Practice Test 1 Flashcards

Question 1

Q

Question ID #10005: Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder is more
common in males than in females among those aged:
A. 8 to 12
B. 21 to 26
C. 35 to 40
D. 60 to 65

Answer

A

The correct answer is A.
The rates of OCD for males and females are about equal
among adolescents and adults. However, because the onset of the disorder is earlier for males than for females, OCD is more prevalent among male children than female children.
Answers B, C, and D: Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder is more common in males than in females among those aged 8-12 years of age

Question 2

Q

Question ID #10007: Level 1 cross-cutting symptom measures
are useful for:
Select one:
A. confirming a diagnosis 
B. screening symptoms
C. treatment planning
D. measuring treatment outcomes

Answer

A

The correct answer is B.
Level 1 cross-cutting symptom measures assess 13 domains for
adults and 12 domains for children and adolescents and are
useful for identifying areas that require additional evaluation.
Answers A, C, & D: Level 2 cross-cutting symptom measures
provide in-depth information on specific domains (e.g., anxiety,
depression, substance use) to help guide diagnosis, treatment
planning, and follow-up.

Question 3

Q

Question ID #10385: The Outline for Cultural Formulation assess
all of the factors except:
Select one:
A. cultural identity
B. cultural conceptualization of distress
C. psychosocial stressors and cultural factors that impact
the client’s vulnerability and resilience
D. universal factors relevant to the client-therapist
relationship

Answer

A

The correct answer is D.
The Outline for Cultural Formulation provides guidelines for assessing four factors: the client’s cultural identity; the client’s cultural conceptualization of distress; the psychosocial stressors and cultural factors that impact the client’s vulnerability and resilience; and cultural factors relevant to the relationship between the client and therapist. Universal factors are not the focus of a cultural formulation.
Answer A: Cultural identity is an important assessment factor.
Answer B: One’s conceptualization of distress within the context of culture is also an important factor.
Answer C: Cultural factors impacting vulnerability and resilience are also important factors to assess when making a cultural formulation.

Question 4

Q

The Cultural Formulation Interview is:
Select one:
A. structured
B. open-ended
C. semi-structured
D. unstructured

Answer

A

The correct answer is C.
The Cultural Formulation Interview (CFI) is a semi-structured interview consisting of 16 questions designed to obtain information on the client’s views regarding the social/cultural context of his/her presenting problems.
Answer A: The CFI is semi-structured.
Answer B: The CFI is not an open-ended interview.
Answer D: The CFI is not unstructured

Question 5

Q

Question ID #10543: The Cultural Formulation Interview (CFI)
assesses all of the following except:
Select one:
A. cultural identity development
B. cultural perceptions of cause, context, and support
C. cultural definition of the problem
D. cultural factors affecting self-coping and help seeking

Answer

A

The correct answer is A.
The CFI focuses on four domains: cultural definition of the problem; cultural perceptions of cause, context, and support; cultural factors affecting self-coping and past help-seeking; and cultural factors affecting current help-seeking. The CFI does not assess cultural identity development.
Answer B: Cultural perceptions of the cause, context, and
support are assessed by the CFI.
Answer C: Assessing cultural definitions of the problem is also an important component of the CFI.
Answer D: Assessing cultural factors related to self-coping and help-seeking are also crucial to the CFI.

Question 6

Q

Specific Learning Disorder often co-occurs
with all of the following except:
Select one:
A. delays in language development
B. attention and memory deficits
C. below-average intelligence
D. low self-esteem

Answer

A

The correct answer is C.
Individuals with Specific Learning Disorder typically have an IQ in the average to above-average range but have higher-than normal rates of other problems and disorders, including delays in language development and/or motor coordination, attention
and memory deficits, and low self-esteem.
Answer A: Delays in language development and/or motor
coordination are correlated with Specific Learning Disorder diagnoses.
Answer B: ADHD is closely correlated with Specific Learning Disorder.
Answer D: Low self-esteem is also correlated with this diagnosis.

Question 7

Q

Question ID #10939: Research suggests that, in general, the
most effective treatment for Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
(OCD) is which of the following?
Select one:
A. Exposure with response prevention
B. Overcorrection
C. Desensitization and behavioral rehearsal
D. Desensitization with reinforced practice

Answer

A

The correct answer is A.
A combination of exposure with response prevention and the tricyclic clomipramine or an SSRI is usually the treatment-ofchoice for OCD. Exposure is often supplemented with thought stopping or other interventions that directly target obsessions.
Answers B, C, & D: Studies investigating the effects of various behavioral therapies have consistently found exposure with response (ritual) prevention to be the most effective treatment for OCD.

Question 8

Q

Question ID #11650: ___________ refers to the ways that
cultural groups experience, understand, and communicate
suffering, behavioral problems, or troubling thoughts and
emotions.
Select one:
A. Cultural syndromes
B. Cultural concepts of distress
C. Cultural idioms
D. Cultural explantations

Answer

A

The correct answer is B.
The DSM-5 defines cultural concepts of distress as the “ways
that cultural groups experience, understand, and communicate suffering, behavioral problems, or troubling thoughts and emotions.”
Answer A: Cultural syndromes are clusters of symptoms and attributions that co-occur among individuals from a particular culture and are recognized by members of that culture as coherent patterns of experience.
Answer C: Cultural idioms of distress are used by members of different cultures to express distress and provide shared ways for talking about personal and social concerns.
Answer D: Cultural explanations refer to the explanatory models that members of a culture use to explain the meaning and causes of symptoms, illness, and distress

Question 9

Q

Question ID #12175: Cultural idioms of distress are:
Select one:
A. the explanatory models that members of a culture use to
explain the meaning and causes of symptoms, illness, and
distress
B. clusters of symptoms and attributions that co-occur
among individuals from a particular culture and are
recognized by members of that culture as coherent patterns
of experience
C. phrases used by members of different cultures to express
distress and provide shared ways for talking about personal
and social concerns
D. ways that cultural groups experience, understand, and
communicate suffering, behavioral problems, or troubling
thoughts and emotions

Answer

A

The correct answer is C.
Cultural idioms of distress are used by members of different cultures to express distress and provide shared ways for talking about personal and social concerns.
Answer A: This is the definition of cultural explanations.
Answer B: This is the definition of cultural syndromes.
Answer D: This is the definition of cultural concepts of distress

Question 10

Q

Question ID #13013: The explanatory models that members of a
culture use to explain the meaning and causes of symptoms,
illness, and distress are referred to as:
Select one:
A. cultural idioms of distress
B. cultural narratives
C. cultural syndromes
D. cultural explanations

Answer

A

The correct answer is D.
The DSM 5 defines cultural explanations as the explanatory models that members of a culture use to explain the meaning and causes of symptoms, illness, and distress.
Answer A: Cultural idioms of distress are used by members of different cultures to express distress and provide shared ways for talking about personal and social concerns.
Answer B: This is a made up term.
Answer C: Cultural syndromes are clusters of symptoms and attributions that co-occur among individuals from a particular culture and are recognized by members of that culture as coherent patterns of experience.

Question 11

Q

Question ID #13018: Cultural syndromes are defined as:
Select one:
A. clusters of symptoms and attributions that co-occur
among individuals from a particular culture and are
recognized by members of that culture as coherent patterns
of experience
B. ways that cultural groups experience, understand, and
communicate suffering, behavioral problems, or troubling
thoughts and emotions
C. the explanatory models that members of a culture use to
explain the meaning and causes of symptoms, illness, and
distress
D. phrases used by members of different cultures to express
distress and provide shared ways for talking about personal
and social concerns

Answer

A

The correct answer is A.
Cultural syndromes are clusters of symptoms and attributions
that co-occur among individuals from a particular culture and
are recognized by members of that culture as coherent
patterns of experience.
Answer B: This is the definition of cultural concepts of distress.
Answer C: This is the definition of cultural explanations.
Answer D: This defines cultural idioms of distress.

Question 12

Q

Question ID #13025: ____________ is/are useful for obtaining
information on a client’s cultural concepts of distress.
Select one:
A. The Outline for Cultural Formulation
B. The Cultural Formulation Interview
C. Cross-cutting symptom measures
D. Cross-cutting cultural measures

Answer

A

The correct answer is B.
The Cultural Formulation Interview (CFI) is a semi-structured
interview consisting of 16 questions designed to obtain
information on the client’s views regarding the social/cultural
context of his/her presenting problems. It focuses on four
domains: cultural definition of the problem; cultural perceptions
of cause, context, and support; cultural factors affecting selfcoping and past help seeking; and cultural factors affecting
current help seeking. The CFI is useful for obtaining information
on a client’s cultural concepts of distress.
Answer A: The Outline for Cultural Formulation provides
guidelines for assessing four factors: the client’s cultural
identity; the client’s cultural conceptualization of distress; the
psychosocial stressors and cultural factors that impact the
client’s vulnerability and resilience; and cultural factors relevant
to the relationship between the client and therapist.
Answer C: Cross-cutting symptom measures are designed to
be used in the initial patient interview and during treatment to
monitor progress. They provide information on mental health
domains that are important across the psychiatric diagnoses.
Answer D: This is a made up term.

