on the standard, such as Quad Small Form-Factor Pluggable (QSFP), defined devices with faster transfer rates. Bidirectional (BiDi) transceivers were developed to eliminate the need for separate transmit and receive fibers by using multiplexing.

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13
Q
Which of the following cable types is typically configured in a star topology, uses eight copper conductors arranged in four pairs, and uses RJ-45 connectors?
RG-8
Twisted pair
RG-58
Fiber optic
A

B. There are two main types of twisted pair wiring used for data communications: unshielded twisted pair (UTP) and shielded twisted pair (STP). Both types can be used in a star topology. UTP and STP cables contain eight copper conductors twisted in four pairs. UTP and STP cables use RJ45 connectors to connect end systems to switches, patch panels, and wall plates. RG-8 and RG-58 coaxial cable can only be used in a bus topology. Fiber-optic cable can be used in a star topology, but it uses either glass or plastic conductors and doesn’t use RJ45 connectors.

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14
Q

Which of the following statements explains the purpose of the twists in twisted pair cabling?
The twists prevent collisions.
The twists completely eliminate crosstalk and electromagnetic interference (EMI) in adjacent wire pairs.
The twists prevent crosstalk in adjacent wire pairs and limit the effects of EMI on the signals carried over the cable.
The twists extend the bend radius allowance of the cable.

A

C. The twists in a twisted pair cable prevent the signals on the different wires from interfering with each other (which is called crosstalk) and also provide resistance to outside electromagnetic interference. The twists have no effect on collisions. The twists can’t completely eliminate the effects of EMI. Twists have nothing to do with the bend radius allowance for the cable.

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15
Q
Which of the following tools do cable installers use to add connectors such as RJ-45 and RJ-11 to twisted pair cabling?
A crimper
A splicer
A pigtail
A patch
A

A. A crimper or crimping tool is a jawed device that has a set of dies in it. Installers use a crimper to squeeze the two halves of an RJ45 or RJ11 connector together, with the wires inside securing the connector to the cable. Installers use a splicing tool to splice two cable segments together. There is no tool called a pigtail or a patch.

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16
Q

Which of the following combinations of attributes describes the cable used for a Thin Ethernet network?
RJ-45, 50-ohm, 0.270-inch, coaxial cable with BNC connectors
RG-59, 75-ohm, 0.242-inch, coaxial cable with F connectors
RG-58, 50-ohm, 0.195-inch, coaxial cable with BNC connectors
RG-8, 50-ohm, 0.405-inch, coaxial cable with N connectors
RJ-6, 75-ohm, 0.242-inch, coaxial cable with BNC connectors

A

C. Thin Ethernet networks use a type of 50-ohm coaxial cable called RG-58, which is 0.195 inches in diameter and uses BNC connectors. 75-ohm coaxial cable with F connectors is used for cable television networks, and RG-8 coaxial is the cable that Thick Ethernet networks use.

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17
Q
Which of the following connector types are typically associated with Ethernet networks? (Choose all correct answers.)
F-type
BNC
RJ-45
DB-9
N-type
A

B, C, and E. Thin Ethernet networks use BNC connectors. Thick Ethernet networks use N-type connectors. All unshielded twisted pair (UTP) Ethernet networks use RJ45 connectors. F-type connectors are used with coaxial cable, typically for cable television installations. DB-9 connectors are commonly used for serial communications ports.

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18
Q
Which of the following connector types was typically associated with a T-connector attached to the computer?
RJ45
MTRJ
8P8C
BNC
F-type
A

D. Thin Ethernet networks use a type of coaxial cable that runs from each computer to the next one, forming a bus topology. To connect the cable to the network computers, each network interface adapter has a T-connector attached to it, with two additional male BNC connectors, to which you connect two lengths of network cabling.

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19
Q
Which of the following connector types are associated with fiber-optic cables? (Choose all correct answers.)
RJ11
ST
F-type
LC
MTRJ
A

B, D, and E. Fiber-optic cable connectors all function on the same basic principles, but there are a variety of form factors from which to choose, including straight tip (ST), local connector (LC), and mechanical transfer–registered jack (MTRJ). RJ11 is a twisted pair cable connector, and F connectors are for coaxial cable.

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20
Q
Which of the following types of cable, when installed, sometimes employed a device called a vampire tap?
Unshielded twisted pair
Shielded twisted pair
Multimode fiber optic
Single-mode fiber optic
Coaxial
A

E. Thick Ethernet installations used a type of coaxial cable called RG-8. To connect a node to the network, installers ran a separate cable called an attachment unit interface (AUI) cable from the computer to the RG-8 and connected it using a device called a vampire tap that pierced the sheathing to make contact with the conductors within. All of the other cable types listed use different types of connectors.

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21
Q
In an internal UTP cable installation, each horizontal cable run connects a wall plate in the work area to a centralized cabling nexus in a telecommunications room. Which of the following is the correct term for this cabling nexus?
Telepole
Demarc
Backbone
Patch panel
A

D. The cabling nexus in a telecommunications room is called a patch panel. A telepole is a tool used for installing cables. A backbone is a network that connects other local area networks (LANs) together. A demarcation point, or demarc, is the location at which a telecommunication provider’s service meets the customer’s private network.

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22
Q

Which of the following statements about single-mode and multimode fiber-optic cables are true? (Choose all correct answers.)
Single-mode cables can span longer distances than multimode cables.
Single-mode cables are more resistant to electromagnetic interference than multimode cables.
Single-mode cables are more difficult to install than multimode cables.
Single-mode cables have a much larger core diameter than multimode cables.

A

A and C. Single-mode cables are capable of spanning longer distances than multimode because they have a narrower core diameter, reducing signal dispersion rates. Because the core consists of fewer (typically one or two) strands, single-mode cables are less flexible than multimode and cannot bend around corners as easily, making them more difficult to install. Because they use light impulses rather than electricity, all fiber-optic cables are completely immune to electromagnetic interference.

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23
Q
Which of the following components are typically used only for telephone cable installations, and not for data networking? (Choose all correct answers.)
66 blocks
110 blocks
25 pair UTP cables
100 pair UTP cables
A

A, C, and D. Voice telephone networks do not have performance requirements as strict as those of data networks, so they are less liable to suffer from crosstalk and other types of interference. As a result, installers often use larger UTP cables for telephone connections. UTP cables are available in configurations containing 25 wire pairs and 100 wire pairs in a single sheath, which enables installers to service multiple users with a single cable. The punchdown blocks for UTP data networks with 8P8C connectors are called 110 blocks. The older standard for punchdown blocks is the 66 block. Rarely used for data networking, 66 blocks are still found in many telephone service installations.

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24
Q

Which of the following statements about single-mode fiber-optic cable are true? (Choose all correct answers.)
Single-mode cables use an LED light source, whereas multimode cables use a laser.
Single-mode cables can span longer distances than multimode cables.
Single-mode cables have a smaller core filament than multimode cables.
Single-mode cables have a smaller bend radius than multimode, making them easier to install.
Single-mode fiber-optic cables require a ground, whereas multimode cables do not.

A

B and C. Single-mode cables have a smaller core filament and can span longer distances than multimode cables. Single-mode cables also use a laser light source, have a larger bend radius, and do not require a ground.

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25
Q
Which of the following tools do cable installers use to connect bulk cable runs to wall plates and patch panels?
A crimper
A splicer
A pigtail
A punchdown block tool
A

D. Installers use a punchdown block tool to connect the ends of bulk cable runs to jacks in wall plates and patch panels. A crimper or crimping tool is a jawed device that enables installers to squeeze the two halves of an RJ45 or RJ11 connector together, securing the connector to the cable. Installers use a splicing tool to splice two cable segments together. There is no tool called a pigtail.

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26
Q

Ralph has been hired by a client to install cabling to connect two existing networks. The two networks are in different buildings approximately 1,000 feet apart. The cable type must support Gigabit Ethernet data rates of 1,000 megabits per second (Mbps) and provide a high level of resistance to electromagnetic interference (EMI). Your client wants the most economical cabling solution that meets their needs. Which of the following cable types best meets the needs of this client?

Multimode fiber-optic cable
Shielded twisted pair (STP) cable
Unshielded twisted pair (UTP) cable
Thin coaxial cable
Single-mode fiber-optic cable
A

A. Multimode fiber-optic cable best meets the client’s needs. Fiber-optic cable supports the required 1000 Mbps data rate and can connect networks that are more than 1,000 feet apart. Fiber-optic cable is immune to EMI. Although both multimode and single-mode fiber would meet the corporation’s general needs, multimode is best in this scenario because it is less expensive than single-mode fiber. Twisted pair wiring (STP or UTP) meets the data rate and cost requirements but does not support connections longer than 100 meters. Thin coaxial cable does not support the data rate or distances longer than 185 meters.

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27
Q
Which of the following are connector types used with coaxial cables? (Choose all correct answers.)
BNC
F-type
N-type
ST
RJ-11
A

A, B, and C. BNC connectors are used for coaxial Thin Ethernet networks, and N-type connectors with Thick Ethernet. F-type connectors are used for coaxial cable television installations. Straight tip (ST) connectors are used with fiber-optic cable, and RJ11 connectors are used for telephone installations.

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28
Q

Alice has been hired by a corporation to design the cabling for their network. The corporation just moved in to two different floors of an older building, a retail space on the ground floor and an office space on the 43rd floor. The building has existing Category 5 (CAT5) unshielded twisted pair (UTP) cable. Alice’s client wants two separate local area networks (LANs), one on each of the two floors, with a backbone network connecting them. They want a 1 gigabit per second (Gbps) data rate for each LAN but plan on migrating to 10 Gbps in the future. The two networks are approximately 200 meters apart. Which of the following solutions best meets the client’s needs?

Install Category 6 (CAT6) or Category 6a (CAT6a) UTP cable for the LANs. These cables run at 1 Gbps and provide a migration path to 10 Gbps. Use twisted pair cable for the backbone network.

Use the existing CAT5 cabling for the LANs since CAT5 runs at 1 Gbps. Use thick coaxial cable for the backbone network.

Install CAT6 or CAT6a UTP cable for the LANs. These cables run at 1 Gbps and provide a migration path to 10 Gbps. Use multimode fiber-optic cable for the backbone network.

Install CAT6 or CAT6a UTP cable for the LANs. These cables run at 1 Gbps and provide a migration path to 10 Gbps. Use the existing CAT5 cable for the backbone network.

A

C. Either CAT6 or CAT6a UTP cable will provide the currently required 1 Gbps data rate, with a migration path to 10 Gbps in the future. The backbone cabling connecting the two LANs needs to be fiber optic, since it exceeds the distance limitations of twisted pair and coaxial cable. CAT5 cable conceivably runs at 1 Gbps; however, it does not run at 10 Gbps.

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29
Q
A maintenance worker, while replacing a light fixture in an office building, accidentally severs a network cable in the drop ceiling. The tenants use a variety of local area network (LAN) technologies throughout the structure, but on that particular floor there are three separate LANs: a 10-node Thin Ethernet LAN using coaxial cable in a bus topology, a 25-node Gigabit Ethernet LAN using twisted pair cable in a star topology, and a 5-node Fiber Distributed Data Interface (FDDI) LAN using multimode fiber-optic cable in a double ring topology. Without knowing which of the LANs the severed cable belongs to, what is the maximum number of computers that could be directly affected by the cable break?
0
1
5
10
25
40
A

D. The Thin Ethernet LAN is the network most endangered by the cable break. If a bus network is severed, all of the workstations on it are affected because the cable segments are no longer terminated at one end. The Gigabit Ethernet network uses a star topology, which means that only the one computer using the severed cable could be disconnected from the network. An FDDI double ring network can survive a single cable break without any workstations being affected.

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30
Q

In the punchdown process for unshielded twisted pair (UTP) cable, which of the following is the last step that you perform when connecting bulk cables to jacks in wall plates and patch panels?

Cut off the excess wire that protrudes past the contacts.
Press the bare wire down between the two metal contacts that hold it in place.
Strip some of the insulating sheath off the cable end to expose the wires.
Insert the wires into the appropriate contacts in the jack.
Strip a small amount of insulation off each wire.
Separate the twisted wire pairs at the ends.

A

A. You use a punchdown block tool to connect the ends of bulk cable runs to jacks in wall plates and patch panels. The steps of the process are as follows:
Strip some of the insulating sheath off the cable end to expose the wires.
Separate the twisted wire pairs at the ends.
Strip a small amount of insulation off each wire.
Insert the wires into the appropriate contacts in the jack.
Press the bare wire down between the two metal contacts that hold it in place.
Cut off the excess wire that protrudes past the contacts.
You must repeat the process of punching down for both ends of your internal cable runs.

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31
Q
Which of the following cable connector types is not used with fiber-optic cable?
Straight tip (ST)
Subscriber connector (SC)
Mechanical transfer–registered jack (MTRJ)
F-type
Fiber local connector (LC)
A

D. ST, SC, fiber LC, and MTRJ are all connectors used with fiber-optic cables. F-type connectors are used with coaxial cables.

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32
Q
Which of the following twisted pair cable types can you use to construct a 10GBase-T network with 100-meter segments? (Choose all correct answers.)
CAT5
CAT5e
CAT6
CAT6a
CAT7
A

D and E. Category 6a (CAT6a) twisted pair cable is a variant on CAT6 that enables you to create 10GBase-T networks with segments up to 100 meters long. Category 7 (CAT7) cable adds shielding both to the individual wire pairs and to the entire cable, for even greater resistance to crosstalk and noise. CAT7 supports 100-meter 10GBase-T segments as well. CAT5 and CAT5e are not suitable for use with 10GBase-T. You can use CAT6 for 10GBase-T, but it is limited to 55-meter segments.

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33
Q
Which of the following cable connector types have been rendered nearly obsolete by Universal Serial Bus (USB) connections? (Choose all correct answers.)
BNC
RJ-11
DB-9
DB-25
A

C and D. The DB-9 and DB-25 connectors were at one time ubiquitous on personal computers, providing peripheral connections to modems, printers, and other devices. They have since been largely eliminated in favor of USB. BNC connectors were used for Thin Ethernet networking, but they have been replaced by unshielded twisted pair (UTP) cable with RJ45 connectors. RJ11 connectors are used for telephone connections.

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34
Q
Which of the following twisted pair cable types is rated for both a 10-megabit-per-second (Mbps) data rate (using two pairs) and a 100-Mbps data rate (using four pairs)?
Category 3 (CAT3)
Category 5 (CAT5)
Category 5e (CAT5e)
Category 6 (CAT6)
A

A. CAT3 cable was originally intended for use in voice-grade telephone networks but was later certified for use in data networks. CAT3 cable can support data transfer rates from 4 Mbps up to 100 Mbps (using the now-deprecated 100Base-T4 and 100VG-AnyLAN standards). Although this type of cable could run at 100 Mbps, it was seldom used at speeds greater than 10 Mbps. CAT5 cable was the primary replacement for CAT3, supporting data rates up to 100 Mbps. CAT5e and CAT6 are rated for data rates up to 1 Gbps, as on Gigabit Ethernet networks. CAT6 can even support 10 Gbps transfer rates over shorter distances.

