6- Industrial / organization psychology Flashcards
According to equity theory, individuals are most likely to feel content and maintain their level of performance when:
Select one:
A. they perceive a balance between their contributions and the benefits they receive
B. they perceive their input-output ratio as equal to others
C. they accept the goals, even if the goals were assigned by their supervisor
D. there is no adverse impact
Correct Answer is: B
Equity theory holds that, in any work situation we assess both our input (how much effort we are contributing to a work situation) and our output (how much we get out of it). We then compare our input/output ratio to what we perceive are the ratios of our co-workers. A state of balance exists when we perceive that our input/output ratios are equal to those of our co-workers. If our input/output ratio is not equal to the ratios of others, a state of inequity exists and we will be motivated to create equity.
they perceive a balance between their contributions and the benefits they receive
This choice does not address the comparison to others.
they accept the goals, even if the goals were assigned by their supervisor
This is related to Goal-setting theory.
there is no adverse impact
Adverse impact is an important concept, but is not related to equity theory.
Additional Information: Equity Theory
In applied industrial settings, Maslow’s theory has been shown to be:
Select one:
A. applicable for lower-level employees only.
B. appropriate for supervisors but not managers.
C. applicable across the board.
D. not applicable
Correct Answer is: D
Maslow’s theory, as it applies to workplace settings, has not been supported by research. For instance, the notion that lower level needs, such as pay and job security, cease to be important once they are satisfied has not been shown to be true.
Additional Information: Maslow’s Need Hierarchy
In a job selection decision, age can be used as an exclusionary criterion
Select one:
A. never.
B. if there is a ruling from the appropriate federal agency allowing it.
C. if there is a significant difference in mean ages of incumbents and applicants.
D. if age is directly related to job performance.
Correct Answer is: D
Any limiting criterion is acceptable in a job selection procedure as long as the criterion is shown to be job-related. For instance, you could exclude people with very poor eyesight as air traffic controllers, you could exclude people with very little stamina and strength as firefighters, and so forth. Thus, if an employer can empirically demonstrate that being a certain age is a bona-fide occupational requirement, it could be used as a job criterion. Let’s say you were hiring painters to work on the Golden Gate Bridge. You might very well find that people over age 60 couldn’t do the job safely and well. If you could prove this finding empirically, you could use age as a criterion. Note, however, that if an employer is challenged on the use of a discriminatory exclusionary criterion, the employer bears the legal burden of demonstrating that it is job relevant.
Additional Information: Adverse Impact
A predictor with a criterion-related validity coefficient of .40 will be most useful when there is a
Select one:
A. high selection ratio and moderate base rate.
B. high selection ratio and low base rate.
C. low selection ratio and moderate base rate.
D. low selection ratio and low base rate.
Correct Answer is: C
A low selection ratio means that there’s lots of applicant to choose from (which is preferable to having only a few to choose from). A moderate base rate is preferable to a high or low base rate because this means that there’s room for improvement in the selection process. When the base rate is high, the company is already doing a good job and doesn’t need a new predictor; when the base rate is low, this usually means that something other than selection is the problem (e.g., the company’s performance standards are too high or there just aren’t enough good applicants to choose from).
Additional Information: Incremental Validity
A summative evaluation of a mental health program primarily deals with which of the following questions?
Select one:
A. Did the program meet its goals?
B. How can the program be improved in the future?
C. How can the strengths and weaknesses of the program be summarized?
D. What is preventing the program from operating more effectively right now?
Correct Answer is: A
In the terminology of program evaluation, a common distinction is between summative and formative evaluation. Summative evaluations deal with whether a program has achieved its intended objectives. They are typically used to address “bottom line” issues, such as if a program should continue existing, or if more or fewer resources should be allocated to it. By contrast, a formative evaluation addresses issues related to the implementation of a program. The main focus of a formative evaluation is how a program can be improved. In practice, most program evaluations contain elements of both formative and summative evaluation.
Additional Information: Program Evaluation
All of following are rater biases EXCEPT: Select one: A. contrast effect B. severity error C. central tendency bias D. floor effect
Correct Answer is: D
Subjective rating scale accuracy is influenced by the suspectibility to rater biases. A contrast effect* occurs when a rater’s ratings of a ratee are impacted by the ratings given to another. Severity error, or strictness bias, refers to the tendency to use the low end of a rating scale to rate all ratees, whereas the central tendency bias is the tendency to use the middle of a scale in rating (* incorrect options).