Question 13

Q

Question ID #13027: The DSM-5 provides three tools to help
clinicians consider and understand the importance of cultural
diagnosing and planning treatment. This tool set includes all of
the following except:
Select one:
A. the Cultural Formulation Interview
B. Cultural concepts of distress
C. Cultural measures of distress
D. the Outline for Cultural Formulation

Answer

A

The correct answer is C.
The DSM-5 provides three tools to help clinicians consider and
understand the impact of a client’s cultural background on
diagnosis and treatment: the Outline for Cultural Formulation,
the Cultural Formulation Interview, and Cultural concepts of
distress. Cultural measures of distress is a made up term.
Answer A: The Cultural Formulation Interview (CFI) is a semistructured interview consisting of 16 questions designed to
obtain information on the client’s views regarding the
social/cultural context of his/her presenting problems.
Answer B:The DSM-5 defines cultural concepts of distress as the
“ways that cultural groups experience, understand, and
communicate suffering, behavioral problems, or troubling
thoughts and emotions.
Answer D: The Outline for Cultural Formulation provides
guidelines for assessing four factors: the client’s cultural
identity; the client’s cultural conceptualization of distress; the
psychosocial stressors and cultural factors that impact the
client’s vulnerability and resilience; and cultural factors relevant
to the relationship between the client and therapist

Question 14

Q

Question ID #13028: A parent yells at her 5-year-old son
whenever he misbehaves. The boy quickly figures out that, if he
apologizes for his misbehavior, his mother will stop yelling at
him. Consequently, he begins to say, “I’m sorry” as soon as his
mother starts yelling at him. The boy’s apologizing is best
described as the result of which of the following?
Select one:
A. Avoidance conditioning
B. Escape conditioning
C. Stimulus control
D. Stimulus generalization

Answer

A

The correct answer is B.
In this situation, the boy’s apologizing is maintained because it
allows him to “escape” his mother’s yelling once it has started.
Though the boy doesn’t entirely avoid his mother’s yelling, he
does “escape” it once it has started by apologizing.
Answer A: Avoidance conditioning involves presenting a
stimulus that signals that an aversive event is about to occur so
that eventually the stimulus elicits a behavior that allows the
individual to avoid the aversive event.
Answer C: A behavior is brought under stimulus control when a
stimulus signals whether or not the behavior will be reinforced.
Answer D: Stimulus generalization occurs when stimuli similar to
the original CS elicit the CR.

Question 15

Q

Question ID #13029: Echokinesis involves:
Select one:
A. imitating someone else’s movements
B. repeating the sounds someone else makes
C. repeating socially undesirable words
D. imitating the sounds and movements that other’s make

Answer

A

The correct answer is A.
Echokinesis involves imitating someone else’s movements.
Answer B: This sounds more like echolalia.
Answer C: This defines Coprolalia.
Answer D: Echokinesis does not involve mimicking sound.

Question 16

Q

Question ID #13030: Research in the area of pediatric
psychology has found that openly communicating with
children about their illness:
Select one:
A. is detrimental
B. has mixed results
C. is recommended 
D. is inadvisable

Answer

A

The correct answer is C.
In most situations, open communication with a child about
his/her illness is advisable.
Answer A: While it is important to provide children information in
a developmentally appropriate manner, research has generally
not found open communication to be detrimental.
Answer B: This is not true.
Answer D: The opposite is true

Question 17

Q

Question ID #13036: Coprolalia involves:
Select one:
A. repeating other's vocalizations 
B. mimicking others movements
C. mimicking other's facial expressions
D. repeating socially undesirable words

Answer

A

The correct answer is D.
Coprolalia involves repeating socially undesirable words.
Answer A: This is the definition of echolalia.
Answer B: This defines echokinesis.
Answer C: This does not describe coprolalia

Question 18

Q

Question ID #13056: The rates of Schizophrenia are generally
higher among Black Americans. This is due to:
Select one:
A. internalized racism
B. misdiagnosis
C. poverty
D. substance abuse

Answer

A

The correct answer is B.
Research suggests that the higher reported rate of
Schizophrenia for African Americans is the result of
misdiagnosis rather than actual differences in the prevalence
of the disorder.
Answer A: While a lack of cultural competence among clinicians
contributes to misdiagnosis among this population, internalized
racism is not the cause of this discrepancy.
Answer C: Poverty may be a contributing factor to receiving
adequate mental health care; however, misdiagnosis is
believed to be the primary cause of this discrepancy.
Answer D: This is not true.

Question 19

Q

Question ID #13059: In the DSM-5, personality traits are
measured using 5 domains:
Select one:
A. affect, attachment, antagonism, disinhibition, and
psychoticism
B. affect, attachment, antagonism, inhibition, and
psychoticism
C. negative affect, detachment, protagonism, inhibition, and
psychoticism
D. negative affect, detachment, antagonism, disinhibition,
and psychoticism

Answer

A

The correct answer is D.
The DSM-5’s personality inventories measure personality traits
in five domains: negative affect, detachment, antagonism,
disinhibition, and psychoticism.
Answer A: Attachment and affect are not personality domains.
Answer B: Affect, attachment, and inhibition are not personality
domains.
Answer C: Protagonism and inhibition are not personality
domains.

Question 20

Q

Question ID #13062: African Americans are more likely to
experience hallucinations and delusions as symptoms of:
Select one:
A. schizophrenia
B. depression
C. antisocial personality disorder
D. borderline personality disorder

Answer

A

The correct answer is B.
The research suggests that the higher reported rate of
Schizophrenia for African Americans is the result of
misdiagnosis rather than actual differences in the prevalence
of the disorder and that misdiagnosis is due to the fact that
African Americans are more likely to experience hallucinations
and delusions as symptoms of depression.
Answer A: African Americans are commonly misdiagnosed with
Schizophrenia rather than depression or other disorders.
Answer C: These symptoms are not traditionally associated with
this disorder.
Answer D: This is not true.

Question 21

Q

Question ID #13069: In order to meet DSM-5 criteria for Brief
Psychotic Disorder, the presence of at least one of the following
symptoms must be present with the exception of:
Select one:
A. disorganized speech
B. hallucinations
C. grossly disorganized behavior
D. delusions

Answer

A

The correct answer is C.
Brief Psychotic Disorder is characterized by the presence of one
or more of four characteristic symptoms (delusions,
hallucinations, disorganized speech, grossly disorganized or
catatonic behavior) with at least one symptom being delusions,
hallucinations, or disorganized speech.
Answers A, B, & D: One of these three symptoms is required for
this diagnosis

Question 22

Q

Question ID #13070: When considering diagnosing a Black
American client with Schizophrenia, a culturally competent
clinician would:
Select one:
A. rule out substance use
B. make sure the full criteria for the disorder is met
C. assess for the potential of malingering
D. assess whether psychotic symptoms are linked to
depression

Answer

A

The correct answer is D.
The research suggests that the higher reported rate of
Schizophrenia for African Americans is the result of
misdiagnosis rather than actual differences in the prevalence
of the disorder and that misdiagnosis is due to the fact that
African Americans are more likely to experience hallucinations
and delusions as symptoms of depression.
Answer A: Making this rule out is necessary with any client who
may meet criteria for Schizophrenia.
Answer B: This would be necessary regardless of the client’s
demographic.
Answer C: Ruling out malingering is not a cultural competence
factor.

Question 23

Q

Question ID #13076: The three subtypes of Specific Learning
Disorder include impairment in:
Select one:
A. reading, writing, and spelling
B. reading, writing, and comprehension
C. reading, comprehending, and spelling
D. reading, writing, and math

Answer

A

The correct answer is D.
The DSM-5 distinguishes between three subtypes of Specific
Learning Disorder: impairment in reading, impairment in written
expression, and impairment in mathematics.
Answer A: Spelling is not included as a subtype.
Answer B: Comprehension is not a subtype.
Answer C: Comprehension and spelling are not subtypes.

Question 24

Q

Question ID #13086: Beck’s depression cognitive triad includes
negative illogical self-statements about:
Select one:
A. oneself, the world, and the future
B. oneself, others, and the world
C. oneself, others, and the meaning of life
D. oneself, others, and the future

Answer

A

The correct answer is A.
Beck’s (1976) cognitive theory views depression as being related
to negative, illogical self-statements about oneself, the world,
and the future. This is referred to as the “depressive cognitive
triad.
Answer B: The triad does not include negative thoughts about
others.
Answer C: Beck did not include negative thoughts about others
or the meaning of life in this categorization.
Answer D: The triad does not include negative thoughts about
others

Question 25

Q

Question ID #13090: Renee R., age 16, is brought to therapy by
her mother, who says her daughter has recently become
“another person.” She says Renee used to be easy-going and
was well-liked at school by her peers and teachers. However, for
about the last three weeks, Renee has been constantly irritable
and “on the go,” has been smoking and drinking, and has
started having trouble at school. When the therapist interviews
Renee, he learns that she is engaging in high-risk sexual
behavior but feels that nothing bad can happen to her. Based
on these symptoms, the most likely diagnosis is:
Select one:
A. ADHD
B. Cyclothymic Disorder
C. Bipolar I Disorder
D. Bipolar II Disorder

Answer

A

The correct answer is C.
The sudden change in Renee’s behavior and the nature and
duration of her symptoms are most suggestive of a manic
episode. Bipolar I Disorder requires the presence of one or more
manic episodes.
Answer A: Although some of Renee’s symptoms are consistent
with ADHD in adolescence, a diagnosis of this disorder requires
an onset of symptoms prior to age 12.
Answer B: Cyclothymic Disorder requires fluctuating hypomanic
and depressive symptoms for at least one year in children and
adolescents.
Answer D: Bipolar II disorder is characterized by a combination
of major depressive and hypomanic episodes.