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35
Q

Ed has been hired to install network cabling for a small private company with 15 employees who need to share files and printers. All of the employees are physically located within the same building in two separate office spaces directly adjacent to each other, sharing a common wall and door for access. Both offices have drop ceilings. The client wants a simple Gigabit Ethernet installation that’s easy to troubleshoot. In addition, Ed’s client wants to keep installation costs to a minimum. Which of the following combinations of topology, cable type, and installation method would best meet the needs of Ed’s client?

Star topology, fiber-optic cabling, and internal installation
Bus topology, coaxial cabling, and external installation
Bus topology, twisted pair cabling, and internal installation
Star topology, coaxial cabling, and external installation
Star topology, twisted pair cabling, and external installation

A

E. Because the company has few employees, they are in a single location, and the client is concerned with minimizing the cost, the best solution is to use a star topology with prefabricated twisted pair cabling and an external installation method. The star topology uses a central switch. Ed can use two switches, one in each room, to connect computers to the network. Prefabricated twisted pair cabling, which has the connectors already attached and is available in specific lengths, will keep the cost to a minimum. Since the employees are all located in the same building, with a common wall and door and a drop ceiling, the external installation method is the best choice. It is not possible to use a bus topology or coaxial cable for Gigabit Ethernet. Ed could conceivably use fiber-optic cable in a star topology for Gigabit Ethernet, but it is more difficult to install and very expensive. An internal installation, which uses a combination of bulk cable with no connectors and prefabricated cables, is more expensive than an external installation and is typically used for larger networks.

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36
Q
Which of the following cable types are typically used in newly constructed local area network (LAN) installations? (Choose all correct answers.)
Single-mode fiber optic
Multimode fiber optic
Coaxial
Unshielded twisted pair
A

B and D. The main cable types used in LANs today are multimode fiber optic and unshielded twisted pair. Single-mode fiber optic is used primarily for long-distance wide area network (WAN) connections, and coaxial cable is no longer used for LANs.

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37
Q

Which of the following statements are true about coaxial cable? (Choose all correct answers.)
Coaxial cable has three conductors within the same sheath.
Coaxial cable has two conductors within the same sheath.
Coaxial cable has a copper core that carries light pulse signals.
Coaxial cable has a copper core that carries electrical signals.
Coaxial cable has an insulating outer sheath made of braided strands.
Coaxial cable has an insulating sheath made of either PVC or Teflon.

A

B, D, and F. Coaxial cable has two conductors within the same sheath that share a common axis. These conductors are surrounded by an outer insulating sheath of either PVC or Teflon. Copper cables carry electrical signals. Only fiber-optic cables carry light pulse signals.

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38
Q
Which of the following twisted pair cable types are rated for 1,000 megabit per second (Mbps) Gigabit Ethernet using two wire pairs? (Choose all correct answers.)
Category 3 (CAT3)
Category 5 (CAT5)
Category 5e (CAT5e)
Category 6 (CAT6)
Category 6a (CAT6a)
None of the above
A

F. All twisted pair Gigabit Ethernet implementations require all four wire pairs to achieve 1000 Mbps transfer rates.

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39
Q
Which of the following twisted pair cable types support both 10 megabit per second (Mbps) and 100 Mbps data rates, using only two pairs? (Choose all correct answers.)
Category 3 (CAT3)
Category 5 (CAT5)
Category 5e (CAT5e)
Category 6 (CAT6)
A

B, C, and D. CAT5 cable was the original cable standard intended for transfer rates up to 100 Mbps. CAT5e and CAT6 support 100 Mbps and are also rated for data rates up to 1000 Mbps. All three of these standards also support the 10 Mbps transfer rate. CAT3 can support both 10 and 100 Mbps, but it requires four pairs for 100 Mbps.

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40
Q

Which of the following statements about fiber-optic cabling are true? (Choose all correct answers.)
There are two fiber-optic cable types: single-mode and multimode.
Fiber-optic cable is typically used to span long distances.
Fiber-optic cables use IBM data connector (IDC) connectors.
Fiber-optic cables use straight tip (ST) and subscriber connector (SC) connectors.
Single-mode fiber-optic cable uses a laser light source and a glass core.
Multimode fiber-optic cable uses a light-emitting diode (LED) light source.

A

A, B, D, E, and F. Fiber-optic cable comes in two types: multimode and single-mode. Fiber-optic cables vary in light source (LED or laser), cable grade (glass or plastic), and size of the core conductor. Single-mode uses a higher-grade glass conductor with a laser light source. Multimode fiber uses an LED light source. Both types can use either ST or SC connectors to physically connect end devices to a fiber-optic network. Fiber-optic cable is used to extend networks over long distances. Fiber-optic cables do not use IDC connectors, which are intended for use with shielded twisted pair (STP) cable.

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41
Q

Which of the following are characteristics of an internal cable installation? (Choose all correct answers.)
An internal cable installation uses bulk spools of cabling with no connectors attached for most cable runs.
An internal cable installation uses only prefabricated cables with connectors attached for all cable runs.
An internal cable installation uses solid wire conductors for all cable runs, regardless of distance.
An internal cable installation uses stranded wire conductors for short cable runs and solid core for longer cable runs.
In an internal cable installation, cables are typically not run through walls or ceilings.
In an internal cable installation, cables are typically run through walls or ceilings.

A

A, D, and F. The use of bulk cable with no connectors, wall plates, and rack-mounted patch panels are all characteristics of an internal wiring installation. Internal installations typically cover large geographic areas that require cabling through walls, ceilings, and around other obstacles, making the cabling difficult to move. Solid core wiring is used for longer cable runs, whereas shorter cable runs such as connections from node to wall plate use prefabricated stranded core cables with connectors attached.

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42
Q

Ralph has been hired to connect three local area networks (LANs) together with redundant paths that form a fault-tolerant backbone. The LANs reside on different floors in the same building and are approximately 600 meters apart. Each LAN is currently configured in a star topology using twisted pair cabling. Each LAN includes wall plates and rack-mounted patch panels and switches. Building and fire codes allow cables to run through existing risers, ceilings, and walls, but a 50,000-watt radio station occupies one of the floors between the LANs. Which topology, cable type, and installation method is best suited for this network?

Star topology, fiber-optic cabling, and internal installation
Star topology, coaxial cabling, and external installation
Mesh topology, fiber-optic cabling, and external installation
Bus topology, twisted pair cabling, and internal installation
Mesh topology, fiber-optic cabling, and internal installation
Star topology, twisted pair cabling, and external installation

A

E. Ralph should use a mesh topology with redundant fiber-optic cable runs and an internal installation method. This will meet the requirements for connecting the LANs and for providing redundancy and fault tolerance. Fiber-optic cable is immune to electromagnetic interference (EMI) and can span long distances. The internal installation method is most often used in larger networks, where end systems are geographically distant, such as different buildings and floors. The star topology will not fulfill the requirements of this backbone network since it provides no redundancy. Twisted pair cable can’t span distances more than 100 meters, and it is highly susceptible to EMI. Coaxial cable can’t span distances more than 500 meters, and it is also susceptible to EMI. The bus topology cannot use twisted pair cabling and doesn’t support cable runs longer than 500 meters.

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43
Q

Alice is a network consultant who has been contracted to evaluate a network design created many years ago by another consultant. The client wants to know if the design is still viable. The network is to be installed in a large factory that needs 20 workstations, scattered throughout the building, to run an inventory database application. The two most distant computers are 150 meters apart. The primary goal for the network design is to connect all 20 workstations to a single local area network (LAN) running at 10 megabits per second (Mbps). The two secondary goals are to provide sufficient fault tolerance for a single cable break to occur without affecting the entire network and to provide resistance to the electromagnetic interference (EMI) generated by machinery in the factory. The design created by the other consultant calls for a Thin Ethernet LAN with all of the computers connected to a single coaxial cable segment. Which of the following statements about the proposal is true?

The solution achieves neither the primary goal nor either of the secondary goals.
The solution achieves the primary goal but neither of the secondary goals.
The solution achieves the primary goal and one of the secondary goals.
The solution achieves the primary goal and both of the secondary goals.

A

B. Although the design calls for an archaic technology, a Thin Ethernet network runs at 10 Mbps and can support 20 workstations over a maximum distance of 185 meters, thus achieving the primary goal. However, Thin Ethernet uses copper-based coaxial cable, which is susceptible to EMI, and it uses a bus topology, which is not tolerant of a cable break. Therefore, the solution doesn’t achieve either of the secondary goals.

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44
Q

Ed is a network consultant who has been contracted to design the network for a new manufacturing plant. The plant consists of two buildings 150 meters apart: an office containing 20 computers and a manufacturing facility, which has 30 computers scattered throughout it. The two most distant computers at the site are 225 meters apart. Ed’s design calls for a Gigabit Ethernet network using fiber-optic cable. On receiving the proposal, the client requests that Ed justify the additional labor and expense of installing fiber-optic cable instead of unshielded twisted pair (UTP). Which of the following is not a valid reason for choosing fiber optic over UTP for this project?
The 225 meter distance between the two most distant computers exceeds Ethernet’s maximum cable segment length for UTP.
Only fiber-optic cable can keep the two buildings electrically isolated.
Fiber-optic cable is completely resistant to any electromagnetic interference generated by the equipment in the manufacturing plant.
Fiber-optic cable provides a greater degree of tolerance to cable breaks than UTP.

A

D. Fiber-optic cable, in a Gigabit Ethernet installation, is not more tolerant of cable breaks than UTP. Some fiber-optic networks include fault tolerance, but Ethernet does not. Each UTP cable connecting a computer to a switch can be no longer than 100 meters, making 200 meters the maximum distance between two computers on a UTP network. Connecting two buildings with a copper-based cable creates an electrical connection between them, which can be hazardous. Fiber-optic cable does not create an electrical connection. Fiber-optic cable is also unaffected by the EMI generated by manufacturing equipment.

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45
Q

In the 100Base-T specification, which of the following are the functions of the fast link pulse (FLP) signals exchanged by switches and network interface adapters?

(Choose all correct answers.)
The FLP signals verify the integrity of the connection (or link) between the devices.
The FLP signals enable the devices to negotiate the speed of the link between them.
The FLP signals indicate when a collision has occurred.
The devices use FLP signals to detect bad frames.

A

A. FLP signals are an enhancement of the normal link pulse (NLP) signals defined in the 10Base-T standard, which verify the integrity of the link. In 100Base-T, the FLP signals retain that function, but they also enable multispeed devices to negotiate the speed at which they will operate. FLP signals do not indicate collisions or bad frames.

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46
Q
Which of the following 10 Gigabit Ethernet specifications calls for the use of copper cable?
10GBase-LR
10GBase-CX4
10GBase-ER
10GBase-LX4
10GBase-SR
A

B. The 10GBase-CX4 specification calls for the use of a twinaxial copper cable with segments no longer than 20 meters. The 10GBase-LR, 10GBase-ER, 10GBase-LX4, and 10GBase-SR specifications all call for fiber-optic cable.

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47
Q

Alice is a network consultant who has been contracted to upgrade an existing Ethernet network to Gigabit Ethernet. The network consists of 20 workstations with integrated 10Base-T/100Base-TX/1000Base-T network interface adapters. The network cabling is Category 5 (CAT5) unshielded twisted pair (UTP), installed when the building was constructed. All of the workstations are connected to a single 100Base-T switch. Which of the following options would Alice find to be a valid upgrade path to Gigabit Ethernet?

Replace the CAT5 cable with Category 5e (CAT5e) or Category 6 (CAT6) and leave the existing network interface adapters and switch in place.

Install a 1000Base-T network interface card in each computer and leave the existing cables and switch in place.

Replace the CAT5 cable with CAT5e or CAT6 and replace the 100Base-T switch with a 1000Base-T switch.

Replace the 100Base-T switch with a 1000Base-T switch and leave the existing cables and network interface adapters in place.

A

D. The multispeed network interface adapters in the computers can run at 1 Gbps speed using the existing CAT5 cable, but the 100Base-T switch must be replaced with a 1000Base-T switch. While the network might run better with a cable upgrade, it is not immediately necessary. Replacing the network interface adapters is not necessary because the existing multispeed adapters can run at 1 Gbps if they are connected to a 1000Base-T switch.

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48
Q
Ralph is a network consultant with a client who wants him to design the local area network (LAN) for his company’s new branch office. The site consists of a building with unshielded twisted pair (UTP) cable already installed, which the client considered a major selling point when selecting the property. He wants Ralph to install the fastest possible LAN using the existing cable. After examining the site, Ralph notes that the cable is Category 5 (CAT5), installed using a star topology, and that the individual cable runs are all less than 100 meters long. Which of the following Ethernet physical layer specifications can Ralph use for the new network to provide the fastest transmission speeds without replacing the cable?
10GBase-T
100Base-TX
1000Base-T
1000Base-LX
A

C. 1000Base-T is fastest Ethernet specification that can run on CAT5 UTP cable. 10GBase-T requires Category 5e (CAT5e) or Category 6 (CAT6) UTP cable. 100Base-TX can use CAT5 cable, but it runs at one-tenth the speed of 1000Base-T. 1000Base-LX is a fiber-optic specification that cannot run on CAT5 UTP or any copper cable.

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49
Q
Which Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) standards for Ethernet support 10 megabit per second (Mbps) communications, and what are the correct segment limitations for each standard? (Choose all correct answers.)
10Base2; segment maximum is 100 meters
10Base2; segment maximum is 185 meters
10Base5; segment maximum is 500 meters
100Base5; segment maximum is 500 meters
10Base-T; segment maximum is 100 meters
10Base-T; segment maximum is 328 meters
A

B, C, and E. The three IEEE 10 Mbps standards for Ethernet are 10Base2, 10Base5, and 10Base-T. 10Base2 is limited to 185-meter segments; 10Base5 is limited to 500-meter segments; and 10Base-T is limited to 100-meter segments. The other options are not valid.

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50
Q
Which of the following are Ethernet cable types that must be configured in a bus topology? (Choose all correct answers.)
RG-8
RG-10
RG-14
RG-58
A

A and D. The first version of DIX Ethernet (Version 1) supported RG-8 Thick coaxial cable in a bus topology. Version 2 added support for Thin coaxial cable (RG-58) but was still limited to a bus topology. RG-10 and RG-14 are not Ethernet cable types.