A floor effect is not a rater bias. It refers to a measuring instrument’s inability to distinguish between individuals who have low scores on whatever is being measured.
Additional Information: Rater Biases
Research has found that flexible work schedules have the greatest impact on: Select one: A. absenteeism B. job satisfaction C. productivity D. self-rated performance
Correct Answer is: A
The results of a meta-analysis concluded that flextime has positive effects on employee absenteeism (i.e., improved attendance), productivity, satisfaction with work schedule, and job satisfaction. However, the greatest impact was on absenteeism (effect size = .93), followed by productivity (.45), satisfaction with schedule (.32), and job satisfaction (.15). Note that job satisfaction was lower than previously reported findings.
Self-rated performance was not significantly related to flextime (.04) [B. Baltes, T. Briggs, J. Huff, J. Wright, and G. Neuman, flexible and compressed workweek schedules: A meta-analysis of their effects on work-related criteria, Journal of Applied Psychology, 84(4), 1999, 496-513].
Additional Information: Flextime
Leader-Member Exchange Theory (LMX) emphasizes:
Select one:
A. the relationships a leader has with members can be divided into two groups referred to as the “in-group” and the “out-group.”
B. adhering to formal organizational expectations yields increased access and opportunity
C. principles of fairness in members achieving a quality relationship with a leader
D. leaders and members use exchanges to achieve mutually beneficial outcomes
Correct Answer is: A
Leader member exchange theory (LMX) emphasizes that the nature of the relationship between a leader and member is the determining factor as to whether a member belongs to the “in-group” or the “out-group” and that not all members of the organization achieve the same quality relationship. Improved organizational effectiveness and achieving leader/employee needs satisfaction is the general objective. LMX theory suggests a developing leader-member relationship that moves through three phases: stranger, acquaintance, and partner. The relationship between the leader and members of the “out-group” is marked by a lower quality with both parties only completing their formal role obligations. Whereas, the relationship with the “in-group” members moves from low quality, one way, self-oriented and scripted to high quality, reciprocal, group oriented and negotiated exchanges. Given their status with the leader, in-group members have more decision-making influence, access to resources and responsibility than those in the out-group. The leader, in exchange for the additional effort of these members, provides more support, trust and initiative beyond the obligations of the job. Research indicates LMX theory is positively related to “higher job satisfaction, stronger organizational commitment, and better subordinate performance” (Yukl, 1998). LMX theory has been criticized as being discriminatory (i.e., increased opportunity for one group and formal expectations for another) and counter to principles of fairness among subordinates. The theory does not propose inequitable treatment of members rather it explains how relationships with various members can develop. LMX research suggests that leaders become cognizant of their attitudes toward all members and create methods for all employees to freely enter the in-group. (See: Northouse, P.G. (2001). Leadership Theory and Practice, second edition. Thousand Oaks, CA: Sage Publications, Inc. and Yukl, G. (1998). Leadership in organizations (4th ed.) Upper Saddle River, NJ: Prentice Hall.)
Additional Information: Leader Member Exchange (LMX) Theory
The tendency to rate all using the low end of the rating scale is referred to as: Select one: A. floor effect B. contrast effect C. central tendency bias D. severity error
Correct Answer is: D
Another term for the strictness bias or error is severity error. This rater bias refers to the tendency of raters to rate all ratees using the low end of the rating scale.
A rater rating all individuals using the middle range of a rating scale is exhibiting the central tendency bias. If the ratings of one individual is affected by the ratings given to another, then the rater bias is a contrast effect. A floor effect is not a rater bias. Characteristic of a measuring instrument, floor effect refers to the inability to distinguish between individuals who have low levels of what is being measured.
Additional Information: Rater Biases
Which of the following would be least useful as a method for management development? Select one: A. Outward Bound programs B. job rotation C. coaching or mentoring D. vestibule training
Correct Answer is: D
Management development is a growing field in organizational psychology. A number of techniques are used to train (develop) managers including job rotation, coaching, mentoring, and even Outward Bound, which fosters trust and cooperation. Vestibule training involves the use of procedures or an environment similar to the actual job and is used for such jobs as bank tellers, clerks, and typists.