Question 26

Q

Question ID #13103: Bill B., a 26-year old small business owner,
has trouble completing tasks at home and work, frequently
“blows his fuse” at family members and employees, and has his
wife do all the paperwork at the office because he doesn’t have
the patience for it. His wife says Bill never listens to her and
often does things without thinking about the consequences.
When asked about his past, Bill says that he often got in trouble
while he was in school. He frequently got into fights and, in high
school, was arrested several times for drugs and drunk driving.
All through school, his teachers said he wasn’t living up to his
potential. Although Bill no longer uses illegal drugs, he often
drinks heavily on weekends. Based on these symptoms, the
most likely diagnosis for Bill is:
Select one:
A. Antisocial Personality Disorder
B. Adult Antisocial Behavior
C. ADHD
D. Bipolar I Disorder

Answer

A

The correct answer is C.
Bill’s childhood history of problem behaviors and his current
attention difficulties and impulsivity are most suggestive of
ADHD.
Answer A: For a diagnosis of Antisocial Personality Disorder,
there should be a current pattern of antisocial behavior.
Answer B: Adult Antisocial Behavior is included in the DSM-5
with Other Conditions That May Be a Focus of Clinical Attention
and applies when the individual exhibits antisocial behavior
that does not meet the diagnostic criteria for Antisocial
Personality Disorder or another mental disorder.
Answer D: The continuous and long-term nature of Bill’s
symptoms are more suggestive of ADHD than Bipolar I Disorder

Question 27

Q

Question ID #13107: All of the following interventions are
recommended for stuttering except:
Select one:
A. using exposure to reduce fear of verbal communication
B. reducing psychological stress at home
C. removing pressures to communicate verbally
D. habit reversal training

Answer

A

The correct answer is A.
Stuttering is clinically diagnosed as Childhood-Onset Fluency
Disorder. While exposure therapy is typically regarded as one of
the most effective treatments for phobias, research has not
supported the effectiveness of such treatment with the
alleviation of stuttering. Rather, it has been found that the
symptoms of this disorder become worse when there is special
pressure to communicate.
Answer B: This has been found to be one of the most effective
interventions for reducing stuttering among children.
Answer C: This is recommended as symptoms often worsen
when such conditions are present.
Answer D: This is recommended for older children and adults
who continue to struggle with stuttering

Question 28

Q

Question ID #13108: The DSM-5 urges consideration of the
following differentials when diagnosing Autism Spectrum
Disorder except:
Select one:
A. Stereotypic Movement Disorder
B. Intellectual Disability
C. Schizophrenia 
D. Social Anxiety Disorder

Answer

A

The correct answer is D.
According to the DSM-5, Autism Spectrum Disorder must be
distinguished from Rett Syndrome, Selective Mutism, Language
Disorder, Intellectual Disability, Stereotypic Movement Disorder,
ADHD, and Schizophrenia. Social Anxiety Disorder is not included
as a differential.
Answer A: Individuals along the spectrum may have motor
deficits. Thus, this is an important differential diagnosis to
consider.
Answer B: This is a common differential as many individuals
with Autism Spectrum Disorder have intellectual impairments.
Answer C: Given the overlap of some of the negative symptoms
associated with Schizophrenia this is an important differential.

Question 29

Q

Question ID #13128: According to the DSM-5, Specific Learning
Disorder is more common among:
Select one:
A. males 
B. women
C. children
D. adults

Answer

A

The correct answer is A.
Specific Learning Disorder is more common in males than in
females, with reported gender ratios ranging from 2:1 to 3:1.
Answer B: The opposite is true.
Answer C: This disorder may be more commonly diagnosed
during childhood but is not more common among this
population.
Answer D: People with a Specific Learning Disorder continue to
have learning difficulties throughout adolescence and
adulthood.

Question 30

Q

Question ID #10010: Several authorities have noted that
traditional forms of psychotherapy reflect a Eurocentric
(Western) perspective that emphasizes:
Select one:
A. a concrete non-linear approach
B. a linear cause-effect approach 
C. a reciprocal (interactive) approach
D. a directive behavioral approach

Answer

A

The correct answer is B.
This issue has been addressed by several experts interested in
family therapy or cross-cultural counseling. The Eurocentric
perspective emphasizes one-on-one problem-solving and
adopts an atomistic, linear, and reductionist cause-effect
approach.
Answer A: Traditional Western psychotherapies emphasize a
linear approach.
Answer C: Traditional Western therapies are not reciprocal.
Answer D: There are numerous directive and non-directive
traditional models.

Question 31

Q

Question ID #10012: A person with anosognosia will:
Select one:
A. be unable to recognize parts of her own body
B. be unable to recognize familiar faces
C. deny the paralysis in her left leg
D. report an area of blindness in her left visual field

Answer

A

The correct answer is C.
Anosognosia is one of several types of agnosia. All agnosias are
characterized by a failure of recognition that is NOT due to a
sensory deficit or verbal or intellectual impairment.
Anosognosia involves a failure to recognize one’s own
neurological symptoms (e.g., paralysis). It often accompanies
asomatognosia.
Answer A: This is called asomatognosia and is due to damage
to the somatosensory cortex. It usually involves the left side of
the body.
Answer B: Prosopagnosia is the inability to recognize familiar
faces.
Answer D: This is called a scotoma and is due to damage to the
primary visual cortex.

Question 32

Q

Question ID #10013: In the context of the serial position effect,
the “primacy effect”:
Select one:
A. is due to transfer of information from short- to long-term
memory
B. is due to interference that prohibits transfer from short- to
long-term memory
C. is due to the repetition of information so that it is
maintained in short-term memory
D. is due to distractions that make it difficult to retrieve
information from long-term memory

Answer

A

The correct answer is A.
The serial position effect refers to the tendency to recall items in
the beginning and end of a word list better than the items in the
middle of the list. The ability to recall items in the beginning of
the list (primacy effect) is believed to be due to the fact that
these items have been transferred from short- to long-term
memory, while the ability to recall items in the end of the list
(recency effect) is due to the fact that they are still present in
short-term memory.
Answer B: This effect is not due to interference.
Answer C: This effect is not due to repetition.
Answer D: This effect is not due to distractions.

Question 33

Q

Question ID #10017: Which of the following are required for a
DSM diagnosis of Antisocial Personality Disorder?
Select one:
A. A pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the
rights of others that began prior to age 15 plus a current age
of 16 or older
B. A pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the
rights of others that began prior to age 15 plus a current age
of 18 or older
C. A pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the
rights of others since age 14, a history of Conduct Disorder
symptoms prior to age 14, plus a current age of 16 or older
D. A pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the
rights of others since age 15, a history of Conduct Disorder
symptoms prior to age 15, plus a current age of 18 or older

Answer

A

The correct answer is D.
For the diagnosis of Antisocial Personality Disorder, the DSM
requires a pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the
rights of others since age 15 with symptoms of Conduct
Disorder prior to age 15 and a current age of 18 years or older.
Answers A, B, & C: While all of these answer choices contain
partially accurate information, only choice D lists fully accurate
criteria consistent with the DSM.

Question 34

Q

Question ID #10030: “Criterion deficiency” refers to:
Select one:
A. the degree to which the conceptual criterion is not
measured by the actual criterion
B. the degree to which the actual criterion systematically
measures something other than the conceptual criterion
C. the degree to which the actual criterion is entirely
unrelated to the conceptual criterion
D. the degree to which the actual criterion provides
inconsistent information about the conceptual criterion

Answer

A

The correct answer is A.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with several terms that
are used to describe the adequacy of a criterion measure.
These are described in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology
chapter of the written study materials. This is the correct
definition of criterion deficiency. An actual criterion (the
criterion measure) is deficient to the extent that it does not
measure the conceptual (or hypothetical) criterion. In other
words, job performance is due to several factors, but most
criterion measures are deficient because they measure only
one or two of those factors.
Answer B: This response describes one aspect of criterion
contamination.
Answer C: This describes another aspect of criterion
contamination.
Answer D: This describes the unreliability of a criterion measure.

Question 35

Q

Question ID #10067: According to Hersey and Blanchard’s (1974)
situational leadership model, a ________ leader is most
effective for an employee who is low in ability and high in
motivation.
Select one:
A. telling
B. selling
C. delegating
D. participating

Answer

A

The correct answer is B.
Hersey and Blanchard’s situational leadership model
distinguishes between the four leadership styles listed in the
answers to this question and proposes that the best style is the
one that matches the employee’s ability and motivation. A
selling leader is best for employees who are low in ability but
high in motivation.
Answer A: A telling leader is best for employees who are low in
both ability and motivation.
Answer C: A delegating leader is best for employees who are
high in both ability and motivation.
Answer D: A participating leader is best for employees who are
high in ability but low in motivation.

Question 36

Q

Question ID #10139: A brief period of electrical stimulation of the
hippocampus enhances nerve cell electrical activity in that
area of the brain for minutes to hours. This is referred to as:
Select one:
A. graded potentiation
B. hyperpolarization
C. absolute refractory period
D. long-term potentiation

Answer

A

The correct answer is D.
Interestingly, the phenomenon described in this question not
only occurs in the living brain but can also be induced in cells
that have been removed from the brain. This is the name given
to the phenomenon described in this question. Long-term
potentiation (LTP) is believed to underlie certain types of
learning and memory.
Answer A: Graded potentiation is a made-up term.
Answer B: Hyperpolarization refers to a state of inhibition.
Answer C: During the absolute refractory period, a cell cannot
“fire” regardless of the amount of stimulation.

Question 37

Q

Question ID #10140: Which of the following imaging techniques
would be used to obtain a "metabolic map" of the brain during
various mental and physical activities?
Select one:
A. CT
B. PET
C. MRI
D. NMR

Answer

A

The correct answer is B.
In this situation, it is the function of the brain that is of interest.
PET scans provide information on the functions of the brain
(e.g., metabolic functions).
Answer A: CT is a structural imaging technique.
Answer C: MRI is also a structural technique.
Answer D: NMR (nuclear magnetic resonance) is another name
for MRI, which is a structural imaging technique. (An fMRI is a
functional technique.)

Question 38

Q

Question ID #10141: Which of the following is a cause of
conductive deafness?
Select one:
A. Infection of the middle ear
B. Damage to the hair cells
C. Cochlear damage
D. Lesions in the auditory cortex

Answer

A

The correct answer is A.
There are three types of deafness: conductive, sensorineural,
and central. Conductive deafness results from failure of
mechanical stimulation to reach the cochlea and can be
caused by an infection or obstruction in the outer or middle ear.
Answer B: This refers to sensorineural deafness.
Answer C: Damage to the cochlea results in sensorineural
deafness.
Answer D: This is a cause of central deafness.