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51
Q

Ed has been hired by a company to upgrade its network infrastructure. The current network is 10 Mbps Ethernet running on Category 5 (CAT5) twisted pair cable. There are 100 computers on the network, all of which have 10/100/1000 multispeed network interface adapters. The computers are all connected to hubs. Users are complaining that the network is too slow and connections are sometimes dropped. Management wants to upgrade to the fastest Ethernet standard possible, using the existing cabling, and still keep costs to a minimum. Which of the following implementations should Ed recommend to the client?
Upgrade to 100Base-TX and keep the existing hubs.
Upgrade to 1000Base-T and keep the existing hubs.
Upgrade to 100Base-FX and replace all of the hubs with switches.
Upgrade to 1000Base-T and replace all of the hubs with switches.

A

D. The best solution in this scenario is to upgrade to 1000Base-T and replace the existing hubs with switches. 1000Base-T provides the fastest transfer speeds supported by the existing cable. Since users are complaining that the network is slow with the existing hubs, it makes sense to replace the shared hub environment with switches that offer dedicated bandwidth out each port. Any solution that does not replace the hubs would not address the users’ complaints. 100Base-TX would provide a speed increase, but it runs at one-tenth the speed of 1000Base-TX. Upgrading to 100Base-FX would require the cabling to be replaced with fiber optic, which would be very expensive.

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52
Q

Ralph has been hired by a company to redesign its local area network (LAN). Right now it has a single 100 Mbps Ethernet LAN with 40 users and 2 shared servers, all connected through 3 hubs. The users on the network must share files with one another and also access the shared servers to retrieve and store files. The users are complaining that the network is too slow. Management states that cost is a factor that must be considered. Which of the following upgrade scenarios should Ralph recommend in this situation?
Split the network into smaller segments with dedicated hubs as opposed to shared hubs.
Split the network into two routed LANs with 20 users each.
Replace the hubs with switches to define separate collision domains and filter unnecessary traffic from each segment.
Replace the hubs with a layer 3 switch and define two virtual LANs (VLANs) with 20 users each.

A

C. In this situation, the best choice is to replace the hubs with switches, since the network is relatively small and cost is an issue. In addition, all users must be able to share information directly with one another and to access the servers. On the existing network, all users share the same 100 Mbps communication channel, and each computer must take turns transmitting. By replacing the hubs with switches, you provide each computer with a dedicated 100 Mbps connection to the switch, while reducing unnecessary traffic and collisions on the network. There is no such thing as a dedicated hub. Splitting the network into two routed LANs with 20 users each is not the best solution, since all users must share information on a constant basis. Also, cost is a factor and routers are more expensive than switches. Replacing the hubs with a layer 3 switch and defining two VLANs with 20 users each is not a reasonable solution because layer 3 switches are very expensive. Layer 3 switches and VLANs are typically used in larger enterprise networks.

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53
Q
Which of the following devices can split a single network into two collision domains while maintaining a single broadcast domain?
Hub
Bridge
Switch
Router
A

B. A bridge can split a single network into two collision domains, because it forwards only the packets that are destined for the other side of the bridge. The bridge forwards all broadcast packets, so it maintains a single broadcast domain. A hub maintains a single collision domain and a single broadcast domain. A switch creates a separate collision domain for each port, and a single broadcast domain for the entire network. A router creates two collision domains, but it does not forward broadcasts, so there are two broadcast domains as well.

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54
Q

Alice has a network that consists of three virtual LANs (VLANs) defined on all of the network’s switches. VLAN 10 is the Sales VLAN, VLAN 20 is the Marketing VLAN, and VLAN 30 is the Accounting VLAN. Users are reporting that they can’t communicate with anyone outside of their own VLAN. What is the problem, and what must Alice do?
The problem is a faulty VLAN configuration on one of the switches. Alice needs to re-create the VLANs and configure each VLAN for routing.
One of the VLANs is configured to filter all other VLAN traffic for security purposes. Alice needs to change the filter on this VLAN.
VLANs are limited to data link layer communication only. To allow communication between VLANs, Alice must add a router or a layer 3 switch to the network and configure it to route traffic between the VLANs.
The VLANs are using different data link layer protocols. VLANs must use the same data link layer protocol in order to communicate.

A

C. VLANs are data link layer local area networks (LANs) defined within switches. Only devices (and users) connected to ports belonging to the same VLAN can communicate with each other until a layer 3 device, such as a router or a layer 3 switch, is added to the network. Re-creating and reconfiguring the VLANs will not correct this problem. Traffic filters are usually implemented on routers. VLANs do not have to use the same data link protocol.

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55
Q
Which of the following functions is the multifunction device on a home or small office network known as a broadband router least likely to provide?
Wireless access point
Switch
Proxy server
DHCP server
A

C. Broadband routers generally do not function as proxy servers, which are application layer devices used to regulate access to the Internet. Many broadband routers are also wireless access points, enabling users to construct a LAN without a complicated and expensive cable installation. Many broadband routers have switched ports for connections to wired devices, such as printers and computers. Most broadband routers use DHCP to assign IP addresses to devices on the private network.

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56
Q

Which of the following is the true definition of the term modem?
A device that connects a computer to the Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN)
A device that connects a local area network (LAN) to the Internet
A device that converts analog signals to digital signals and back again
A device that connects a local area network (LAN) to a wide area network (WAN)

A

C. A modulator/demodulator is any device that converts analog signals to digital signals and digital signals back to analog signals. The digital device does not have to be a computer, and the analog device does not have to be the PSTN. There are many devices that are incorrectly referred to as modems, such as devices that connect a digital LAN to a digital WAN or all-digital devices that connect computers to the Internet.

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57
Q
Which of the following devices is used to physically connect computers in the same VLAN?
A bridge
A hub
A switch
A router
A

C. Replacing routers with switches turns an internetwork into a single large subnet, and VLANs exist as logical elements on top of the switching fabric. Although VLANs are the functional equivalent of network layer subnets, the systems in a single VLAN are still connected by switches, not routers. Bridges connect network segments at the data link layer and selectively forward traffic between the segments. However, bridges do not provide a dedicated connection between two systems like a switch does, and they do not make it possible to convert a large routed internetwork into a single switched network. Therefore, they have no role in implementing VLANs. Hubs are physical layer devices that propagate all incoming traffic out through all of their ports. Replacing the routers on an internetwork with hubs would create a single shared network with huge amounts of traffic and collisions. Hubs, therefore, do not connect the computers in a VLAN.

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58
Q

Which of the following best describes the function of a firewall?
A device located between two networks that enables administrators to restrict incoming and outgoing traffic
A device that connects two networks together, forwarding traffic between them as needed
A device that enables Internet network clients with private IP addresses to access the Internet
A devices that caches Internet data for subsequent use by internal network clients

A

A. A firewall is a filter that can prevent dangerous traffic originating on one network from passing through to another network. A device that connects two networks together and forwards traffic between them is a router, not a firewall. A device that enables Internet network clients with private IP addresses to access the Internet is a description of a NAT router or a proxy server, not a firewall. A device that caches Internet data is a proxy server or caching engine, not a firewall.

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59
Q
Which of the following terms is used to describe the method by which a firewall examines the port numbers in transport layer protocol headers?
IP address filtering
Service-dependent filtering
Deep packet inspection
Next generation firewall
A

B. Service-dependent filtering blocks traffic based on the port numbers specified in the transport layer header fields. Because port numbers represent specific applications, you can use them to prevent traffic generated by these applications from reaching a network. IP address filtering operates at the network layer. Deep packet inspection (DPI) scans the contents of packets, rather than their headers. Next generation firewall (NGFW) defines a device with advanced protection capabilities; port number scanning is a basic firewall function.

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60
Q
Which of the following devices can also be described as a multiport repeater?
Hub
Bridge
Switch
Router
A

A. A repeater is a physical layer device that regenerates incoming signals and retransmits them. A hub is a type of repeater that receives data through any one of its multiple ports and retransmits the data out through all of its other ports. Bridges and switches are data link layer devices, and routers are network layer devices. None of these three can be described as multiport repeaters.

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61
Q
Which of the following bridging types has never been used on Ethernet local area networks (LANs)?
Store and forward
Transparent
Source route
Multiport
A

C. Source route bridging was a technique used on Token Ring (and not Ethernet) networks, in which a Routing Information Field (RIF) in the packet header identified the network segments the packet should follow to reach its destination. Store and forward, transparent, and multiport bridges have all been used on Ethernet networks.

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62
Q
Which of the following physical network devices can conceivably be implemented as software in a computer’s operating system? (Choose all correct answers.)
Hub
Switch
Router
Firewall
A

C and D. Most operating systems are capable of functioning as routers or firewalls. To route traffic, the system must have two network connections. A software firewall can be part of a computer’s routing functionality, or it can be a stand-alone firewall that protects only the local system. Computers cannot function as hubs or switches because multiple ports would be required and standard network adapters don’t implement those functions.

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63
Q
Which of the following criteria does a firewall capable of service dependent filtering use to block traffic?
Hardware addresses
Protocol identifiers
IP addresses
Port numbers
A

D. Service-dependent filtering blocks traffic based on the port numbers specified in the transport layer header fields. Because port numbers represent specific applications, you can use them to prevent traffic generated by these applications from reaching a network. IP address filtering enables you to limit network access to specific computers; it is not service dependent. Filtering based on hardware addresses provides the same basic functionality as IP address filtering, but it is more difficult to spoof hardware addresses than IP addresses. Filtering by protocol identifier enables you to block all traffic using TCP or UDP; it is not service dependent.

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64
Q

Ralph is a freelance network consultant installing a three-node small business network. The computers are all in the same room and use wired Ethernet to connect to the switched ports of a multifunction device. The device also functions as a network address translation (NAT) router for a cable modem connection to the Internet and uses DHCP to assign private IP addresses to the computers. Although NAT provides a measure of security, Ralph wants to be sure that the computers on the network are protected from unauthorized Internet traffic and attacks against open ports. Which of the following solutions would enable Ralph to accomplish this goal with the minimum cost to the client?
Install a hardware firewall between the multifunction device and the cable modem.
Install an intrusion prevention system (IPS) between the multifunction device and the cable modem.
Install a personal firewall on each of the computers.
Connect an intrusion detection system (IDS) to one of the switched ports in the multifunction device.
Use a port scanner to monitor the traffic entering the open ports on the computers.

A

C. A personal firewall is an inexpensive way to protect an individual computer from Internet incursions. Three copies of the product are much less expensive than any of the other suggested solutions. Installing a hardware firewall is a complex and expensive solution, not suitable for a small network. An IPS is a relatively expensive solution, suitable for larger networks. An IDS is a relatively expensive solution, and connecting it to a switched port would not enable it to protect the other computers on the network. A port scanner is a device that performs scans on demand. It does not continuously monitor ports, and it does nothing to protect them.

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65
Q

Which of the following statements about hubs and switches are true? (Choose all correct answers.)
Hubs operate at the physical layer, whereas switches operate at the network layer.
All of the devices connected to a hub are part of a single-collision domain, whereas each device connected to a switch has its own collision domain.
There are switches available with network layer functionality, but there are no hubs with that capability.
Switches create a separate broadcast domain for each collected device, whereas hubs create a single broadcast domain for all of the connected devices.

A

B and C. Hubs operate at the physical layer and switches at the data link layer. Hubs and switches both create a single broadcast domain for all of the connected devices. Switches create a separate collision domain for each connected device, whereas hubs create a single-collision domain. There are switches (but not hubs) with network layer (layer 3) functionality.

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66
Q
Which of the following problems is the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) intended to prevent? (Choose all correct answers.)
Broadcast storms
Late collisions
Bridging loops
Crosstalk
A

A and C. STP disables redundant links between switches that can allow packets to circulate endlessly around the network. This is called a bridging loop. As a result of a bridging loop, the network can be flooded with broadcast traffic, which is called a broadcast storm. STP does nothing to prevent late collisions, which is an Ethernet timing problem, or crosstalk, which is a cabling fault.

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67
Q
Which two of the following devices perform essentially the same function? (Choose two correct answers.)
Hubs
Bridges
Switches
Routers
A

B and C. A switch is essentially a multiport bridge. Both switches and bridges process incoming packets by scanning their data link layer hardware addresses and forwarding the packets out the port connected to the destination system. The primary difference between them is that switches have many ports, whereas bridges have only two. Hubs and routers are physical layer and network layer devices, respectively, and perform different functions.

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68
Q
Which of the following is the term for the area between two firewalls, on which web and email servers are typically found? (Choose all correct answers.)
DMZ
Berlin wall
Peripheral network
Perimeter network
A

A and D. Servers that must be accessible to clients on the Internet, such as web and email servers, are typically isolated from the internal network by one firewall and from the Internet by a second firewall. The area where these servers reside is often called a perimeter network, or a demilitarized zone (DMZ). It is not called a peripheral network or a Berlin wall.

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69
Q
Which of the following switch types immediately forwards frames after looking at only the destination address?
Cut-through
Source route
Store-and-forward
Destination switch
A

A. Cut-through switches are fast because they look at only the first six bytes (the destination media access control, or MAC, address) when forwarding a frame. They do not perform a cyclical redundancy check (CRC) on the entire frame’s contents prior to forwarding it out a port leading to the destination. Source route is a bridging technique in which the source host, not the switch, determines the path a frame will take through a network to reach a destination. Store-and-forward switches take in the entire frame and verify its contents by performing a CRC calculation before forwarding it. There is no switch called a destination switch.

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70
Q

Which of the following statements about the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is not true?
STP operates at the data link layer of the OSI model.
STP is implemented in switches.
STP prevents traffic from circulating endless around a network.
STP compiles a database containing the IP addresses of connected devices.

A

D. STP operates at the data link layer of the OSI model, so it works with hardware addresses, not IP addresses. Switches use STP to prevent redundant links from causing traffic loops on the network.

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71
Q
Which of the following is the correct term for the process by which the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) on a switch evaluates the paths through the network and places each port in the forwarding or blocking state?
Assimilation
Convergence
Tree-building
Listening
A

B. The process by which STP populates its database with information about each port in a switch and designates the ports as forwarding or blocking is called convergence.

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72
Q
Which of the following technologies would you be less likely to find on the average home or small office network?
NAT
DHCP
10GBase-T
VLAN
A

C and D. Home and small office networks typically consist of a single subnet and require only a basic switch without the advanced virtual LAN capabilities that enable administrators to create separate subnets. Most home and small office networks have a DHCP server that assigns IP addresses and other TCP/IP configuration settings to clients. The DHCP server can be integrated into a broadband router or another Internet access sharing solution. Most home and small office networks support network address translation, enabling them to use private IP addresses and still access the Internet. 10GBase-T is the designation for UTP-based 10 Gigabit Ethernet, which is an advanced standard for network interface adapters often found in servers.