Question 39

Q

Question ID #10144: Group polarization has occurred when:
Select one:
A. group members are split in their solution to a problem
B. group members make riskier decisions as a group than
they would have as individuals
C. group members make either riskier or more conservative
decisions as a group than they would have as individuals
D. group members are encouraged to think alike and all
dissent is discouraged

Answer

A

The correct answer is C.
Group polarization refers to the tendency for a group’s decision
to be more extreme (polarized) that the decisions that
individual members would have made alone. This is an
accurate description of group polarization.
Answer A: This is not an accurate description of group
polarization.
Answer B: This describes the “risky shift” phenomenon.
Answer D: This sounds more like groupthink.

Question 40

Q

Question ID #10149: In his study on the effects of therapy fees on
satisfaction with therapy, a social psychologist finds that clients
who have to work overtime or get a second job to pay for
therapy generally express greater satisfaction than wealthy
clients, clients whose insurance covers most of their fee, or
clients who are receiving therapy for free or at low cost. This
finding provides support for which of the following?
Select one:
A. The overjustification hypothesis
B. Cognitive dissonance theory
C. The approach-avoidance conflict
D. Equity theory

Answer

A

The correct answer is B.
The results of the study indicate that people who “struggle” for
therapy say it gives them greater satisfaction. This finding is
consistent with other research on cognitive dissonance,
including studies showing that students say they like a dull club
more when they have experienced a difficult initiation.
Answer A: The overjustification hypothesis is used to explain why
intrinsic motivation decreases after external rewards have been
applied.
Answer C: The approach-avoidance conflict doesn’t really fit
the situation described in this question.
Answer D: Equity theory makes predictions about how people
perform in situations they perceive to be either equitable or
inequitable.

Question 41

Q

Question ID #10181: Research investigating the relationship
between interest test scores and future occupational choice
suggests that these tests have the highest predictive validity
for:
Select one:
A. individuals with lower SES
B. middle-class individuals
C. individuals with higher SES
D. both lower and upper SES

Answer

A

The correct answer is B.
Socioeconomic status is one factor that has been found to
affect the predictive validity of interest inventories. Members of
the middle class usually have the greatest latitude when it
comes to choosing an occupation and, therefore, are most
likely to choose jobs that coincide with their interests.
Answer A: Those with lower SES do not always have the
opportunity to pursue occupations that coincide with their
interests and frequently choose jobs that provide the greatest
pay and security.
Answer C: Those with higher SEC often choose occupations on
the basis of family tradition or societal expectations rather than
interests.
Answer D: Members of the middle class usually have the
greatest latitude when it comes to choosing an occupation
and, therefore, are most likely to choose jobs that coincide with
their interests.

Question 42

Q

Question ID #10196: The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is best described as the
"gateway to memory" because of its involvement in the storage
of new information.
Select one:
A. hippocampus 
B. hypothalamus
C. thalamus
D. R.A.S.

Answer

A

The correct answer is A.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the major functions
of the brain structures listed in the answers to this question.
Damage to the hippocampus is associated with memory
impairments, especially impairments in retaining recently
acquired information.
Answer B: The hypothalamus is involved in a number of
important functions including the maintenance of the body’s
internal balance (homeostasis).
Answer C: The thalamus relays sensory messages to the cortex.
Answer D: The reticular activating system (RAS) is involved in
arousing the cortex and screening incoming information.

Question 43

Q

Question ID #10230: You saw a family in therapy for several
months but they terminated when the husband and wife
decided to get a divorce. Now, two months later, you are being
asked to conduct an evaluation of the husband for a custody
hearing. Your best course of action is to:
Select one:
A. do so but avoid making a recommendation without
evaluating all members of the family
B. do so only with the consent of both parents
C. do so only if you believe you can remain unbiased
D. not conduct the evaluation

Answer

A

The correct answer is D.
This issue is addressed by ethical guidelines that require
psychologists to avoid multiple relationships. This issue is
addressed, for example, in Guideline 7 of the Guidelines for
Child Custody Evaluations in Family Law Proceedings, which
states that “psychologists strive to avoid conflicts of interest
and multiple relationships in conducting evaluations.”
Answers A, B, C: While these options are not definitively
unethical, considering the potential for bias, the most ethical
choice would be to forego conducting the evaluation
altogether.

Question 44

Q

Question ID #10253: When conducting a research study, you
want to ensure that you will detect a difference between the
treatment group and the control (no treatment) group.
Therefore, you will:
Select one:
A. decrease error variance by decreasing the magnitude of
the independent variable
B. increase experimental variance by increasing the
magnitude of the independent variable
C. decrease the probability of making a Type I error by
decreasing alpha
D. decrease the probability of making a Type II error by
increasing beta

Answer

A

The correct answer is B.
Rephrased, this question would read “how do you increase
power?” To identify the correct answer to this question, your
understanding of power must be beyond a definitional level
(e.g., “power is 1 - beta,” or “power is the probability of correctly
rejecting a false null hypothesis,”) and at an abstract or
conceptual level. Power can be thought of as the sensitivity of
an empirical study. That is, if significant differences exist
between groups, a powerful study will be sensitive enough to
detect the differences. Increasing the magnitude of the
independent variable would increase experimental variance by
increasing the difference between the experimental and control
(no treatment) groups. This would increase power, or the ability
to detect the effects of the independent variable. As an
example, if you are studying the effects of a new learning
procedure on performance, you are more likely to detect its
effects if you administer the learning procedure to the
experimental group subjects for six weeks rather than for one
week.
Answer A: Decreasing the magnitude of the independent
variable will result in less power. For instance, if you are studying
the effects of a drug on a behavior, you are less likely to detect
its effects when your experimental group receives a low dosage
than when it receives a higher dosage. Moreover, this response
does not make sense because decreasing the magnitude of
the independent variable does not decrease error variance.
Answer C: Decreasing alpha does decrease the probability of
making a Type I error but, at the same time, it reduces power.
Answer D: Power does increase as the probability of making a
Type II error decreases. However, this response does not make
sense, since an increase in beta will, by definition, result in an
INCREASE of the probability of making a Type II error.

Question 45

Q

Question ID #11273: A client who is classified as being in the
preparation stage of the transtheoretical model:
Select one:
A. is engaging in meaningful action in preparation for
change
B. plans to take action within the next six months that will
alter his/her problematic behavior
C. is planning to take action to change within the next
month and has formulated a realistic action plan
D. has committed to preparing to make consistent changes
over the course of the next year

Answer

A

The correct answer is C.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the six stages of
Prochaska and DiClemente’s stages of change model:
precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action,
maintenance, and termination. A person in the preparation
stage is planning to take action in the near future (usually
defined as in the next month) and has formulated a realistic
plan of action for modifying his/her behavior.
Answer A: A person in the preparation stage has not yet
actually engaged in actions to change but is mentally
preparing to do so.
Answer B: A person in the contemplation stage intends to take
action in the next six months.
Answer D: Persons in the preparation stage plan to make
changes within the next month.

Question 46

Q

Question ID #13611: Eighteen-month old Tylee has learned the
word “cup” and applies it to other similar objects such as bowls,
glasses, and bottles. This is referred to as:
Select one:
A. underextension
B. overextension
C. overregularization
D. expansion

Answer

A

The correct answer is B.
Children exhibit a number of predictable errors when learning
to speak. As its name implies, overextension involves applying a
word to a wider collection of objects or events than is
appropriate.
Answer A: Underextension involves applying a term too narrowly
(e.g., using “dog” to refer only to the family dog).
Answer C: Overregularization is an overextension of
grammatical rules to words that are exceptions (e.g., adding “s”
to “feet”).
Answer D: Expansion refers to the feedback that adults seem to
naturally give young children, which provides children with
information on appropriate language use.

Question 47

Q

Question ID #13618: Holland’s Self-Directed Search provides
scores on six occupational themes. A person who obtains the
highest score on the realistic theme is best suited for a job
involving:
Select one:
A. physical, mechanical, or outdoor activities
B. scientific, mathematical, or analytic tasks
C. activities that require attention to detail and good
organization skills
D. tasks that require business, management, or sales skills

Answer

A

The correct answer is A.
Holland’s scale distinguishes between five occupational themes
(“RIASEC”): realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising,
and conventional. People who score high on the realistic scale
are well suited for these types of tasks.
Answer B: These tasks fit the investigative type.
Answer C: These activities fit the interests of individuals
receiving the highest score on the conventional scale.
Answer D: These tasks are of greatest interest to individuals with
a high score on the enterprising scale.

Question 48

Q

Question ID #13629: A solution-focused therapist is working with
a husband and wife whose conversations frequently escalate
to bitter fights. The therapist will most likely:
Select one:
A. reduce tension during therapy sessions by having the
husband and wife talk directly to her rather than to each
other
B. instruct the couple to take a ten-minute “time-out”
whenever they begin to argue at home
C. ask the couple if they can remember a time when they
were able to talk for an extended period without arguing
D. ask the couple what rewards they derive from arguing

Answer

A

The correct answer is C.
As its name implies, solution-focused therapy focuses on
solutions rather than problems. Solution-focused therapists use
“exceptions” to help identify solutions to a client’s problems. An
exception is a time when the problem did not exist or existed in
a less intense form.
Answer A: This sounds more like the approach a Bowenian
family therapist would adopt.
Answer B: This isn’t characteristic of the solution-focused
approach.
Answer D: This is not characteristic of this approach.

Question 49

Q

Question ID #13643: Tiedeman and O’Hara’s (1963) model of
career development emphasizes which of the following?
Select one:
A. Basic interests
B. Basic instinctual needs
C. Vocational identity
D. Locus of control

Answer

A

The correct answer is C.
Tiedeman and O’Hara (1963) viewed career development as a
process involving the acquisition of a personal vocational
identity.
Answers A, B, & D: Tiedeman and O’Hara emphasized the
development of a vocational identity. They proposed that the
achievement of a personal vocational identity involves
balancing integration (being part of a career field) with
differentiation (retaining individuality and uniqueness).

Question 50

Q

Question ID #13652: A study conducted by Buhrmester and
Furman (1990) of 3rd, 6th, 9th, and 12th graders found that, as
children approach the end of middle childhood, relationships
between siblings become more:
Select one:
A. distant
B. egalitarian
C. conflictual
D. complementary

Answer

A

The correct answer is B.
Research by D. Buhrmester and W. Furman found a
combination of closeness and conflict among siblings in middle
childhood with a trend toward less conflict and greater
egalitarianism with increasing age (Perceptions of sibling
relationships during middle childhood and adolescence, Child
Development, 61, 1387-1398, 1990).
Answers A, C, & D: The study cited in the question found that, by
the end of middle childhood, sibling relationships had become
much more egalitarian and lower in intensity and conflict.

Question 51

Q

Question ID #13653: When a therapist overlooks a client's career
difficulties because the client is going through a divorce, this is
referred to as:
Select one:
A. diagnostic overshadowing
B. career overshadowing
C. vocational overshadowing
D. diagnostic overlooking

Answer

A

The correct answer is C.
Vocational overshadowing occurs when a professional
overlooks a client’s vocational problems because the client has
a co-existing personal problem.
Answer A: Diagnostic overshadowing was originally used to
describe the tendency of health professionals to attribute all of
a person’s psychiatric symptoms to his or her intellectual
disabilities.
Answer B: This is a “made up” term.
Answer D: Diagnostic overlooking is not an actual clinical term.

Question 52

Q

Question ID #13675: For Miller and Dollard (1941), the approachapproach conflict:
Select one:
A. is a dilemma because as soon as the individual
approaches one positive goal, the pull of the other positive
goal increases in strength
B. is a dilemma that is often resolved by “leaving the field”
and choosing a third goal
C. is not really a dilemma since, once the individual begins
to approach one positive goal, the strength of the pull of the
other positive goal decreases
D. is an unpredictable dilemma because it is impossible to
ever know if the appropriate goal has been selected

Answer

A

The correct answer is C.
Miller and Dollard distinguish between three conflicts:
approach-avoidance, avoidance-avoidance, and approachapproach.
Answer A: This is not a prediction made by Miller and Dollard but
does sound somewhat like what Lewin concluded about this
type of dilemma.
Answer B: This sounds more like what Lewin concluded about
avoidance-avoidance conflicts. According to Miller and Dollard,
the approach-approach conflict is not really a dilemma. When
it does arouse conflict, it is because there are hidden or latent
avoidance conditions operating.
Answer D: According to Miller and Dollard the approachapproach conflict is not really a dilemma.

Question 53

Q

Question ID #13677: Which of the following aspects of the
central nervous system is least well-developed at birth?
Select one:
A. Diencephalon
B. Midbrain
C. Cerebral cortex
D. Cerebellum

Answer

A

The correct answer is C.
The brain develops both before and after birth in an orderly
sequence. At birth, the infant’s brain is about one-fourth the size
of an adult brain. The cortex is not well-developed at birth,
which suggests that newborn behaviors are primarily reflexive
(i.e., mediated by the lower centers of the brain). Some areas of
the cortex (e.g., those involved in problem-solving, self-concept,
and planning) do not fully develop until adolescence or early
adulthood.
Answer A: The diencephalon consists of the thalamus and
hypothalamus and is sufficiently well-developed at birth to
allow for critical functions that are necessary for life.
Answer B: Like the diencephalon, the midbrain is relatively welldeveloped at birth.
Answer D: The cerebellum is involved in motor coordination, and
the motor areas of the brain develop prior to the areas
governing the higher cognitive functions.

Question 54

Q

Question ID #13694: As used by Lorenz (1965), the term “critical
period” refers to:
Select one:
A. the period from ages three to six months during which
the basic structure of the personality is formed
B. periods when the infant shows predictable “growth
spurts”
C. the third trimester when the brain is at greatest
vulnerability to structural damage
D. a period shortly after birth during which an infant
ordinarily bonds with its mother

Answer

A

The correct answer is D.
The term “critical period” refers to a period when a specific
experience will have its greatest impact on development. Lorenz
applied the term to the period during which geese bond with
(imprint on) their mothers. Lorenz found that the “critical period”
for imprinting in geese is 2-3 days after birth. In other words,
geese will stay close (attach) to stimuli that they are exposed to
two to three days after birth. Research investigating the
existence of a similar critical period in humans has been
inconclusive.
Answer A: As defined by Lorenz, the critical period involves
bonding rather than personality development and occurs
shortly after birth.
Answer B: Lorenz’s definition of the critical period does not
involve growth spurts.
Answer C: As defined by Lorenz, the critical period occurs after
birth.

Question 55

Q

Question ID #13695: Which of the following is an example of
cultural encapsulation?
Select one:
A. A client belonging to a minority group cannot separate
problems due to individual factors from those related to
oppression.
B. A White male therapist doesn’t recognize that he
interprets clients’ problems from his own cultural worldview.
C. A young woman’s conflict is related to her inability to
separate from the values, attitudes, and expectations of her
immigrant parents.
D. A therapist tends to view all problems of minority clients
as due to factors inherent to the client’s cultural
background.

Answer

A

The correct answer is B.
The term cultural encapsulation was used by Wrenn (1985) to
describe the characteristics of a therapist who is
“encapsulated” within his/her dominant culture. Culturally
encapsulated therapists not only view clients’ problems through
the filter of their own culture but are also unaware of doing so.
Answers A & C: Cultural encapsulation relates to the therapist’s
worldview and how this impacts her/his client
conceptualizations.
Answer D: This describes racial prejudice.

Question 56

Q

Question ID #10255: Dr. Hyer, a psychologist who heads the
personnel committee at a mental health facility, recommends
that a psychologist who has an unresolved charge of sexual
harassment against him not be considered for a promotion. In
terms of ethical guidelines published by the American and
Canadian Psychological Associations, Dr. Hyer _____.
Select one:
A. has acted ethically since sexual harassment is explicitly
prohibited by ethical guidelines
B. acted ethically as long as he is willing to consider the
psychologist for promotion if he is acquitted of the
harassment charge
C. has acted unethically by violating the ethical
requirement that psychologists not deny promotions on the
basis of pending sexual harassment charges
D. has acted unprofessionally but has not violated ethical
guidelines

Answer

A

The correct answer is C.
This is one of the issues that is explicitly addressed by the Ethics
Code. Standard 1.08 of the APA’s Ethics Code applies in this
situation. It specifically prohibits denying a person employment
or promotion “based solely upon their having made or their
being the subject of an ethics complaint.” This prohibition does
not necessarily, however, preclude such actions when a charge
against an individual has been proven. This answer is also most
consistent with Principle I.13 of the Canadian Code of Ethics for
Psychologists.
Answer A: Unless the charge has been proven, denying
promotion or employment under these circumstances is
prohibited.
Answer B: This answer does not reflect the position of either the
APA’s Ethics Code or the Canadian Code of Ethics.
Answer D: This answer fails to address the ethical issue specific
to dealing with allegations that have not been proven.

Question 57

Q

Question ID #10273: A young man is found guilty of driving while
intoxicated and is required by the court to receive in-patient
treatment at an alcohol rehabilitation center. As a therapist
working at the rehabilitation center, you should be aware that
_______.
Select one:
A. it is not necessary to have the man sign a waiver of
confidentiality since his treatment is court-ordered
B. it is not necessary to have the man sign a waiver of
confidentiality because he has apparently voluntarily
chosen treatment rather than some other form of
punishment
C. it is not necessary to have the man sign a waiver of
confidentiality since no information should be given to the
court in this situation under any circumstances
D. it is necessary to have the man sign a waiver of
confidentiality before releasing any information to the court

Answer

A

The correct answer is D.
The best approach to answering a question on informed
consents and waivers of confidentiality is to choose the most
conservative answer. Although the court has ordered the
treatment, the client’s right to confidentiality is not waived. In
fact, a court order is likely to be required for the release of
information to it, and the information that must be released
would likely be limited to objective data (see, e.g., L. C. Sobell
and M. B. Sobell, Client rights in alcohol treatment programs, In.
G. T. Hannah, et al. (eds.), Preservation of Client Rights, New York:
The Free Press, 1981).
Answer A: While the man has been court ordered to treatment,
without a waiver of confidentiality, treatment information
cannot be released.
Answer B: The man has not automatically given up his rights to
confidentiality. A release or court order needs to be in place
before releasing information.
Answer C: This answer is incorrect as it is likely the court will
request treatment information and the psychologist will need to
know his or her ethical and legal responsibilities.

Question 58

Q

Question ID #10355: Dr. Bradley is not a member of APA. If he
violates the standards of ethical conduct in the APA Ethics
Code, he _______.
Select one:
A. cannot be sanctioned by APA or other professional
bodies
B. could still be sanctioned by his state licensure board
C. could still be sanctioned by APA
D. could still be sanctioned by both APA and his state
licensure board

Answer

A

The correct answer is B.
The Introduction and Applicability section of the APA Ethics
Code states, “Actions that violate the standards of the Ethics
Code may also lead to the imposition of sanctions on
psychologists or students whether or not they are APA
members by bodies other than APA….” The state licensure board
is one of those bodies.
Answer A: This answer is incorrect. APA cannot sanction
nonmembers, but other boards and organizations may
sanction psychologists who violate APA ethical standards.
Answer C: This answer is incorrect. The APA cannot sanction
nonmembers.
Answer D: This answer is incorrect. While the state licensure
board may sanction a psychologist, APA would not sanction a
nonmember.