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73
Q

Which of the following is something that only a firewall capable of stateful packet inspection can do?
Scan transport layer header fields for evidence of SYN floods
Filter traffic based on port numbers
Block traffic destined for specific IP addresses
Block all TCP traffic from entering a network

A

A. A firewall that supports stateful packet inspection examines other network and transport layer header fields, looking for patterns that indicate damaging behaviors, such as IP spoofing, SYN floods, and teardrop attacks. Port number filtering is the most commonly used form of packet filtering; it is not the same as stateful packet inspection. Blocking traffic based on IP addresses prevents specific systems from accessing a network; stateful packet inspection is a much more complicated operation. Packet filtering based on protocol identifiers enables you to block TCP traffic; this is not stateful packet inspection.

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74
Q
In local area networking, which of the following is not a type of bridge?
Store and forward
Routing
Transparent
Multiport
A

B. Bridges are data link layer (layer 2) devices. Routing is a network layer (layer 3) function, so it is not a type of bridge. A store-and-forward, or simple, bridge examines each packet and decides whether to forward it to the connected network. A transparent bridge compiles a database of forwarding information, based on the packets it has processed previously. A multiport bridge provides connections to multiple networks; a switch is a type of multiport bridge.

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75
Q
VLANs create the administrative boundaries on a switched network that are otherwise provided by which of the following devices?
Hubs
Routers
Firewalls
Bridges
A

B. Connecting subnets with routers at the network layer maintains the data link layer administrative boundaries that prevent broadcast transmissions from being propagated throughout the entire internetwork. Switching eliminates those data link layer boundaries, and administrators can use VLANs to simulate them. Because hubs propagate all of the traffic they receive out through all of their ports indiscriminately, they create no administrative boundaries. Firewalls are filtering devices that protect networks against malicious traffic. Their functions are not related to VLANs. Switches are essentially multiport bridges that forward incoming traffic only to the device for which it is destined. Therefore, bridges are more closely related to eliminating administrative boundaries than to establishing them.

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76
Q
Which of the following devices can you use to connect two multimode fiber-optic Ethernet networks in different buildings 2,000 meters apart using a single-mode fiber-optic cable segment running at the same speed, while maintaining a single collision domain?
Bridge
Switch
Router
Media converter
A

D. A simple media converter is a physical layer device that can connect different types of network media together, as long as they have the same speed and duplex settings. Because the converter simply retransmits the signals, the single-collision domain is maintained. Bridges and switches are data link layer devices that create multiple-collision domains. Routers are network layer devices that create separate collision and broadcast domains.

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77
Q
At which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model do wireless range extenders operate?
Physical
Data link
Network
Transport
Session
Presentation
Application
A

A. Wireless range extenders are physical layer devices that receive signals from wireless access points and network adapters and retransmit them, enabling devices to connect that are farther apart than the network would normally support. Because the extenders do not process the packets in any way, but just retransmit the signals, they do not operate at any layer above the physical.

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78
Q
Which of the following is another term for a multiport bridge?
Router
Switch
Hub
Gateway
A

B. A switch is a data link layer device that essentially performs the function of a bridge for each device connected to one of its ports. It can therefore be described as a multiport bridge. Routers, hubs, and gateways are devices that operate at the network, physical, and application layers, respectively, so they cannot be described as bridges.

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79
Q
Which of the following devices enables two computers to communicate when they are using different protocols at each layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model?
A router
A switch
A hub
A gateway
A

D. A gateway enables two devices using different protocols to communicate by performing translation and conversion services for them. Routers, hubs, and switches all require the same protocol at some of the OSI model layers.

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80
Q

Review the following figure. How many collision domains and broadcast domains exist in the network diagram?
Image shows network through one router at center is connected to three different hubs wherein each hub is connected to three different systems.
There are three collision domains and three broadcast domains.
There is one collision domain and three broadcast domains.
There is one broadcast domain and three collision domains.
There are no collision domains and only one broadcast domain.
There are nine collision domains and three broadcast domains.

https://learning.oreilly.com/api/v2/epubs/urn:orm:book:9781119432128/files/images/c02g0001.jpg

A

A. Each port on a router defines a separate collision domain. Hubs forward all traffic to all of the connected nodes, so each network segment is a single-collision domain. Routers do not forward broadcasts, so each network segment is also a separate broadcast domain.

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81
Q

Which of the following statements about switches and routers are true? (Choose all correct answers.)
Routers operate at the network layer, whereas switches operate at the data link layer.
All of the devices connected to a switch are part of a single broadcast domain, whereas the networks connected to a router form separate broadcast domains.
Routers can communicate with each other and share information, but switches cannot.
Switches forward packets based on their hardware addresses, whereas routers forward packets based on their IP addresses.

A

A, B, and D. Routers are network layer devices that do not forward broadcast messages, so they create separate broadcast domains for each network. Switches do forward broadcasts, forming a single broadcast domain. Routers and switches can communicate using dedicated protocols. As data link layer devices, switches read only hardware addresses from packet frames; routers forward traffic based on the IP addresses in packets’ IP headers.

82
Q
Ralph is installing an Ethernet local area network (LAN) for a small business with two offices on opposite sides of a courtyard. Ralph plans to run a multimode fiber-optic cable across the courtyard, but the budget is limited, and he can’t use fiber for the whole network. Therefore, he installs unshielded twisted pair (UTP) cable in the two offices, which have ten and twelve workstations, respectively. Which of the following devices should Ralph use to join the two UTP installations together into one LAN using the fiber-optic run across the courtyard, while keeping the cost to a minimum?
Media converters
Hubs
Switches
Routers
A

A. Media converters will enable Ralph to join the multimode fiber-optic run to the UTP at both sides of the courtyard while maintaining a single network at minimum cost. Inexpensive small business hubs and switches cannot join different media together. Routers can join different media, but they are more expensive, and they would separate the installation into three separate networks.

83
Q

Review the following figure. Note that each store-and-forward switch has three connected node ports and one port for switch-to-switch connections. All node ports and links are configured for half-duplex communication. The switch-to-switch links are configured for full-duplex communication. Which of the following statements about the switched network is true?
Image shows three store-and-forward switches in which each has one port for switch-to-switch connections and three node ports to three different systems.
There are 9 collision domains, one for each half-duplex connection.
There are 12 collision domains, one for each switch connection.
There are 3 collision domains, one for each switch-to-switch connection.
There is one collision domain for this network.

https://learning.oreilly.com/api/v2/epubs/urn:orm:book:9781119432128/files/images/c02g0002.jpg

A

A. All half-duplex port connections on a store-and-forward switch represent a different collision domain. Full-duplex connections aren’t subject to collisions, so they do not define separate collision domains.

84
Q

Five computers are connected to the same switch, but only four are able to communicate with each other. Assuming that all of the hardware is functioning properly, which of the following could be a reason for the fifth computer’s communication problem?
The switch has the fifth computer connected to a VLAN different from that of the other four.
The network is experiencing a switching loop.
The fifth computer is experiencing an MTU black hole, whereas the other four computers are not.
There is a virtual router between the fifth computer and the other four.

A

A. If the fifth computer is in a different VLAN from the other four, it would be unable to communicate with them. A switching loop would affect communication between all of the computers, not just the fifth one. An MTU black hole is a condition in which a system is unable to complete the Path MTU Discovery process, due to an intervening firewall. Because these five computers are all on the same LAN, they all have the same MTU, and Path MTU Discovery is not necessary. A virtual router would enable switched computers on different subnets to communicate with each other; it would not prevent them from communicating.

85
Q
Which of the following network devices are “dumb”—that is, purely electrical devices with no electronic intelligence?
Hubs
Switches
Routers
Bridges
A

A. Hubs are network devices that simply receive signals through one port, electrically enhance them, and transmit them out through another port. Routers, switches, and bridges are capable of reading the signals and processing them, which classifies them as intelligent.

86
Q

Which of the following statements about VLANs are true? (Choose all correct answers.)
All of the devices in a particular VLAN must be physically connected to the same switch.
A VLAN creates a limited broadcast domain on a switched network.
You must have VLANs on a switched network for communication between computers on different cable segments to occur.
A router is required for communication between VLANs.

A

B and D. The computers in a single VLAN can be located anywhere on a switched network, regardless of the physical configuration of the switches. A broadcast message generated by a computer in a VLAN is transmitted to all of the other computers in that VLAN only, just as if the systems were physically located on a separate LAN or subnet. Unicast transmissions between computers on a switched network do not require VLANs because the switches create what amounts to a direct connection between the two systems. VLANs are needed only for communication processes that require using broadcasts, which, if transmitted without VLANs, would flood the network. Even though they are a purely logical construction, VLANs function just like physical subnets and require routers for communication between them. Routers are often integrated into layer 3 switches to enable communication between VLANs.

87
Q

Which of the following explains why splitting a large switched Ethernet LAN into two LANs by adding a router can help to alleviate traffic congestion and improve performance? (Choose all correct answers.)
Adding a router reduces the amount of broadcast traffic on each of the two LANs.
Adding a router reduces the amount of unicast traffic on each of the two LANs.
Adding a router diverts traffic to an alternate path through the network.
Adding a router prevents computers on one LAN from communicating with computers on another LAN.

A

A and B.

Adding a router splits the Ethernet LAN into two LANs, creating two separate broadcast domains. Each computer, therefore, has a smaller number of broadcast messages to process. Because the network is split by the router, the amount of unicast traffic on each subnet is reduced.

88
Q

A small business office currently has a 100Base-TX Ethernet network with a single 8-port hub. All of the hub ports are populated and the business owner wants to expand the network further. However, the hub does not have an uplink port. The owner has purchased a new hub, also with eight ports, which does have an uplink port, but he does not know how to connect them together. What must the owner do to install the new hub on the network?
Use a standard patch cable to connect a standard port on the existing hub to a standard port on the new hub.
Use a standard patch cable to connect a standard port on the existing hub to the uplink port on the new hub.
Purchase a crossover cable and use it to connect a standard port on the existing hub to the uplink port on the new hub.
Purchase a second new hub with an uplink port to replace the old one and use a standard patch cable to connect the two uplink ports together.

A

B. Standard hub ports have a crossover circuit, which ensures that the transmit signals at one end of the connection arrive at the receive pins at the other end. The uplink port in a hub bypasses the crossover circuit so that two connected hubs do not have crossover circuits that cancel each other out. A connection between a standard port and an uplink port, using a standard cable, results in a single crossover, which is correct wiring. Each of the other solutions results in either two crossovers or no crossovers, which is incorrect.

89
Q

Which of the following tasks can you perform to split a large, switched local area network (LAN) into multiple broadcast domains? (Choose all correct answers.)
Replace one or more switches with hubs.
Install a firewall to filter broadcast traffic.
Enable the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) on the switches.
Create VLANs in the switches.
Install routers on the network.

A

D and E. By default, a switched LAN consists of a single broadcast domain. To create multiple broadcast domains, you can install routers to split the installation into two or more networks, because routers do not forward broadcasts. The other possibility is to create virtual LANs (VLANs) in the switches. Each VLAN is a separate broadcast domain. All of the other options would have no effect on the number of broadcast domains on the network.

90
Q

Which of the following statements about bridges and switches is true?
Bridges and switches are network layer devices that use logical addressing to forward frames.
Bridges and switches are data link layer devices that use Media Access Control (MAC) addresses to forward frames.
Bridges and switches build their internal tables based on destination addresses and forward packets based on source addresses.
Bridges and switches must support the network layer protocol implemented on the local area network (LAN).
Each port on a bridge or switch defines a separate broadcast domain.

A

B. Bridges and switches are data link layer devices that forward frames based on the destination MAC address contained in the frame. They operate in promiscuous mode, listening and processing all frames on each segment, and they build forwarding tables with this information. Forwarding tables are built based on source MAC addresses. Bridges are protocol independent; they are not involved with the upper layer protocols being carried on the LAN. Broadcast domains are defined by network layer devices, not data link layer devices.

91
Q
Which of the following elements can be used to identify the devices in a particular VLAN? (Choose all correct answers.)
Hardware addresses
IP addresses
DNS names
Switch port numbers
A

A and D. Every network device has unique hardware addresses coded into the network interface adapter, and administrators can use these addresses to select the devices that will be part of a specific VLAN. IP addresses are layer 3 constructs and are not used to configure VLANs, which operate at layer 2. When VLANs are implemented inside the switch, selecting the ports to which specific computers are attached is a simple way to identify the computers in a particular VLAN. Although DNS names do uniquely identify computers on a network, DNS is an application layer process and has nothing to do with the switching and routing processes, which occur at the data link and network layers. Therefore, you cannot use DNS names to identify the computers in a VLAN.

92
Q
Which of the following is a correct term describing the function of a switch?
Layer 2 router
Ethernet hub
Multiport bridge
Layer 3 repeater
A

C. A switch is best described as a multiport bridge because it reads the hardware addresses of incoming packets and forwards them out through the port for the destination node. Although a switch does function at layer 2 of the OSI model (the data link layer), it is not a router, which connects networks together at layer 3 (the network layer). Hubs and repeaters are physical layer (layer 1) devices that are not capable of performing the functions of a switch.

93
Q

Which of the following is the primary reason why replacing hubs with switches on an Ethernet local area network (LAN) improves its performance?
Switches forward packets faster than hubs.
Switches do not forward broadcast transmissions.
Switches reduce the number of collisions on the network.
Switches read the IP addresses of packets, not the hardware addresses.

A

C. The main reason why switches improve the efficiency of an Ethernet LAN is that they create a separate collision domain for each switched port, eliminating most collisions. Collisions result in packets having to be retransmitted, so fewer collisions means fewer retransmissions, which improves performance. Switches do not forward packets faster than hubs. Switches do forward broadcast transmissions. Switches do read hardware addresses, not IP addresses.

94
Q

Which of the following is a correct definition of a collision domain?
A group of local area networks (LANs), connected by routers, that enables any node to transmit to any other node
A group of computers connected so that a broadcast transmission by any one device reaches all of the other devices
A group of devices connected by cable segments that are longer than the maximum length stated in the physical layer specification
A group of devices connected so that when two devices transmit at exactly the same time, a data collision occurs

A

D. A collision domain is a LAN with a shared network medium, so that two devices transmitting at the same time generate a signal quality error, also known as a collision. Ethernet LANs connected by hubs create a shared medium, whereas switched networks create a separate collision domain for each connected node. Routers create separate collision domains. A group of computers able to receive broadcasts is the definition of a broadcast domain, not a collision domain. Overlong cables can precipitate collisions but do not define a collision domain.

95
Q
Which of the following terms are used to describe the device used to place calls on a Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) installation? (Choose all correct answers.)
Terminal
Gateway
Endpoint
PBX
A

A and C. VoIP uses the terms terminal and endpoint to refer to the device with which users make calls, including computers and telephone handsets. A VoIP gateway is the device that provides the conduit between an IP network and the Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN). A VoIP private branch exchange (PBX) is a device that switches calls between endpoints on the local IP network and provides access to external Internet lines.

96
Q

Which of the following statements about hubs is not true?
Hubs are data link layer devices that connect network devices in a star or ring topology.
Hubs are physical layer devices that connect network devices in a star topology.
Hubs amplify and repeat signals received through one port out all other ports regardless of the destination.
Hubs provide internal crossover circuits and use uplink ports to form a hierarchical star.

A

A. Hubs (or concentrators) are physical layer devices that amplify and repeat signals out all ports except the one through which the data was received, regardless of the destination. Hubs are used to physically connect end systems to a star topology. Hubs typically provide an internal crossover circuit connection. Uplink ports are used to extend the distance of a star network, forming a hierarchical star.

97
Q

Which of the following statements about routers are true? (Choose all correct answers.)
Routers are network layer devices that use IP addresses to forward frames.
Routers are data link layer devices that use media access control (MAC) addresses to forward frames.
Routers build their internal tables based on destination MAC addresses and forward frames based on source MAC addresses.
Routers must support the network layer protocol implemented on the local area network (LAN).
Each port on a router defines a separate broadcast domain.

A

A, D, and E. Routers are network layer devices that use IP addresses to forward frames, not MAC addresses. Routers are protocol dependent. They must support the network layer protocol being routed. As a network layer device, a router defines networks (or LANs) that represent a separate broadcast domain. Routers do not build their routing tables or forward frames using MAC addresses.

98
Q
Which of the following hub types are supported by the 100Base-TX physical layer specification? (Choose all correct answers.)
Class I
Class II
Class III
Class IV
A

A and B. The 100Base-TX specification specifies two hub types: Class I and II. Class I hubs perform signal translation; Class II hubs do not. A network can have only one Class I hub per collision domain; a network can have two Class II hubs per collision domain. The other options do not exist.

99
Q

Which of the following statements about routers is not true?
Routers can connect two or more networks with dissimilar data link layer protocols and media.
Routers can connect two or more networks with the same data link layer protocols and media.
Routers store and maintain route information in a local text file.
Servers with multiple network interfaces can be configured to function as software routers.
Routers can learn and populate their routing tables through static and dynamic routing.

A

C. Routers store and maintain route information in a routing table that is stored in memory, not in a local text file. All of the other statements about routers are true.

100
Q

The network administrator for a small business is installing a computer to function as a firewall protecting their internetwork from Internet intrusion. At which of the following locations should the administrator install the firewall system?
Anywhere on the private internetwork, as long as the Internet is accessible
Between the Internet access router and the Internet service provider’s (ISP’s) network
At the ISP’s network site
Between the Internet access router and the rest of the private internetwork

A

D. The firewall is a conduit between the private network and the ISP’s network (which provides access to the Internet), through which all traffic must pass. This ensures that the firewall has the opportunity to examine every packet that passes between the private network and the Internet and filter out those that are not authorized. If the firewall was located in the midst of the private internetwork, it would be possible for Internet computers to bypass the firewall and communicate directly with the private systems. Placing the firewall on the far side of the router would put it on the ISP’s network, causing it to filter all of the ISP’s traffic and not just that destined for the private network. Installing the firewall at the ISP’s site would have the same effect as installing it on the far side of the router at the private network site.

101
Q
What must you do to configure a firewall to admit File Transfer Protocol (FTP) traffic to the internal network using its default port settings? (Choose all correct answers.)
Open port 20
Open port 21
Open port 22
Open port 23
Open port 24
A

A and B. The FTP protocol uses two well-known ports, 20 and 21. A firewall must have both of these ports open to admit FTP traffic. FTP does not require ports 22, 23, or 24.

102
Q
Proxy servers operate at which layer of the OSI reference model?
Data link
Network
Transport
Application
A

D. A proxy server is an application layer service because it receives Internet service requests from client computers, reads the application layer protocol data in each request, and then generates its own request for the same service and transmits it to the Internet server the client specifies. Only an application layer service can read and process the application layer data in network packets. A proxy server cannot be a data link layer device because it can provide Internet access to an entire internetwork, while the data link layer is concerned with communications on a single subnet. Proxy servers cannot be network layer devices because the network layer handles all internetwork packets indiscriminately and is unaware of what application generated the data carried inside the packets. The transport layer is not involved in processing application data, so proxy servers cannot be said to function at the transport layer.

103
Q
Which of the following technologies can maintain an account database that multiple remote access servers can employ to authenticate remote users?
RADIUS
IDS
NGFW
NAS
A

A. A Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) server can provide authentication, authorization, and accounting services for remote access servers. Intrusion detection systems (IDSs), Next Generation Firewalls (NGFWs), and network attached storage (NAS) devices do not provide authentication services.

104
Q
Which of the following is a feature that is not found in a traditional firewall product, but which might be found in a Next Generation Firewall (NGFW)?
Stateful packet inspection
Deep packet inspection
Network Address Translation
Virtual private network support
A

B. Deep packet inspection (DPI) is a firewall technique that examines the data carried in packets and not just the protocol headers. While traditional firewalls typically do not support DPI, Next Generation Firewalls (NGFWs) often do. Stateful packet inspection, Network Address Translation (NAT), and virtual private network (VPN) support are all features that are commonly supported by traditional firewall products.

105
Q
Which of the following services are provided by an AAA server? (Choose all correct answers.)
Authentication
Authorization
Accounting
Assistance
Attenuation
A

A, B, and C. An AAA server, such as Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS), provides authentication, authorization, and accounting services. Assistance and attenuation are not functions provided by AAA servers.

106
Q

Which of the following statements about content filtering is true?
Content filters examine the source IP addresses of packets to locate potential threats.
Content filters enable switches to direct packets out through the correct port.
Content filters examine the data carried within packets for potentially objectionable materials.
Content filters use frequently updated signatures to locate packets containing malware.

A

C. Content filters are a firewall feature that examines the data inside packets, rather than their origin, to locate objectionable material such as pornography. They do not scan IP addresses, nor do they detect typical types of malware. Content filters are not implemented in switches.

107
Q

Which of the following is not one of the criteria typically used by load balancers to direct incoming traffic to one of a group of servers?
Which server has the lightest load
Which server has the fastest response time
Which server is next in an even rotation
Which server has the fastest processor

A

D. In most cases, a load balancing router works by processing incoming traffic based on rules set by the administrator. The rules can distribute traffic among a group of servers using various criteria, such as each server’s current load or response time or which server is next in a given rotation. Load balancers typically do not use the hardware configuration of the servers to direct traffic, since this is a factor that does not change.

108
Q
Which of the following devices enables you to use a standard analog telephone to place calls using the Internet instead of the Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN)?
Proxy server
VPN concentrator
VoIP gateway
UTM appliance
A

C. A VoIP gateway is a device that provides a conduit between an IP network and the Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN). The gateway enables standard telephones connected to the PSTN to place calls using VoIP services on the Internet. A proxy server is an application layer device that provides web browsers and other client programs to access the Internet. A virtual private network (VPN) concentrator is a type of router that enables multiple client systems to access a network from remote locations. A unified threat management (UTM) appliance typically performs VPN, firewall, and antivirus functions.

109
Q
Which of the following devices enable users on private networks to access the Internet by substituting a registered IP address for their private addresses? (Choose all correct answers.)
NAT router
RADIUS server
Proxy server
UTM appliance
A

A and C. Network address translation (NAT) is a network layer device that converts the private IP addresses is all of a client’s transmissions to registered IP address. NAT therefore works for all applications. A proxy server is an application layer device that performs the same type of conversion, but only for specific applications. A Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) server can provide authentication, authorization, and accounting services for remote access servers. It does not convert IP addresses. A unified threat management (UTM) appliance typically performs VPN, firewall, and antivirus functions. It too does not convert IP addresses.

110
Q
A VPN concentrator is an advanced type of which of the following devices?
Switch
Router
Gateway
Bridge
A

B. A virtual private network (VPN) concentrator is a type of router that enables multiple client systems to access a network from remote locations. Because the device provides an interface between networks, it is considered to be a type of router, not a switch, a gateway, or a bridge.

111
Q
Which of the following technologies is typically associated with virtual PBX services?
Quality of service
Voice over IP
CARP
Round-robin DNS
A

B. A virtual PBX is an arrangement in which a telephone company provides the PBX services to a customer but maintains the actual hardware at their own facility. The recent emphasis on cloud computing has led to a number of hosted PBX solutions that use Voice over IP (VoIP) to provide services to customers. Quality of service (QoS) is a technique for prioritizing traffic by tagging packets based on their content. It is not a virtual PBX technique. The Cache Array Routing Protocol (CARP) enables proxy servers to exchange information; it does not provide virtual PBX services. In round-robin DNS, a DNS server contains multiple resource records for the same server name, each with a different IP address representing one of the computers running the server application. When a client resolves the server name, the DNS server accesses each of the resource records in turn so that each address theoretically receives the same number of visitors. This is not a virtual PBX technology.

112
Q

Ralph, the administrator of a 500-node private internetwork, is devising a plan to connect the network to the Internet. The primary objective of the project is to provide all of the network users with access to web and email services while keeping the client computers safe from unauthorized users on the Internet. The secondary objectives of the project are to avoid having to manually configure IP addresses on each one of the client computers individually and to provide a means of monitoring and regulating the users’ access to the Internet. Ralph submits a proposal calling for the use of private IP addresses on the client computers and a series of proxy servers with public, registered IP addresses, connected to the Internet using multiple T-1 lines. Which of the following statements about Ralph’s proposed Internet access solution is true?
The proposal fails to satisfy both the primary and secondary objectives.
The proposal satisfies the primary objective but neither of the secondary objectives.
The proposal satisfies the primary objective and one of the secondary objectives.
The proposal satisfies the primary objective and both of the secondary objectives.

A

C. Proxy servers provide network users with access to Internet services, and the unregistered IP addresses on the client computers protect them from unauthorized access by users on the Internet, which satisfies the first objective. The proxy servers also make it possible for network administrators to regulate users’ access to the Internet, which satisfies one of the two secondary objectives. However, the proxy servers cannot assign IP addresses to the client computers, and the plan makes no mention of DHCP or another automatic TCP/IP configuration mechanism. Therefore, the plan does not satisfy the other secondary objective.

113
Q
Which of the following protocols can be used by wireless controllers to communicate with the access points on a wireless local area network (WLAN)? (Choose all correct answers.)
CAPWAP
LWAPP
LDAP
PPTP
A

A and B. The Control and Provisioning of Wireless Access Points (CAPWAP) protocol and the Lightweight Access Point Protocol (LWAPP) are both protocols that enable wireless controllers to manage and control Thin access points. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) is used by directory services, and Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP) is used for virtual private networking.

114
Q
Which of the following devices enables administrators of enterprise wireless networks to manage multiple access points from a central location?
Hypervisor
Wireless controller
Wireless endpoint
Demarcation point
A

B. In many enterprise wireless networks, the access points do not run a full operating system and are called Thin or lightweight APs. The network also has a device called a wireless controller that performs some of the required tasks and manages the APs. A wireless endpoint is another term for a computer or other device that is a client on the wireless network. Hypervisors and demarcation points have nothing to do with wireless networking. A hypervisor creates and manages virtual machines on a host server, and a demarcation point is the interface between a private network and an outside telecommunications service.

115
Q
Which of the following devices can administrators used to create multiple virtual local area networks (VLANs) and forward traffic between them?
Multilayer switch
Virtual router
Load balancer
Broadband router
A

A. A multilayer switch is a network connectivity device that function at both layer 2 and layer 3 of the OSI model. At layer 2, the device functions like a normal switch, providing individual collision domains to each connected node and enabling administrators to create multiple VLANs. At layer 3, the device also provides routing capabilities by forwarding packets between the VLANs. Virtual routers, load balancers, and broadband routers are strictly layer 3 devices that can route traffic but cannot create VLANs.

116
Q
Which of the following is not a mechanism for distributing incoming network traffic among multiple servers?
Load balancer
Round-robin DNS
NLB cluster
VPN concentrator
A

D. A virtual private network (VPN) concentrator is a type of router that enables multiple client systems to access a network from remote locations. It does not distribute traffic among servers. A load balancer is a type of router that forwards traffic with a single IP address to multiple servers in turn. Round-robin DNS is a technique in which a DNS server resolves a name into several IP addresses, each in turn. A Network Load Balancing (NLB) cluster is a group of servers, all running the same application, that distribute incoming traffic among themselves.

117
Q
A load balancer is a type of which of the following devices?
Switch
Router
Gateway
Firewall
A

B. A load balancer is a type of router that forwards traffic with a single IP address to multiple servers in turn. In most cases, a load balancing router works by processing incoming traffic based on rules set by the administrator. Because a load balancer works with IP addresses, it is a network layer device. Load balancers are not switches, gateways, or firewalls.

118
Q
Which of the following devices can provide authentication services for multiple remote access servers?
RADIUS server
VPN concentrator
Load balancer
IDS/IPS
A

A. A Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) server can provide centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting services for multiple remote access servers, using a single set of user accounts. A virtual private network (VPN) concentrator is a type of router that enables multiple client systems to access a network from remote locations. A load balancer is a type of router that forwards traffic with a single IP address to multiple servers in turn. Intrusion detection systems (IDSs) and intrusion prevention systems (IPSs) can detect and prevent malicious behavior. None of these devices can provide authentication services.

119
Q
Which of the following devices expands on the capabilities of the traditional firewall by adding features like deep packet inspection (DPI) and an intrusion prevention system (IPS)?
RADIUS server
CSU/DSU
NGFW
Proxy server
A

C. Next Generation Firewalls (NGFWs) expand on the packet filtering capabilities of traditional firewalls by adding features such as deep packet inspection (DPI) and intrusion prevention systems (IPSs), as well as inspection of encrypted traffic and antivirus scanning. Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) servers can provide centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting services. A CSU/DSU is a device that provides a router on a private network with access to a leased line. A proxy server is an application layer service that receives Internet service requests from client computers, reads the application layer protocol data in each request, and then generates its own request for the same service and transmits it to the Internet server the client specifies.

120
Q
Which of the following is a device that switches calls between endpoints on the local IP network and provides access to external Internet lines?
VoIP PBX
VoIP gateway
VoIP endpoint
Multilayer switch
A

A. A private branch exchange (PBX) switches internal calls and provides access to external lines. A VoIP PBX performs the same tasks as a traditional PBX. A VoIP gateway is the device that provides the conduit between an IP network and the Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN). A VoIP endpoint is a device that makes use of the VoIP system, such as a computer or handset. A multilayer switch is a data networking device that includes both switching and routing capabilities.