Question 59

Q

Question ID #10358: Due to his violation of the Ethics Code, Dr.
Riley is __________.
Select one:
A. legally liable in a court action
B. legally liable only when the violation involves breach of
contract
C. legally liable in both court actions and in cases where
there is breach of contract
D. not automatically liable for court actions or breach of
contract

Answer

A

The correct answer is D.
The APA Ethics Code states, “Whether a psychologist has
violated the Ethics Code standards does not by itself determine
whether the psychologist is legally liable in a court action,
whether a contract is enforceable, or whether other legal
consequences occur.”
Answer A: A psychologist who violates ethical standards is not
automatically legally liable in court.
Answer B: A psychologist who violates ethical standards is not
automatically legally liable in the event of contract breach.
Answer C: This answer is incorrect. Legal liability does not
automatically stem from ethical violations.

Question 60

Q

Question ID #10360: The Ethics Code uses modifiers such as
“reasonably” and “appropriate to allow for professional
judgment on the part of psychologists. When applied in the
Ethical Standards, the term “reasonably” refers to _______.
Select one:
A. the judgment of the psychologist’s peers, based on
current APA ethical standards
B. the knowledge the psychologist had or should have had
at the time, regardless of the judgment of peers
C. the knowledge of psychologists in similar circumstances,
as determined by a jury of professional peers
D. the judgment of psychologists engaged in similar
activities in similar circumstances, given the knowledge the
psychologist had or should have had at the time

Answer

A

The correct answer is D.
This language is taken directly from the APA Ethics Code, which
states, “As used in this Ethics Code, the term reasonable means
the prevailing professional judgment of psychologists engaged
in similar activities in similar circumstances, given the
knowledge the psychologist had or should have had at the
time.
Answer A: This answer is incorrect, because it is incomplete.
Answer B: This answer is incomplete as well.
Answer C: The APA Ethics Code does not refer to a jury of one’s
peers.

Question 61

Q

Question ID #10371: The Ethics Code sets forth specific
standards that address most situations psychologists
encounter, with the primary goal best described as the
_______.
Select one:
A. promotion of the discipline of psychology
B. protection of individuals and groups
C. protection of people and education regarding ethical
standards of the discipline
D. education of students, psychologists, and the public
regarding ethical standards of the disciple of psychology

Answer

A

The correct answer is C.
The Preamble of the APA Ethics Code states its goals include, “the welfare and protection of the individuals and groups with whom psychologists work and the education of members, students, and the public regarding ethical standards of the discipline.”
Answer A: This answer is incorrect. Promoting the discipline is not the main goal of the Ethics Code.
Answer B: This answer is incorrect, because it does not fully respond to the question.
Answer D: Education is one goal of the Ethics Code, but this answer is incomplete as it does not address the other goal, which is protecting those with whom psychologists work.

Question 62

Q

Question ID #10375: According to the APA Ethics Code, engaging
in pro bono services is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Select one:
A. required
B. recommended
C. recommended and required
D. Neither recommended nor required

Answer

A

The correct answer is B.
Pro bono services are professional services a psychologist
provides without charge. The term is not used explicitly in the
Ethics Code, but General Principle B (Fidelity and Responsibility)
encourages psychologists to contribute some of their
professional time for little or no compensation. Given that pro
bono services are described in the General Principles, they are
not mandated, but are recommended only.
Answer A: This answer is incorrect. Because pro bono services
are described in the aspirational General Principles, they are not
required.
Answer C: This answer is incorrect. Pro bono services are
recommended, but not required.
Answer D: This answer is incorrect. Pro bono services are
recommended.

Question 63

Q

Question ID #10379: APA may take action against a member
after his or her conviction of _______.
Select one:
A. a crime that was committed when the psychologist was
acting in a professional role
B. misdemeanor or felony
C. felony
D. a crime that involves harm to another person regardless
of whether it is associated with the psychologist’s
professional role

Answer

A

The correct answer is C.
The Ethics Code states, “…APA may take action against a
member after his or her conviction of a felony, expulsion or
suspension from an affiliated state psychological association,
or suspension or loss of licensure.”
Answer A: The APA may take action in the event of a member’s
felony conviction regardless of whether it was associated with a
psychologist’s private conduct.
Answer B: The APA does not take action in the event of a
misdemeanor.
Answer D: This answer is too vague and does not reflect the
language contained in the Ethics Code.

Question 64

Q

Question ID #10382: When a psychologist encounters a conflict
between ethical and legal requirements, psychologists should
resolve it in a way that _______________.
Select one:
A. preserves the ethical foundations of the profession
B. is in keeping with basic principles of human rights
C. adheres to legal standards
D. is in keeping with accepted practices

Answer

A

The correct answer is B.
In the Introduction of the APA Ethics Code, psychologists are
advised that when there is a conflict between ethical and legal
requirements, psychologists must resolve it in a way that is “in
keeping with basic principles of human rights.”
Answer A: This answer is incorrect as it is incomplete. It is
important to understand that the code advises psychologists to
weigh human rights when faced with a conflict between ethical
and legal responsibilities.
Answer C: This answer is incorrect. It fails to include language
specific to the Ethics Code.
Answer D: This answer is too vague.

Answer 65

A

The correct answer is A.
Standard 1.05 states, “If an apparent ethical violation has
substantially harmed or is likely to substantially harm a person
or organization and is not appropriate for informal
resolution…psychologists take further action appropriate to the
situation.”
Answer B: While Standard 1.04 advises psychologists to “attempt
to resolve the issue by bringing it to the attention of that
individual,” Standard 1.05 allows for further action in more
serious cases.
Answer C: This answer is incorrect. There are no restrictions
regarding the order in which complaints should be filed.
Answer D: This answer is incorrect, as this is not required.

Answer 66

A

The correct answer is C.
Of the answers available, this one is the best. Talking with the
client about her options makes the most sense. While the other
psychologist’s behavior is clearly unethical and may be causing
harm, Dr. Cohen cannot file a complaint or contact the other
therapist without the client’s permission.
Answer A: Client confidentiality takes precedence over reporting
another psychologist’s unethical behavior, and this answer
does not indicate the client has given permission.
Answer B: Without the client’s permission, Dr. Cohen cannot
contact the previous psychologist.
Answer D: This answer is obviously incorrect as Dr. Cohen would
not want to contact another client.

Answer 67

A

The correct answer is C.
This question addresses the boundaries of competence in crisis
situations. Ethical Standard 2.02 states, “In emergencies, when
psychologists provide services …for which psychologists have
not obtained the necessary training, psychologists may provide
such services in order to ensure that services are not denied.”
Importantly, the standard also requires that services be
discontinued once appropriate services are available.
Answer A: Given this is an emergency situation, Dr. Stover may
provide services.
Answer B: This answer is incorrect as it fails to address the
central ethical concern, which is responding in an emergency.
Answer D: This answer is incorrect. While taking a refresher
workshop is not a bad idea, it is unlikely that in a crisis situation,
Dr. Stover should wait until that event is scheduled.

Answer 68

A

The correct answer is B.
Vicarious liability refers to the legal responsibility psychologists
assume when they supervise others. In accepting interns at her
practice site, Dr. Kramer will be held responsible for the actions
of her supervisees.
Answer A: This answer is incorrect. Vicarious liability is not likely
to be an issue in this case.
Answer C: Vicarious liability is relevant to situations where a
psychologist provides supervision, not testimony.
Answer D: Vicarious liability is not related to this situation.

Answer 69

A

The correct answer is C.
In this case, biofeedback would be a new technique that Dr.
Kennedy has not used before. Standard 2.01 states that
psychologists provide therapeutic services that are within their
current level of competence. Dr. Kennedy needs to obtain
training on this new technique before using it with patients.
Answer A: Even though biofeedback is related to behavioral
techniques, its use requires specific training.
Answer B: This answer is incorrect. While psychologists are
expected to update their skills, this answer misses the central
ethical issue, which is obtaining the necessary training to be
competent.
Answer D: This answer is incorrect. It overlooks the more critical
issue of Dr. Kennedy needing to develop skills before trying
biofeedback with her patients.

Answer 70

A

The correct answer is D.
Standard 2.06 advises psychologist to refrain from initiating
professional activities when there is a likelihood that personal
problems will interfere with those activities. The death of Dr.
Preston’s sister is significant enough that she should cancel the
group or find another psychologist to lead it.
Answer A: This answer is incorrect. Dr. Preston’s loss is likely to
interfere with her ability to successfully lead the group.
Answer B: This answer is incorrect. It is unlikely “a few weeks” will
be enough time to cope with her sister’s death in such a way
that Dr. Preston can assure her competence.
Answer C: This answer is incorrect. Again, two weeks is unlikely
to be enough time to assure she will lead the group with
competence.

Answer 71

A

The correct answer is B.
Ethics Standard 10.08 prohibits psychologists from having
sexual relationships with a client for at least two years after
therapy has ceased. Further, it states that such a relationship
may be acceptable only in the “most unusual circumstances.”
The standard lays out a series of circumstances the
psychologist bears the burden of addressing to demonstrate
the relationship is not exploitative.
Answer A: This answer is incorrect as it fails to account for the
fact that sexual relationships two years after treatment has
terminated should be highly unusual.
Answer C: This answer is incorrect. Accepting a client who is a
former sexual partner is not ethical.
Answer D: This answer is incorrect. It is never ethical to begin
therapy with a former sexual partner.

Answer 72

A

The correct answer is D.
The Tarasoff decision refers to a psychologist’s duty to protect
an intended victim. If a client says he is thinking of poisoning his
brother, the psychologist should act to protect the brother.
Answer A: This answer is incorrect. Tarasoff does not apply in
this case.
Answer B: Tarasoff does not apply to past situations.
Answer C: Tarasoff does not apply to self-harm or suicide
cases.

Answer 73

A

The correct answer is C.
As mandated reporters, psychologists are required by law to
report suspected child abuse. The fact that the client’s two
younger sisters live in the home where the client’s father is
violent, places them at risk, especially since the client was
abused herself while she lived there.
Answer A: The Tarasoff decision does not have bearing on this
case.
Answer B: This answer is not completely incorrect, but it fails to
account for the fact that the psychologist has a responsibility to
report suspected child abuse.
Answer D: Developing a safety plan is a good idea, but the more
critical ethical and legal concern in this case is that fact that
the psychologist has a responsibility to report suspected child
abuse.