121
Q

Which of the following statements about Internet access through a proxy server accounts for the security against outside intrusion that a proxy provides?
The proxy server uses a public IP address and the client computers use private addresses.
The proxy server uses a private IP address and the client computers use public addresses.
Both the proxy server and the client computers use private IP addresses.
Both the proxy server and the client computers use public IP addresses.

A

A. Because the client computers use private IP addresses, they are invisible to the Internet, so users outside the private network cannot see or access them. The proxy server has a public IP address so it can participate in service transactions with Internet servers. If the proxy server used a private IP address, it would not be able to access the Internet directly. If the clients used public IP addresses, they would be visible to the Internet and vulnerable to intrusion.

122
Q

Which of the following statements about proxy servers and NAT servers are true? (Choose all correct answers.)
NAT servers and proxy servers can both provide Internet access to clients running any application.
NAT servers and proxy servers both use public IP addresses.
NAT servers and proxy servers both access Internet servers and relay the responses to network clients.
Both NAT servers and proxy servers cache web data for later use.

A

B and C.

To provide clients with Internet access, a NAT or proxy server must have direct access to the Internet, which requires using a registered, or public, IP address. Both NAT and proxy servers function as the middleman in transactions between the client computers on a private network and Internet servers. The NAT or proxy server transmits the client’s service request to the Internet server as though it was its own and, after receiving the reply, relays the response back to the client. Because NAT servers function at the network layer, clients can use any application to access the Internet through the server. Proxy servers, however, operate at the application layer and can provide Internet access only to certain types of client applications. Proxy servers are capable of caching web data for later use because they are application layer devices that read the application layer protocol data in the message packets they receive. NAT servers are network layer processes that forward packets with no knowledge of the application layer information in their contents.

123
Q
A multilayer switch typically operates at which layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model? (Choose all correct answers.)
Physical
Data link
Network
Transport
Session
Presentation
Application
A

A, B, and C. A multilayer switch typically operates at the physical, data link, and network layers, assuming the functions of a switch and a router. The device can conceivably operate at the upper layers, but most do not.

124
Q
Which of the following devices can an administrator use to monitor a network for abnormal or malicious traffic?
IDS
UPS
RADIUS
DoS
RAS
A

A. Intrusion detection systems (IDSs) are designed to monitor network traffic for anomalies and send notifications to administrators. Uninterruptible power supplies (UPSs), Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) servers, denial-of-service (DoS) attacks, and Remote Access Service (RAS) servers all have nothing to do with network monitoring.

125
Q
Which of the following is not a function that is typically provided by unified threat management (UTM) appliance?
Virtual private networking
Network firewall
Packet forwarding
Antivirus protection
A

C. Packet forwarding is a function typically associated with routers and is not a normal function of a UTM appliance. UTM appliances do typically perform VPN, firewall, and antivirus functions.

126
Q
The jumbo frame capability is associated with which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model?
Application
Transport
Network
Data link
A

D. Ethernet uses jumbo frames at the data link layer to transfer large amounts of data more efficiently. Ethernet typically restricts frame size to 1,500 bytes, but jumbo frames enable Ethernet systems to create frames up to 9,000 bytes. Frames are protocol data units associated only with the data link layer, so they do not apply to the network, transport, or application layer.

127
Q
Which of the following storage area networking (SAN) protocols are capable of sharing a network medium with standard local area networking (LAN) traffic? (Choose all correct answers.)
iSCSI
Fibre Channel
FCoE
InfiniBand
A

A and C. iSCSI runs on a standard IP network, and Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE) runs on a standard Ethernet network. Both of these protocols can share a network with LAN traffic, although the use of a quality of service (QoS) mechanism is usually recommended. Fibre Channel and InfiniBand both require a dedicated network medium that does not support LAN traffic.

128
Q

Which of the following best describes the function of a virtual switch?
A virtual switch is a software product that enables a computer with multiple network adapters to function as a switch.
A virtual switch is a feature in layer 3 switches that enables VLANs on the same switch to communicate with each other.
A virtual switch is a feature in layer 3 switches that enables VLANs on different switches to communicate with each other.
A virtual switch enables virtual machines running on the same hypervisor to communicate with each other internally.

A

D. In most virtualization products, when you create multiple virtual machines on one host computer, they can communicate with each other internally using a built-in virtual switching capability. A computer with multiple network adapters can function as a router, but not as a switch. Layer 3 switches can provide virtual routers that connect VLANs together, but not virtual switches. The function that enables VLANs on different switches to communicate is called trunking, not virtual switching.

129
Q

Which of the following statements best describes the difference between Type I and Type II virtualization?
Type II virtualization requires the host computer to have a processor that supports hardware virtualization assistance; Type I virtualization does not.
In Type I virtualization, the hypervisor runs directly on the physical computer hardware, whereas in Type II virtualization, a host operating system runs on the computer hardware and the hypervisor runs on top of the host OS.
Type I virtualization supports up to 256 virtual machines, whereas Type II virtualization supports only 8.
Type I virtualization requires a separate processor for each virtual machine, whereas in Type II virtualization, the VMs all share a single processor.

A

B. Type I virtualization does not require a host OS, whereas Type II virtualization does. Both Type I and Type II virtualization can use processors with hardware virtualization assistance, but only Type I requires it. The type of virtualization does not impose any limit on the number of virtual machines supported; any limitations are left to the individual implementation. Both Type I and Type II virtualization can share a single processor among virtual machines.

130
Q
On which of the following virtual networking components can you create VLANs?
Virtual NIC
Virtual switch
Virtual router
Virtual firewall
A

B. You can create virtual local area networks (VLANs) on a virtual switch, just as you can create them on many physical switches. In most cases, virtual components function just like their physical counterparts. Virtual NICs are components of virtual machines and therefore do not provide functions spanning entire networks. Virtual routers function at the network layer and virtual firewalls at the application layer, so neither of these can host VLANs, which operate at the data link layer.

131
Q
On an unmanaged network, which of the following virtual networking components have media access control (MAC) addresses assigned to them?
Virtual switches
Virtual NICs
Hypervisors
Virtual firewalls
A

B. Just like physical network interface cards (NICs), virtual NICs have six-byte MAC addresses assigned to them, which enable them to be identified by data link layer protocols. Unlike physical NICs, however, it is typically an easy matter to modify a MAC address on a virtual NIC. Virtual switches, like physical switches, are not addressable devices, so they do not have MAC addresses on an unmanaged network. The hypervisor is the component on a host server that makes virtualization possible, so it does not require a MAC address. Virtual firewalls operate at the application layer, so they do not require data link layer MAC addresses. On a managed network, these devices have a MAC address to communicate with the management console, but addresses are not needed on an unmanaged network.

132
Q
Which of the following protocols is not used for storage area networking (SANs)?
iSCSI
FCoE
VoIP
Fibre Channel
A

C. Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) is a technology for the transmission of voice communications over IP networks; it is not a SAN protocol. Internet Small Computer Systems Interface (ISCSI), Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE), and Fibre Channel are all SAN protocols.

133
Q
Which of the following technologies do iSCSI initiators use to locate iSCSI targets on the network?
Active Directory
ICMP
DNS
iWINS
iSNS
A

E. The Internet Storage Name Service (iSNS) is an application that provides iSCSI initiators with automated discovery of targets located on the network. iSNS can also function as a discovery service for Fibre Channel devices. Active Directory, Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP), and Domain Name System (DNS) are not capable of registering iSCSI targets. iWINS does not exist.

134
Q
What is the highest possible data transfer rate on a storage area network (SAN) using Fibre Channel?
8 Gbps
16 Gbps
32 Gbps
128 Gbps
256 Gbps
A

D. The current Fibre Channel standard calls for a maximum data transfer rate of 128 gigabits per second (Gbps), for a nominal throughput of 12,800 megabytes per second (MBps).

135
Q
Which of the following storage area network (SAN) technologies can conceivably share the same network cabling system as a local area network (LAN)? (Choose all correct answers.)
iSCSI
Fibre Channel
FCoE
InfiniBand
A

A and C. iSCSI runs on a standard IP network, so its traffic can conceivably coexist with LAN traffic. However, the use of a quality of service (QoS) mechanism is strongly recommended, to prevent the two traffic types from interfering with each other. Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE) replaces the bottom two layers of the standard Fibre Channel network with Ethernet physical and data link layer implementations. This makes it possible to run a Fibre Channel SAN using standard Ethernet networking hardware. However, the same issues of traffic coexistence that affect iSCSI apply to FCoE as well. Standard Fibre Channel and InfiniBand SANs cannot coexist with LAN traffic on the same network cable.

136
Q
In its primary functionality, a network attached storage (NAS) device is most closely associated with which of the following devices?
Failover cluster
File server
JBOD
RAID
A

B. A NAS device is essentially a file server that connects to a network and provides users with access to shared files. A NAS is a single computer, so it cannot be associated with failover clustering. Just a Bunch of Disks (JBOD) is a simple storage array that provides block-level access to data, whereas NAS devices provide file-level access. Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID) is a fault tolerance technology that might be implemented in NAS devices, but it is not the device’s primary function.

137
Q

hich of the following statements about the differences between network attached storage (NAS) and storage area networks (SANs) are true? (Choose all correct answers.)
NAS provides file-level storage access, whereas SAN provides block-level storage access.
NAS devices typically contain integrated iSCSI targets.
SAN devices have an operating system, whereas NAS devices do not.
NAS devices typically provide a filesystem, whereas SAN devices do not.

A

A and D. NAS devices are self-contained file servers that connect directly to a standard IP network. A NAS device provides file-level access to its storage devices and includes an operating system and a filesystem. NAS devices are typically not iSCSI targets.

138
Q

Which of the following statements specify advantages of FCoE over the original Fibre Channel standard? (Choose all correct answers.)
FCoE is less expensive to implement than Fibre Channel.
FCoE can share a network with standard IP traffic, whereas Fibre Channel cannot.
FCoE is routable over IP networks, whereas Fibre Channel is not.
FCoE uses standard Ethernet networking hardware.

A

A, B, and D. Because it uses standard Ethernet hardware, Fiber Channel over Ethernet (FCoE) is far less expensive to implement than Fibre Channel, which requires a dedicated fiber-optic network. Because Fibre Channel requires a dedicated network, it cannot coexist with standard IP traffic, whereas FCoE can. Because it is encapsulated in Ethernet frames, FCoE is not routable on IP networks.

139
Q
Which of the following are application layer protocols that network attached storage (NAS) devices can use to serve shared files to clients on the network? (Choose all correct answers.)
CIFS
NFS
RDMA
HTTP
A

A, B, and D. Common Internet File System (CIFS), Network File System (NFS), and Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) are all file sharing protocols supported by many NAS devices. Remote Direct Memory Access (RDMA) provides high-speed network data transfers, but it is not an application layer file sharing protocol.

140
Q

Which of the following is not one of the advantages of iSCSI over Fibre Channel?
iSCSI is routable, whereas Fibre Channel is not.
iSCSI is less expensive to implement than Fibre Channel.
iSCSI includes its own internal flow control mechanism, whereas Fibre Channel does not.
iSCSI can share the same network as standard local area network traffic, whereas Fibre Channel cannot.

A

C. iSCSI does not include its own flow control mechanism. It runs over a TCP connection, which is the protocol responsible for flow control. Because it runs on any IP network, iSCSI traffic is routable, and it is less expensive to implement. Fibre Channel requires a dedicated network using fiber-optic cable. iSCSI traffic can coexist with standard LAN traffic on a single network, although some type of quality of service (QoS) mechanism is frequently recommended.

141
Q
Which of the following storage area network (SAN) technologies is primarily used by supercomputers as a high-speed, low-latency connection between processors and storage systems?
InfiniBand
Fibre Channel
iSCSI
FCoE
A

A. InfiniBand is a high-end storage infrastructure technology that provides data transfer rates of up to 2.5 Gbps and scalable support for up to 64,000 devices. It is primarily used in high-performance computing environments to replace older bus technologies connecting processors to storage arrays. Fibre Channel, Internet Small Computer System Interface (iSCSI), and Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE) are all SAN technologies, but they are more commonly used in local area network (LAN) environments.

142
Q
Which of the following is the term for the client that accesses an iSCSI device on a storage area network?
Initiator
Target
Controller
Adapter
A

A. The client side of an iSCSI implementation is called an initiator. The storage device to which the initiator connects is called a target. Controller and adapter are not terms used for iSCSI clients or servers.

143
Q
Which of the following components is responsible for providing a virtualized hardware environment and running virtual machines?
Hypervisor
Virtual server
Virtual switch
VPN concentrator
A

A. The hypervisor is the hardware or software component responsible for managing virtual machines and providing the virtualized hardware environment on which they run. Virtual servers and virtual switches are components that are part of the virtual network infrastructure enabled by the hypervisor. A virtual private network (VPN) concentrator is a type of router that enables multiple remote clients to connect to a network; it has nothing to do with virtual networking.

144
Q
Which of the following protocols are included in an iSCSI packet? (Choose all correct answers.)
Ethernet
IP
TCP
UDP
None of the above
A

A, B, and C. iSCSI runs on a standard IP network; therefore, iSCSI messages are encapsulated using Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) at the transport layer, Internet Protocol (IP) at the network layer, and Ethernet at the data link layer. iSCSI does not use the User Datagram Protocol (UDP).

145
Q
Which of the following protocols are included in a Fibre Channel packet?
Ethernet
IP
TCP
UDP
None of the above
A

E. The Fibre Channel standard defines a unique, five-layer protocol stack that does not correspond to the OSI model layers. Therefore, Fibre Channel does not use Ethernet, nor does it use Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), Internet Protocol (IP), User Datagram Protocol (UDP), or any of the other TCP/IP protocols.

146
Q
Which of the following protocol standards defines a layered implementation that does not correspond to the layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model?
iSCSI
Fibre Channel
PPP
RDMA
A

B. The Fibre Channel standard defines a five-layer networking stack, with layers numbered FC-0 to FC-4, that does not correspond to the layers of the OSI model. Internet Small Computer System Interface (iSCSI), Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP), and Remote Direct Memory Access (RDMA) all function within the standard OSI model layers.

147
Q
Which of the following protocols are included in an FCoE packet?
Ethernet
IP
TCP
UDP
None of the above
A

A. Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE) uses Ethernet frames in place of the bottom two layers (FC0 and FC1) of the Fibre Channel protocol stack. The remaining layers (FC2, FC3, and FC4) use the standard Fibre Channel protocols. FCoE does not use Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), Internet Protocol (IP), User Datagram Protocol (UDP), or any of the other TCP/IP protocols.

148
Q
Which of the following is the proper term for a computer with a hypervisor on which you can create virtual machines and other virtual components?
Guest
NAS
Host
SAN
A

C. A computer with a hypervisor, on which you can create virtual machines, is referred to as a host. The virtual machines themselves are called guests. Network attached storage (NAS) refers to a device containing shared drives that is connected to a network. A storage area network (SAN) is a separate network dedicated to shared storage devices.

149
Q

In which of the following ways does a virtual switch differ from a physical switch?
Virtual switches have an unlimited number of ports, whereas physical switches have a specific number.
Physical switches typically support the creation of VLANs, whereas virtual switches do not.
Virtual switches cannot forward traffic to the host server running them, whereas physical switches can forward traffic to all connected computers.
Physical switches always include layer 3 functionality, whereas virtual switches do not.

A

A. It is true that virtual switches can have unlimited ports, whereas physical switches are limited to the number of physical ports in the device. Both virtual and physical switches can support virtual local area networks (VLANs). Virtual switches can forward traffic to the host server. Physical switches do not always include layer 3 (routing) functionality.

150
Q
Which of the following protocols uses jumbo frames to increase performance levels on storage area networks?
Ethernet
IP
Fibre Channel
iSCSI
A

A. Ethernet uses jumbo frames to transfer large amounts of data more efficiently. On a packet-switched network, each packet requires header data, which adds to the network’s transmission overhead. Splitting large files into a great many small packets can lead to so much overhead that network efficiency is impaired. Ethernet typically restricts frame size to 1,500 bytes, but jumbo frames enable Ethernet systems to create frames up to 9,000 bytes. Frames are data link layer protocol data units, so Internet Protocol (IP), operating at the network layer, is not involved in creating them. Fibre Channel and iSCSI are specialized storage area networking protocols that do not use jumbo frames.

151
Q
In which of the following components can a virtual firewall be implemented?
On a host operating system
On a guest operating system
In a dedicated virtual machine
In a virtual switch
All of the above
A

E. A virtual firewall is a service or appliance that performs the same functions as a physical network firewall: packet filtering and monitoring. In a virtual environment, firewalls can take the form of software components installed on a guest virtual machine or a hypervisor host system. A firewall can also be incorporated into a virtual switch.

152
Q

Which of the following remote access technologies converts digital signals generated by a computer to analog signals that can be carried over standard telephone wires?
Modem-to-modem
Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)
Digital Subscriber Line (DSL)
Cable broadband

A

A. Modem-to-modem connections use the existing analog Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) network to carry data over standard telephone lines. All modem-to-modem connections are limited to analog signaling and therefore must perform modulation and demodulation. This means that the modems convert digital signals to analog signals before transmitting them over the PSTN network. Modems then convert the digital signals back to analog at the destination. ISDN, DSL, and cable broadband all use digital signaling from end to end.

153
Q

Which of the following types of wide area network (WAN) connection uses analog signaling and is limited to transmission speeds of 33.6 Kbps upstream and 56 Kbps downstream?
Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN)
Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)
Digital Subscriber Line (DSL)
Cable broadband

A

A. The current industry standard transmission speed for modem communication using PSTN connections is 56 Kbps in one direction and 33.6 Kbps in the other. To achieve 56 Kbps, one of the devices must have a digital connection to the PSTN. ISDN, DSL, and cable broadband all support faster transmission speeds.

154
Q

Which of the following wide area network (WAN) technologies uses only digital signaling and uses a separate signaling channel for its control and synchronization?
Modem-to-modem
Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)
Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)
Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP)

A

B. ISDN has a separate channel, referred to as the D channel, which devices use for control and synchronization. The other channels (or circuits) carry data and are referred to as B channels. Modem-to-modem communication uses in-band signaling, which means that both control/synchronization and data traffic are carried over the same circuit. L2TP and PPTP are tunneling, not WAN, protocols.

155
Q

Which of the following wide area network (WAN) technologies is sometimes referred to as 2B+D?
Digital Subscriber Line (DSL)
Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) Primary Rate Interface (PRI)
Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) Basic Rate Interface (BRI)
T-1

A

C. ISDN BRI is sometimes referred to as 2B+D. B channels are 64-Kbps circuits that carry user data. A single D channel carries control and synchronization information. An ISDN PRI connection has 23 B channels, not 2. DSL does not use B and D channels. T-1 circuits consist of 24 channels, all of which carry data and control information.

156
Q

Why does DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) technology support faster data transmissions than a standard Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) modem connection?
DSL uses a separate control circuit that provides clear channels for data.
DSL does not perform cyclical redundancy check (CRC) functions and therefore has less overhead.
DSL performs only a single analog-to-digital conversion.
DSL uses a higher frequency range.

A

D. DSL technology provides higher data rates because it uses frequency ranges that are higher than the standard voice spectrum. DSL connections use from 10 kHz and above, whereas the standard voice spectrum uses 300 Hz to 4 kHz. DSL does not use separate control circuits and does not perform CRC functions. Also, DSL technology is strictly digital and does not require an analog-to-digital conversion.

157
Q
Which DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) technology can adjust its transmission speed based on line conditions?
HDSL
IDSL
RADSL
VDSL
A

C. Rate-Adaptive Digital Subscriber Line (RADSL) technology can adjust its rate of transmission based on line conditions. High-bit-rate Digital Subscriber Line (HDSL), Very high-rate Digital Subscriber Line (VDSL), and Internet Digital Subscriber Line (IDSL) do not use rate adaptive transmission.

158
Q

hich of the following wide area network (WAN) technologies uses broadband signaling?
Digital Subscriber Line (DSL)
Synchronous Optical Network (SONET)
Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)
Cable television (CATV)

A

D. CATV networks use broadband signaling, which enables many signals to occupy the same channel. DSL and ISDN do not use broadband signaling. SONET is a physical layer standard that defines fiber-optic connections.

159
Q

Alice’s company has 10 users who telecommute from home. They all have Integrated Services Digital Network Basic Rate Interface (ISDN BRI) configured and installed in their homes. They all need to transfer files between their homes and the corporate network. Each user connection has its two B channels combined for a total data transfer rate of 128 Kbps. Alice’s corporate network must be able to support all of these connections simultaneously. What service should Alice install at the corporate site, and how should she configure it to support the remote client connections?
Alice should install a single BRI connection and configure the access router to combine its B channels.
Alice should install five BRI connections and configure the access router to combine all ten B channels.
Alice should install multiple Primary Rate Interface (PRI) connections and configure the access router to combine all of the B channels.
Alice should install a single PRI connection and configure the access router to combine all 23 B channels.

A

D. In this scenario, there are 10 users with BRI connections, each of which has its two B channels combined to provide a 128 Kbps transfer rate per user. To support simultaneous connections to the corporate site, Alice will need to install and configure a single PRI link to support the aggregation of multiple B channel connections. A single PRI link has 23 B channels and 1 D channel. Therefore, the router can support up to 11 inbound BRI sessions simultaneously, which is more than enough. Installing a single BRI at the corporate site would not enable multiple simultaneous BRI connections, and installing five BRI links, for a total of ten 64 Kbps B channels, would not support the ten 128 Kbps sessions that are required. Installing multiple PRI links is unnecessary since the site only has to support ten inbound BRI connections.

160
Q

Ed has been hired by a private company to connect two remote sites with a wide area network (WAN). Each of these sites has more than 200 users, and they all need to constantly transfer files across the WAN. One of the sites has a customer database that is accessed by both sites at all hours of the day. Access to the database and other information is time sensitive and constant. The company estimates that their aggregate bandwidth needs to be approximately 40 Mbps. Management says that they need to guarantee access to this information and that money is not a factor in the WAN implementation. Which WAN technology should Ed recommend for this scenario?
A standard modem-to-modem connection
A T-3 dedicated leased line
An ISDN (Integrated Services Digital Network) Primary Rate Interface (PRI) connection
An ADSL (Asymmetrical Digital Subscriber Line) connection

A

B. For this scenario, the best solution is a dedicated leased line connection. This is because the bandwidth requirements are constant and the data transfer rates are high. To support the 40 Mbps data rate, Ed should recommend a T-3 dedicated leased line, running at 44.735 Mbps. Standard modem connections, ADSL, and an ISDN PRI connection are all too slow.

161
Q

Ralph is an employee of a company that offers the option to telecommute from home. As a telecommuting employee, he needs to connect to the company network to access client information, transfer files, and send email through a virtual private network (VPN) connection. Ralph is investigating the different wide area network (WAN) services available for the remote connection before he implements one. His home is over 30 years old; the existing telephone wiring was not run through conduit, and the wiring seems to be deteriorating. Ralph has cable television (CATV) service, and his home is also approximately 20,000 feet from the nearest telephone central office. He wants to implement the fastest remote connection service possible, but cost is a factor in the decision. Which WAN technology should Ralph implement?
A dedicated leased line (fractional T-1)
A standard modem-to-modem connection
A DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) connection
A broadband CATV connection

A

D. In this scenario, the best solution is for Ralph to use his existing CATV service the remote connection. CATV offers faster data rates than standard modem-to-modem service and supports VPN connections. A dedicated fractional T-1 line is expensive and is not typically used for remote user connections. Since Ralph’s telephone lines are not run through conduit and the distance to the central office is more than 18,000 feet, he probably cannot use DSL technology, because it requires good-quality lines and close proximity to a central office.

162
Q

Alice is the administrator of a corporate network. The company has one main site and two branch offices, and Alice is responsible for implementing WAN connections between them. The two branch offices need to upload financial information to the main office at the end of each day. This information transfer consists of database files totaling 20 to 30 GB per site. Other than the exchange of financial information, no other user traffic will be transferred between the sites, and, for security reasons, the management wants to automatically disconnect the link when it is not in use, without having to manually unplug the service cable. Cost is a factor in determining which wide area network (WAN) technology to use. Which of the following WAN technologies best suits the company’s needs?
A dedicated leased line (fractional T-1)
A Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) modem connection
A Digital Subscriber Line (DSL) connection
A broadband cable television (CATV) connection
An Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) Primary Rate Interface (PRI) connection

A

E. For this scenario, the only solution that meets all the company’s needs is an ISDN PRI connection. All of the specified options, except for the PSTN modem connection, provide sufficient bandwidth for the application. However, only the ISDN and PSTN links can be disconnected when not in use. Therefore, ISDN is the only possibility.

163
Q

ich of the following wide area network (WAN) connection technologies uses analog signaling?
Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN)
Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)
Cable television (CATV)
Digital Subscriber Line (DSL)
Synchronous Optical Network (SONET)

A

A. PSTN is an analog, circuit-switched network. ISDN, CATV, DSL, and SONET are all digital networks.

164
Q

Which of the following wide area network (WAN) technologies provides circuit-switched physical layer connections? (Choose all correct answers.)
Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN)
Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)
Digital Subscriber Line (DSL)
Leased line

A

A and B. Circuit-switching WAN technologies set up and maintain connections between end systems for the duration of a session. The WAN technologies that can use this type of connection are PSTN and ISDN. Leased lines, such as a T-1, are dedicated connections. DSL uses packet switching, not circuit switching.

165
Q

If you want to allow both voice and data traffic to be transmitted across the same Digital Subscriber Line (DSL) connection, what type of device is required at the customer site?
A signal terminator
A Digital Subscriber Line Access Multiplexer (DSLAM)
A coder/decoder (CODEC) device
A splitter

A

D. In a DSL connection, a signal splitter is needed at the customer site to separate the lower frequency voice range from the higher frequencies used by data traffic. The higher frequency signals are handled at the central office by a DSLAM device. Lower frequency signals carrying voice traffic are handled at the central office by a CODEC device. A signal terminator is not required by DSL.

166
Q
What are the two main factors that affect DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) transmission rates?
Signal termination
Distance to the nearest central office
Line conditions
Line reflection
A

B and C. There are two factors that affect DSL transmission rates. The first is the distance to the nearest central office, and the second is the condition and quality of the line. For DSL to achieve higher data rates, the site must be close to the central office and use good-quality lines for signal transmission. The other options are not factors relating to DSL transmission.

167
Q

Which of the following statements are true about the Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP)? (Choose all correct answers.)
PPP supports both clear text and encrypted authentication.
PPP supports encrypted authentication only.
PPP supports Internet Protocol (IP) traffic only.
PPP supports multiple network layer protocols.

A

A and D. PPP supports both clear text and encrypted password authentication. It also supports multiple network layer protocols.

168
Q

Which of the following best describes the function of a demarcation point or demarc?
The vertical cross connect that links horizontal networks together
The place where an outside service enters the building
A switch or hub that connects the computers in a particular work area together, forming a horizontal network
The place in a telecommunications room where a patch panel is located

A

B. A demarcation point, or demarc, is the place where an outside telecommunications service meets a customer’s private network, which is typically where the service enters the building. The demarc is also the place where the responsibility of the network administrator ends. If a problem occurs outside the demarc, it is up to the service provider to fix it. Inside the demarc, it is the network administrator’s problem.

169
Q
Which of the following protocols enables the computers on a home network to establish individual connections to remote services accessible through a broadband router?
EAP
RDP
IPsec
PPPoE
A

D. Point-to-Point Protocol over Ethernet (PPPoE) is designed to connect multiple computers to a remote network using an Ethernet LAN and broadband technology, while establishing a separate PPP connection between each computer and a given remote service. The Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) is a shell protocol that enables systems to use various types of authentication mechanisms. The primary advantage of EAP is that it enables a computer to use mechanisms other than passwords for authentication, including public key certificates, smartcards, and biometric devices, such as fingerprint scanners. The Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) was designed to enable Remote Desktop Services servers and clients to communicate. It is an application layer protocol that has nothing to do with extending PPP connections to Ethernet networks. IPsec provides security for IP network communications; it does not extend PPP connections to Ethernet networks.

170
Q
Which of the following broadband WAN services provides equal amounts of upstream and downstream bandwidth?
ADSL
SDSL
Satellite
Cable
A

B. The word symmetric in Symmetric Digital Subscriber Line means that the service provides equal amounts of bandwidth in both directions. The asymmetric in Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line means that the service provides more downstream bandwidth than upstream. Cable and satellite services are also asymmetric, providing more bandwidth downstream than upstream.

171
Q

Which of the following WAN technologies uses analog signaling?
Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN)
Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)
Digital Subscriber Line (DSL)
Cable television network (CATV)
Synchronous Optical Network (SONET)
Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM)

A

A. PSTN is the standard telephone network, an analog, circuit-switched service. ISDN, DSL, CATV, SONET, and ATM are all digital networks.

172
Q
Which of the following hardware components is typically found at the demarcation point of a leased line, such as a T-1 or T-3?
Terminator
Punchdown block
110 block
Smart jack
CSU/DSU
A

D. The network interface device (NID) at the demarcation point of a leased line can be a simple RJ45 jack, but many service providers install smart jacks, which can also provide signal conversion, diagnostic testing, and other capabilities. Punchdown blocks, 110 blocks, and channel service unit/data service units (CSU/DSUs) are all telecommunications components located inside the demarc, on the subscriber’s private network.