Answer 74

A

The correct answer is D.
Standard 4.07 prohibits psychologists from using confidential,
information about their clients unless they have taken
reasonable steps to remove all personally identifiable
information. Simply using a pseudonym is not sufficient, when
other details have not been changed.
Answer A: Simply using a different name for the client is not
sufficient to mask their identity.
Answer B: Faculty may use examples if they sufficiently protect
a client’s identity or obtain client permission.
Answer C: Psychologists must protect their client’s
confidentiality and mask their identity regardless of whether
they are teaching undergraduate or doctoral students.

Answer 75

A

The correct answer is D.
Dr. Peterson should continue working with the client.
Answer A: In most jurisdictions, psychologists are not required to
report abuse when an adult client reveals she or he was abused
as a child, unless there is reason to believe the perpetrator is
still victimizing a minor.
Answer B: Unless the client indicates the abuser is still abusing
children or youth, psychologists should not conduct an
investigation to determine this.
Answer C: If the client wants to report the abuse to police, the
psychologist can support her, but the psychologist should not
file the report without the client’s permission.

Answer 76

A

The correct answer is B.
The APA’s Ethical Code requires that psychologists document
informed consent, but does not specify that such
documentation must include a signature.
Answer A: While obtaining a signature is a good idea and is one
way to document consent, it is not required by the APA’s ethics
code.
Answer C: Securing a witness’s signature is not required by APA.
Answer D: APA does not require a signature by either a witness
or the client, though it does require documentation in the
record. A signature is one way to document informed consent,
but it is not the only way.

Answer 77

A

The correct answer is C.
Psychologists should not require research participants to stay
for the full duration of the study and need to communicate that
participants may leave.
Answer A: The APA Ethics Code does not specify that
recruitment through social media is unethical.
Answer B: This answer is incorrect. Researchers may pay their
participants for their time.
Answer D: This answer is incorrect, because it fails to
acknowledge that psychologists should not mandate
participants complete a research study if they want to leave
before it is over.

Answer 78

A

The correct answer is C.
Pope et al.’s study found that male therapists were more likely
to engage in sexual relationships with their clients than female
therapists. Knowing this should help you narrow down your
answer from the available choices. The average age for these
male therapists who engaged in a sexual relationship was 42-
44. Typically, the female client was younger and between the
ages of 30 and 33.
Answer A: This answer is incorrect, because older male
therapists were more likely to engage in a sexual relationship
with their client.
Answer B: This answer is incorrect. Male therapists were
reported as more likely to pursue a sexual relationship with a
client.
Answer D: This answer is incorrect. It could be ruled out by
knowing that male therapists were more likely than female
therapists to pursue a relationship with a client

Answer 79

A

The correct answer is C.
This is a difficult question because not enough information is
given to know why the request for individual therapy was made
and what has already been discussed about individual therapy
with the couple. To identify why the man is seeking individual
therapy and to avoid “secrets” and conflicts regarding
confidentiality, the best course of action would be to discuss
the possibility of seeing the man in individual therapy during
the next conjoint session.
Answer A: This answer fails to account for the more critical
concern related to the couple as the client and the potential for
creating an alliance with the husband that alienates the wife.
Answer B: This answer does not adequately address the more
critical concern related to establishing an alliance with one
member of the couple at the expense of the other member.
Answer D: This answer is incorrect, because before deciding to
pursue this route toward future treatment, the couple and
therapist should discuss together the potential problems
inherent in seeing one member of the couple and not the other,
especially if the couple should want to resume therapy at a
later date.

Answer 80

A

The correct answer is B.
This is the only response that involves advising the client to check with her doctor about the continued use of the
medication. In most situations, psychologists currently cannot prescribe medication or give advice about medication.
Therefore, the correct answer to this question must be the answer that involves advising the client to speak with the doctor who prescribed the medication.
Answer A: Because Dr. Stanford is not able to make
recommendations about medications, this is not the best
course of action.
Answer C: Because prescribing medications is not within Dr. Stanford’s area of expertise, this is not an appropriate course of action.
Answer D: Again, since Dr. Stanford is not able to give advice
about medications, this is not the best choice.

Answer 81

A

The correct answer is D.
As an ethical psychologist, you have a responsibility to follow
through on possible ethical violations of colleagues. The best
course of action would be to confront the colleague directly. In
the event that the rumor is not true, the colleague should be
made aware of it.
Answer A: The APA’s Ethics Code requires psychologists to
intervene in the event of a colleague’s unethical behavior.
Therefore, you should not ignore this information.
Answer B: Because you are a psychologist and a colleague, you
have a responsibility to act on this information.
Answer C: The APA’s Ethics Code advises psychologists to
attempt to remedy the situation directly in most cases. Further,
you do not have details to provide in a complaint.

Answer 82

A

The correct answer is A.
Although the relative accuracy of statistical (actuarial) and
clinical predictions continues to be debated, the research
indicates that some general conclusions can be drawn. In their
meta-analysis of the research, Grove and Meehl (1996) found
that actuarial prediction alone was most accurate in 64 studies,
a combination of actuarial prediction and clinical judgment
was most accurate than either alone in 64 studies, and clinical
judgment alone was most accurate in only 8 studies.
Answer B: Research on complex clinical decision-making has
not confirmed that clinical judgment is usually more accurate
than statistical prediction. See explanation for response A.
Answer C: Research on complex clinical decision-making has
not confirmed that clinical judgment is more accurate than
statistical prediction as long as the clinician “optimizes” rather
than “satisfices” (which sounds like the opposite of what the
bounded rationality (administrative) model espouses with
regards to decison-makers). See explanation for response A.
Answer D: Research on complex clinical decision-making has
not confirmed that clinical judgment and statistical prediction
are about equal in accuracy. See explanation for response A.

Answer 83

A

The correct answer is C.
Symbolic (make-believe) play refers to play in which one object
represents another (e.g., a doll represents a baby). For
Vygotsky, symbolic play provides a “zone of proximal
development” that enables a child to practice behaviors in a
situation that requires less precision and accuracy than would
be required in reality.
Answer A: Flavell is probably best known for his research on
children’s ability to distinguish between appearance and reality.
Answer B: Eleanor and James Gibson are best known for their
research on perceptual development in infants.
Answer D: Piaget viewed symbolic play as an opportunity to
practice representational schemes

Answer 84

A

The correct answer is A.
This question describes a situation in which a compensatory
technique would be the preferred technique for combining test
scores. Multiple regression is a compensatory technique for
combining test scores since a low score on one test can be
offset (compensated for) by high scores on other tests.
Answer B: Multiple cutoff is a noncompensatory technique.
Answer C: Multiple hurdle is also a noncompensatory technique.
Answer D: Multiple baseline refers to a research design, not a
method for combining test scores.

Answer 85

A

The correct answer is D.
For the exam, you want to have joining and accommodating
associated with Minuchin’s structural family therapy. Minuchin
viewed joining and accommodating as necessary initial
processes that reduce family members’ resistance to change.
Answer A: Joining and accommodating are not the initial steps
in object relations family therapy. See explanation for response
D.
Answer B: Joining and accommodating are not the initial steps
in strategic family therapy. See explanation for response D.
Answer C: Joining and accommodating are not the initial steps
in Milan systemic. See explanation for response D.

Answer 86

A

The correct answer is D.
In this study, the participant must recall what he/she has just
heard – i.e., to recall information that is in sensory memory. The
auditory part of sensory memory is referred to as echoic
memory.
Answer A: Working memory is part of short-term memory.
Answer B: Semantic memory is part of long-term memory.
Answer C: Iconic memory is the visual aspect of sensory
memory

Answer 87

A

The correct answer is A.
The most recent version of Cross’s model distinguishes between
four stages of identity development: pre-encounter, encounter,
immersion-emersion, and internalization. An African-American
in the internalization stage has developed a strong ethnic
identity but has also resolved global anti-white sentiments and
become more bicultural.
Answer B: The final stage in Cross’s (1991) Black Racial Identity
Development Model is not incorporation. See explanation for
response A.
Answer C: The final stage in Cross’s (1991) Black Racial Identity
Development Model is not integrative awareness. See
explanation for response A.
Answer D: The final stage in Cross’s (1991) Black Racial Identity
Development Model is not autonomy. See explanation for
response A.

Answer 88

A

The correct answer is D.
The universal emotions identified by Ekman (1993) and Izard
(1971) are: happiness, sadness, fear, anger, disgust, surprise, and
contempt. People from diverse cultural backgrounds use very
similar facial expressions to express these emotions. Shame is
not one of the universal emotions identified by the researchers.
Answer A: Fear is one of the universal emotions identified by the
researchers. See explanation for response D.
Answer B: Anger is one of the universal emotions identified by
the researchers. See explanation for response D.
Answer C: Disgust is one of the universal emotions identified by
the researchers. See explanation for response D.

Answer 89

A

The correct answer is B.
Stranger anxiety is considered one manifestation of a child’s
attachment to his/her primary caregiver(s). In most infants,
stranger anxiety is first evident by about 8 to 10 months.
Answer A: Stranger anxiety, in most infants, is not first evident by
about 4 to 6 months. See explanation for response B.
Answer C: Stranger anxiety, in most infants, is not first evident by
about 10 to 12 months. See explanation for response B.
Answer D: Stranger anxiety, in most infants, is not first evident by
about 13 to 15 months. See explanation for response B.