173
Q

Which of the following remote access connection technologies can support the simultaneous transmission of voice and data traffic over the Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN)? (Choose all correct answers.)
Dial-up modem connection
Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)
Digital Subscriber Line (DSL)
Synchronous Optical Network (SONET)
Cable television network (CATV)

A

B and C. ISDN and DSL are both remote access technologies that enable users to transmit voice and data simultaneously. To do this, DSL splits the lower analog frequency (voice) range from the higher digital frequency (data) range, whereas ISDN provides multiple data channels (called B channels) that allow for both voice and data transmissions. Broadband cable television networks can often support simultaneous voice and data communications, but they use Voice over IP (VoIP) to carry voice traffic over the Internet, not the PSTN. Dial-up connections and SONET do not support the simultaneous transmission of voice and data.

174
Q
A company is moving their entire operation to a new building, and part of the plan is to increase the speed of their Internet access by installing a leased T-3 line to replace their existing broadband connection. The service provider they have selected sends a technician to install the leased line. Which of the following is the correct term for the location in the new building where the technician will terminate the T-3?
Patch panel
Switch
Firewall
Demarc
A

D. The demarc, or demarcation point, is the place where a service enters the building and where the service provider’s physical layer responsibility ends. The patch panel, the switch, and the firewall are all inside the network, and they are the responsibility of the subscriber.

175
Q
Which of the following is a PPP authentication protocol that enables users to authenticate using smartcards and fingerprint scanners, as well as usernames and passwords?
PPTP
PAP
CHAP
EAP
A

D. Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) is a shell protocol used with Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP), which enables systems to support various types of authentication mechanisms. The primary advantage of EAP is that it enables a computer to use mechanisms other than passwords for authentication, including public key certificates, smartcards, and biometric devices, such as fingerprint scanners. Password Authentication Protocol (PAP) and Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) support only password authentication. Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP) is a virtual private networking (VPN) protocol, not an authentication protocol.

176
Q
A T-3 leased line connection runs at 44.736 megabits per second (Mbps). How many separate channels does a T-3 provide?
24
64
128
512
672
A

E. A T-3 leased line connection is the equivalent of 28 T-1 connections. Each T-1 consists of 24 channels, so a T-3 has a total of 672 channels (28 × 24).

177
Q
At which layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model does the Point-to-Point (PPP) protocol operate? (Choose all correct answers.)
Physical
Data link
Network
Transport
Session
Presentation
Application
A

A and B. PPP provides a physical and data link layer connection between two end systems. The network control protocols (NCPs) associated with PPP facilitate the use of network layer protocols, such as IP, but they do not operate at the network layer themselves. PPP does not operate at the upper layers of the OSI model.

178
Q
A T-3 leased line connection is the equivalent of how many T-1 connections?
7
14
28
112
A

C. A T-3 leased line connection is the equivalent of 28 T-1 connections. Each T-1 consists of 24 channels, so a T-3 has a total of 672 channels (28 × 24), for an overall transfer rate of 44.736 Mbps.

179
Q
Which of the following wide area network (WAN) technologies is considered to be both a packet-switched and a circuit-switched service?
PSTN
T-1 leased line
Metropolitan Ethernet
ATM
A

D. Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) is a cell-switched protocol that is designed to carry voice, data, and video traffic by splitting it into uniform 53-byte cells. To this degree, it can be considered a packet-switched service. However, it is unlike traditional packet-switched protocols, which use variable-sized packets. ATM can also be called a circuit-switched service, because the end systems must create a virtual circuit before they transfer any data. Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) and T-1 leased lines are both circuit-switched network types, while Metropolitan Ethernet is packet-switched.

180
Q
Which of the following is the U.S. standard for synchronous data transmissions that defines data rates designated by optical carrier levels, such as OC-3, OC-12, OC-48, and OC-192?
SDH
SONET
ISDN
ATM
A

B. The Synchronous Optical Networking (SONET) standard defines a base data transfer rate of 51.84 Mbps, which is multiplied at the various optical carrier levels. An OC-3 connection therefore runs 155.52 Mbps, an OC-12 at 622.08 Mbps and so forth. The Synchronous Digital Hierarchy (SDH) is the European equivalent of SONET. Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) is a service that combines voice and data services using the Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN), and Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) is cell-switched protocol defining a combined voice, data, and video service.

181
Q
Which of the following technologies can replace leased lines, such as T-1s, by multiplexing signals as packets switched through virtual circuits in a cloud?
E-1s
Frame relay
ATM
PPP
A

B. Frame relay is a packet switching service that uses a single leased line to replace multiple leased lines by multiplexing traffic through a cloud. The service can create virtual circuits connecting the subscriber’s network to multiple destinations, eliminating the need for a dedicated leased line to each remote site. An E-1 is the European equivalent to a T-1 leased line, which does not replace multiple T-1s. Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) is a cell-switching WAN technology, and Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) is a protocol that provides a data link layer connection between two end systems. Neither is a replacement for multiple T-1s.

182
Q
Which of the following is a wide area networking mechanism that assigns labels to packets and forwards them based on those labels, rather than addresses?
Frame relay
MPLS
ATM
PPPoE
A

B. Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS) is a data transfer mechanism that assigns labels to individual packets and then routes the packets based on those labels. Frame relay, Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM), and Point-to-Point Protocol over Ethernet (PPPoE) do not assign labels to packets.

183
Q

In telecommunications, the term broadband has had a variety of definitions over the years. Which of the following is not one of the standard definitions of the term?
A medium that connects to the Internet at high speed and is always on
A medium that carries a wide range of frequencies
A medium that uses a cable with a relatively large diameter
A medium that runs at a speed higher than a 56 Kbps modem
A medium that transmits multiple signals at once

A

C. The term broadband has nothing to do with the width of the cable. However, the term as been used to refer to a transmission medium that carries multiple signals, that carries a wide range of frequencies, that is faster than a dial-up modem, and that provides an always-on, high-speed connection to the Internet.

184
Q
Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) offers two types of services. What are they? (Choose all correct answers.)
TE1
TA
BRI
PRI
NT1
A

C and D. The two types of ISDN services are Basic Rate Interface (BRI) and Primary Rate Interface (PRI). Terminal Equipment 1 (TE1), terminal adapter (TA), Network Termination 1 (NT1) are all terms for ISDN hardware devices.

185
Q
Which two of the following constructs provide roughly the same function? (Choose two correct answers.)
SIP trunk
CSU/DSU
VoIP gateway
Smart jack
VPN concentrator
A

A and C. A Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) trunk provides a connection between the private and public domains of a unified communications network. A VoIP gateway provides a connection between an IP network and the Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN). Both of these provide a conduit between a subscriber’s private network and the network furnished by a service provider. A CSU/DSU is a device that provides a router on a private network with access to a leased line. A smart jack provides signal conversion, diagnostic testing, and other capabilities to leased line subscribers. A virtual private network (VPN) concentrator is a type of router that enables multiple client systems to access a network from remote locations.

186
Q
Which of the following technologies enables virtual private network (VPN) clients to connect directly to each other, as well as to the VPN server at the home site?
VPN concentrator
DMVPN
SIP trunk
MPLS
A

B. VPN typically enables remote clients to connect to a VPN router at a central site, much like the star topology of a local area network, in which computers are all connected to a central switch. Dynamic multipoint virtual private network (DMVPN) is a technology that creates a mesh topology between the remote VPN sites, enabling the remote sites to connect directly to each other, rather than to the central VPN server. A virtual private network (VPN) concentrator is a type of router that enables multiple client systems to access a network from remote locations. A Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) trunk provides a connection between the private and public domains of a unified communications network. Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS) is a data transfer mechanism that assigns labels to individual packets and then routes the packets based on those labels.

187
Q
Which of the following wide area network (WAN) transmission media is least susceptible to attenuation?
Copper
Fiber optic
Wireless
Satellite
A

B. Attenuation is the weakening of a signal as it travels over a transmission medium. Fiber-optic cables can carry signals for great distances with little attenuation, far less than any copper medium. Wireless and satellite media, by transmitting signals through air, suffer the most attenuation of any of these options.

188
Q

Which of the following statements about PPPoE are not true? (Choose all correct answers.)
PPPoE encapsulates Ethernet frames within PPP packets.
PPPoE enables multiple users on an Ethernet network to share a single Internet connection.
PPPoE requires a server on the Ethernet network that functions as the middleman between the LAN and the Internet service provider’s (ISP’s) network.
The PPPoE connection process consists of two stages: negotiation and establishment.

A

A and D. PPPoE encapsulates PPP within Ethernet frames, not the other way around. The two stages of the PPPoE connection process are discovery and session. PPPoE does enable multiple users to share an Internet connection, and it requires a PPPoE server that initiates the PPP connection to the ISP’s network.

189
Q
Which of the following is the European equivalent of the Synchronous Optical Networking (SONET) standard in the United States?
SDH
OC-3
E-3
ATM
A

A. Synchronous Digital Hierarchy (SDH) is the European equivalent of SONET. Optical carrier 3 (OC-3) is one of the SONET data rates. E-3 is the European equivalent of the T-3 connection in the United States. Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) is a cell-switched protocol that is designed to carry voice, data, and video traffic by splitting it into uniform 53-byte cells.

190
Q
Which of the following is the device that provides the interface between a local area network (LAN) and a wide area network (WAN)?
QSFP
CSU/DSU
SIP trunk
IDS/IPS
A

B. A channel service unit/data service unit (CSU/DSU) is a device that provides a LAN router on a private network with access to a leased line WAN connection. Quad Small Form-Factor Pluggable (QSFP) is a standard for a type of modular transceiver, often used on fiber-optic installations. A Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) trunk provides a connection between the private and public domains of a unified communications network, such as a LAN and the Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN). An intrusion detection system/intrusion prevention system (IDS/IPS) is a network hardware or software security appliance that detects malicious activity and attempts to block it.

191
Q
Which of the following terms describes a leased line subscription that consists of only part of a T-1?
E-1
B channel
OC-1
Fractional T-1
A

D. A subscription to part of the T-1 leased line is called a fractional T-1 service. This service enables you to purchase some of the 24 DS0 channels in a T-1 connection. An E-1 is the European version of a T-1. A B channel is part of an Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) service, not a T-1. An OC-1 is a fiber-optic connection on the Synchronous Optical Network (SONET) service.

192
Q
Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS) is sometimes said to operate between two layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model. Between which two layers is it usually said to function?
Physical and data link
Data link and network
Network and transport
Transport and Session
A

B. MPLS is a data-carrying service that is often said to operate between the data link layer and the network layer. It is therefore sometimes called a layer 2.5 protocol. MPLS can be used to carry IP datagrams as well as Ethernet, Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM), and Synchronous Optical Network (SONET) traffic.

193
Q
Which of the following wide area networking (WAN) services provides the fastest transfer rate?
T-1
E-1
T-3
OC-1
A

D. An OC-1 connection provides the fastest transfer rate at 51.84 Mbps. An E-1 connection is 2.048 Mbps. A T-3 is 44.736 Mbps, and a T-1 is 1.544 Mbps.

194
Q
To which of the following Internet connection types does a specification called DOCSIS apply?
Dial-up modem
DSL
Cable broadband
ISDN
A

C. The Data Over Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS) is a telecommunications standard that defines the manner in which data is to be transmitted over a cable television system. DOCSIS does not apply to dial-up modem, Digital Subscriber Line (DSL), and Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) connections.

195
Q
Which of the following are types of circuits offered by frame relay services? (Choose all correct answers.)
SRV
PVC
SVC
UPC
A

B and C.
Frame relay services offer permanent virtual circuits (PVCs) and switched virtual circuits (SVCs). SRV is a resource record type in the Domain Name System (DNS), and an ultra-polished connector (UPC) is a type of fiber-optic cable connector.

196
Q

Which of the following statements best explains why it became necessary to develop Point-to-Point Protocol over Ethernet (PPPoE)?
Internet service providers wanted customers to be able to run Ethernet on their home networks.
Local area network (LAN) administrators wanted to reduce network overhead by using the smaller PPP frame.
Internet service providers needed PPP’s authentication and encryption services for cable broadband and Digital Subscriber Line (DSL) customers.
LAN administrators needed PPP to enable LAN users to share files and printers by authenticating using a RADIUS server.

A

C. Cable broadband and DSL subscribers typically connect to ISP networks that run Ethernet, but Ethernet has no built-in authentication or encryption mechanisms. PPP has the ability to use external authentication and encryption protocols, so by encapsulating PPP within Ethernet frames, users are able to log on to the ISP network securely. PPPoE has nothing to do with the subscriber’s internal home network, which can run standard Ethernet. PPPoE does not replace the Ethernet frame with PPP, so it would not reduce network overhead. LAN users do not share files using PPP.

197
Q
Which of the following types of wide area network (WAN) connections commonly use Point-to-Point Protocol over Ethernet (PPPoE)? (Choose all correct answers.)
Leased lines
SONET
Cable broadband
Digital Subscriber Line (DSL)
A

C and D. Cable broadband and DSL subscribers typically connect to ISP networks that run Ethernet, but Ethernet has no built-in authentication or encryption mechanisms. PPP has the ability to use external authentication and encryption protocols, so by encapsulating PPP within Ethernet frames, users are able to log on to the ISP network securely. Leased lines, such as T-1s, and Synchronous Optical Network (SONET) connections do not use Ethernet connections, so they have no need for PPPoE.

198
Q
Which of the following devices often provides diagnostic testing capabilities at the demarcation point of a leased line wide area network (WAN) service?
SIP trunk
Media converter
Smart jack
AAA server
A

C. A smart jack is a device located at the demarcation point of a leased line that can provide additional functions, such as signal conversion, diagnostic testing, and other capabilities. A Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) trunk is a connection to a Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) service provider. A media converter is a local area networking devices that connects different cable types to the same network. An AAA server provides authentication, authorization, and accounting services for remote access servers.

199
Q
Which of the following wide area network (WAN) services typically uses a switched fabric that was called a cloud long before the term came into general use?
ATM
Fractional T-1
SONET
Frame relay
A

D. Frame relay is a packet switching service that uses a single leased line to replace multiple leased lines by multiplexing traffic through a cloud. Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) uses a switched fabric, but it is not referred to as a cloud. A fractional T-1 is part of a leased line that connects two points, so there is no switching involved and no cloud. SONET is a physical layer standard that defines fiber-optic connections; it does not call for switching or use the term cloud.

200
Q
Which of the following wide area network (WAN) services uses uniformly sized, 53-byte packets called cells?
ATM
Frame relay
T-1
PPPoE
-

Copy

Add Highlight

Add Note

A

A. Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) transfers data using uniformly sized cells rather than same-sized packets. Frame relay uses variable-sized packets, and Point-to-Point Protocol over Ethernet (PPPoE) uses variable-sized Ethernet frames. A T-1 is a circuit-switched connection that does not use packets or cells.