Answer 90

A

The correct answer is D.
Rutter’s (1979) indicators for psychopathology are low SES,
marital discord, large family size and overcrowding, paternal
criminality, maternal psychiatric disorder, and being placed in
foster care. Racial/ethnic minority status is not one of Rutter’s
indicators.
Answer A: Low SES was identified by Rutter as a high-risk factor.
Answer B: Rutter identified large family size as a high-risk factor.
Answer C: Maternal psychopathology was also identified as a
risk factor by Rutter.

Answer 91

A

The correct answer is B.
Alzheimer’s disease is often described in terms of three stages
(see the Abnormal Psychology chapter of the written study
materials). The symptoms listed in this answer are
characteristic of the second stage.
Answer A: Apathy, incontinence, and an inability to recognize
close relatives and friends are symptoms characteristic of the
third (late) stage of the disorder.
Answer C: Impaired attention and judgment, anterograde
amnesia, and indifference or sadness are symptoms
characteristic of the first (early) stage of Alzheimer’s disease.
Answer D: Poor judgment and insight, changes in speech and
writing, and tremor are symptoms characteristic of Huntington’s
disease.

Answer 92

A

The correct answer is B.
Ainsworth originally identified three attachment patterns –
secure, insecure/avoidant, and insecure/resistant. Main
subsequently added the disorganized/disoriented pattern.
Insecure/avoidant infants ordinarily show little distress in
response to mom’s departure, ignore her when she returns, and
are often more friendly to a stranger than to mom.
Answer A: Secure infants often exhibit some distress when mom
leaves and are unlikely to be comforted by a stranger.
Answer C: Insecure/resistant infants become very upset when
mom leaves and are not comforted by her return.
Answer D: Disorganized/disoriented infants exhibit
contradictory, disoriented behavior during the events of the
Strange Situation.

Answer 93

A

The correct answer is A.
The effects of gender on goal-setting are discussed by E. A.
Locke and G. P. Latham (A Theory of Goal-Setting and Task
Performance Englewood Cliffs, NJ: Prentice-Hall, 1990). The few
studies that have examined the effects of gender have found
that, overall, goal-setting is equally effective for males and
females.
Answer B: Research on the effects of gender on goal-setting
does not find that goal-setting increases the performance of
both males and females only when goals are participatively set.
See explanation for response A.
Answer C: Research on the effects of gender on goal-setting
does not find that goal-setting increases the performance of
males but not females when goals are assigned but increases
the performance of males and females when goals are
participatively set. See explanation for response A.
Answer D: Research on the effects of gender on goal-setting
does not find that goal-setting increases the performance of
females but not males when goals are assigned but increases
the performance of males and females when goals are
participatively set. See explanation for response A.

Answer 94

A

The correct answer is D.
Expectancy theory distinguishes between three beliefs that
affect motivation – expectancy, instrumentality, and valence.
Instrumentality refers to the belief that one’s performance will
be rewarded.
Answer A: Valence refers to the perceived value of the available
rewards.
Answer B: Autonomy is not part of expectancy theory.
Answer C: Expectancy is the belief that one’s effort will result in
performance.

Answer 95

A

The correct answer is A.
Gerstmann’s Syndrome is caused by damage to left
(dominant) parietal lobe. Dysgraphia, finger agnosia, acalculia,
and right-left disorientation are the four primary symptoms of
Gerstmann’s Syndrome.
Answer B: Responding to simple questions with absurd,
approximate, or inappropriate answers are symptoms
characteristic of Ganser Syndrome, which is a rare disorder
most often seen in patients under examination for commitment
and prisoners awaiting trial.
Answer C: Strong oral tendencies, hypersexuality, lack of
concentration, and alterations in appetite are characteristic
symptoms of Kluver-Bucy Syndrome.
Answer D: Anterograde amnesia, confusion, and confabulation
are symptoms observed in Korsakoff’s Syndrome.

Answer 96

A

The correct answer is B.
Although members of culturally diverse groups express a
stronger preference for therapists who are similar in terms of
race or ethnicity, race and ethnicity are not always their first
consideration. This was the finding of several studies which
found that, when members of culturally diverse groups were
given a choice between race/ethnic similarity and attitude
similarity, most ranked attitude similarity as more important.
See, e.g., D. R. Atkinson and C. E. Thompson, Racial, ethnic, and
cultural variables in counseling, in S. D. Brown and R. W. Lent
(Eds.), Handbook of counseling psychology New York, John
Wiley & Sons, 1992).
Answer A: The idea that rank race/ethnic similarity is more
important than attitude or worldview similarity is the opposite of
what some research has found.
Answer C: Personality is ranked as less important than attitude
or race/ethnicity.
Answer D: The idea that rank age and gender similarity is more
important than either race-ethic similarity or attitude similarity
is not a finding of these studies. See explanation above.

Answer 97

A

The correct answer is A.
The correct answer to this question is the term that sounds like
what it is – the “base-rate fallacy.” The base-rate fallacy is the
failure to take the base rate into account when making
decisions or forming attitudes. An example of the base-rate
fallacy is the tendency of people to be more afraid of flying
than of driving a car despite the fact that more people are killed
on the road than in the sky.
Answer B: The fundamental attribution bias is described in the
Social Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
Answer C: Illusory correlation is also described in the Social
Psychology chapter.
Answer D: The discounting principle refers to the tendency to
decrease the role of a given cause in producing an effect when
other plausible causes are present.

Answer 98

A

The correct answer is D.
The various antidepressants, to some degree, are most
effective for different depressive symptoms. Hysterical traits,
multiple previous episodes, and delusions are associated with a
poor response to the tricyclic drugs. The symptoms listed in
responses A, B, and C (along with psychomotor disturbances
and other vegetative symptoms) are predictive of a positive
response.
Answer A: Insidious onset of symptoms are predictive of a
positive response. See explanation for response D.
Answer B: Weight loss is predictive of a positive response. See
explanation for response D.
Answer C: Middle and late insomnia are predictive of a positive
response. See explanation for response D

Answer 99

A

The correct answer is C.
Although there is some evidence that young girls exhibit more
risk factors for depression during childhood, it is not until
puberty that the gender difference in rates of Major Depressive
Disorder becomes evident.
Answer A: It is not the case that, in adults, Major Depressive
Disorder occurs about twice as often in females than in males
due to this gender difference being the opposite of what is
found in prepubertal children. See explanation for response C.
Answer B: It is not the case that, in adults, Major Depressive
Disorder occurs about twice as often in females than in males
due to this gender difference being the same as what is found
in prepubertal children. See explanation for response C.
Answer D: It is not the case that, in adults, Major Depressive
Disorder occurs about twice as often in females than in males
due to this gender difference not becoming evident until early
adulthood. See explanation for response C.

Answer 100

A

The correct answer is B.
Ratio schedules provide reinforcement after a prespecified
number of responses, while interval schedules provide
reinforcement after a prespecified period of time (as long as at
least one response is made during that interval). Knowing this
would have helped you choose the correct answer to this
question. When using a variable ratio schedule, the number of
responses required for reinforcement varies from trial to trial
but, on the average, requires a specific number of responses.
For example on a VR-10 schedule, the individual might be
reinforced for 8 responses, then 12 responses, and then 10
responses. It is apparently this unpredictability that accounts
for the effectiveness of this schedule in establishing and
maintaining behaviors.
Answer A: This describes a fixed ratio schedule.
Answer C: This describes a fixed interval schedule.
Answer D: This describes a variable interval schedule.

Answer 101

A

The correct answer is D.
In this situation, you have been hired by the school psychologist
to help her deal more effectively with a particular type of client.
In consultee-centered case consultation, the focus is on the
consultee’s skill, knowledge, or objectivity, and the goal is to
improve the consultee’s effectiveness with members of a
particular population.
Answer A: Process consultation is a type of organizational
consultation and development that focuses on communication
and other employee processes.
Answer B: The purpose of advocacy consultation is to act as an
advocate for a disenfranchised group.
Answer C: In client-centered case consultation, the focus of the
consultation is on a specific client (not a group of clients).

Answer 102

A

The correct answer is A.
The research in this area is not entirely consistent, but it does
appear that CNS chemotherapy and irradiation treatments for
children with cancer do have some negative effects on their
cognitive functioning, especially in terms of academic
performance. [See, e.g., R. T. Brown and A. Madan-Sevain,
Cognitive, neuropsychological, and academic sequelae in
children with leukemia, Journal of Learning Disabilities, 26(2),
74-90, 1993.].
Answer B: Research does not show that CNS chemotherapy is
associated with neurocognitive deficits but irradiation is not.
See explanation for answer A.
Answer C: Research does not show that CNS irradiation is
associated with neurocognitive deficits but chemotherapy is
not. See explanation for answer A.
Answer D: Research does not show that any apparent negative
impact of either treatment on neurocognitive functioning is
actually due to the disease. See explanation for answer A

Answer 103

A

The correct answer is C.
Marcia (1980) distinguished between four identity statuses:
diffusion, foreclosure, moratorium, and achievement.
Information about these statuses is provided in the Lifespan
Development chapter of the written study materials. Identityforeclosed individuals have made a commitment to an identity
that has been imposed by parents or other authority figures.
Answer A: Moratorium occurs when adolescent experiences an
identity crisis and actively explores alternative identities. See
explanation for answer C.
Answer B: Diffusion occurs when adolescents have not yet
experienced an identity crisis or explored alternatives and are
not committed to an identity. See explanation for answer C.
Answer D: Pseudo-achievement is not one of Marcia’s “identity
statuses.” See explanation for answer C.

Answer 104

A

The correct answer is B.
Ratio schedules provide reinforcement after a prespecified
number of responses, while interval schedules provide
reinforcement after a prespecified period of time (as long as at
least one response is made during that interval). When using a
variable ratio schedule, the number of responses required for
reinforcement varies from trial to trial. It is the unpredictability
of responses required that accounts for the effectiveness of this
schedule in establishing and maintaining behaviors.
Answer A: This describes a fixed ratio schedule.
Answer C: This describes a fixed interval schedule.
Answer D: This describes a variable interval schedule.

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