Additional Information: Program Design (Training)
Which of the following is true of transformational leaders?
Select one:
A. the goals of the organization are redefined to reflect the self-interest of followers
B. believe that subordinates are persuaded when the organization’s goals are compatible with their self-interests
C. motivate by encouraging subordinates to transcend self-interest for the greater good of the organization
D. assent to the self-interest of their followers
Correct Answer is: C
Transformational leaders are change-oriented. They encourage and inspire subordinate acceptance and support for organizational change that is in the best interests of the organization. In contrast, transactional leaders motivate through appealing to the followers’ self-interests and focus more on stability than change.
Additional Information: Transformational vs. Transactional Leadership
A transactional leader emphasizes:
Select one:
A. rules and regulations.
B. common goals.
C. individual responsibility and decision-making.
D. changing his/her style to fit the situation.
Correct Answer is: A
A distinction is made in the leadership literature between transformational and transactional leaders. Transformational leaders empower employees, raise their consciousness, and successfully guide them through organizational change. In contrast, transactional leaders focus on conforming to rules and regulations and maintaining the status quo.
Additional Information: Transformational vs. Transactional Leadership
According to a recent meta-analysis on the "big five" traits and job satisfaction, which trait has the strongest relation with overall job satisfaction? Select one: A. agreeableness B. extraversion C. conscientiousness D. neuroticism
Correct Answer is: D
The meta-analysis of 163 studies linking traits from the 5-factor model of personality to overall job satisfaction by Judge, Heller & Mound (2002) found neuroticism was the strongest, most consistent correlate of job satisfaction and also the Big-Five trait most often studied in relation to job satisfaction. Conscientiousness displayed the second strongest correlation followed by extraversion. The estimated true score correlations with job satisfaction include: Neuroticism (-.29), Conscientiousness (.26), Extraversion (.25), Agreeableness (.17), and (.02) for Openness to Experience. The findings support previous reviews that lower neuroticism and higher extraversion are associated with higher job satisfaction. The study also notes Conscientiousness, previously found to have positive effects in terms of job performance, has been overlooked in studies in terms of job satisfaction. (See: Judge, T.A., Heller, D., & Mount, M.K. (2002). Five-factor model of personality and job satisfaction. A meta-analysis. Journal of Applied Psychology. Vol. 87, No. 3, 530-541.)
According to the EEOC’s 80% rule for determining disparate impact of hiring practices on a minority group, disparate impact occurs when
Select one:
A. the hiring rate of a protected group is less than 80% of the hiring rate of another group.
B. 80% or more of applicants in a protected group are not hired.
C. less than 20% of applicants for the job are members of any protected group.
D. the number of people who would have been hired based on a random selection process is more than 80% greater than the number of protected group applicants hired.
Correct Answer is: A
According to the EEOC’s Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Criteria, disparate impact (also known as adverse impact) occurs if members of a protected class are selected at a rate less than 4/5ths, or 80% of the selection rate of another group. For example, if 2 out of every 10, or 20%, of African American applicants are hired, and 3 out of 10, or 30%, whites are hired, the ratio of the selection rates for the two groups would be 20/30, or 66%. This would indicate adverse impact against African-Americans in the hiring practice. Note that since this guideline was published, legal standards such as the Civil Rights Act of 1991 have held that failure to adhere to the 80% rule is not, by itself, sufficient to provide the basis for an adverse impact claim. Usually, additional proof, such as statistically significant differences between the hiring rates of two groups is required.
Additional Information: Adverse Impact
Margaret is reluctant to give poor ratings to her subordinates for fear of "ruffling feathers." Consequently, she tends to be unusually easy in her ratings. Margaret is committing what type of error? Select one: A. central tendency B. halo C. leniency D. severity
Correct Answer is: A
Rater biases include the strictness, leniency, central tendency, and halo biases. The central tendency bias is the tendency to use the middle of a scale in rating all ratees.
halo
The halo effect occurs when evaluations of one aspect of a person’s behavior influence evaluations of other aspects. The halo effect can be positive or negative; i.e., it can result in a bias in favor of or against a person.
leniency
You may have considered the leniency bias as the correct response. This type of rater bias involves giving ratees high ratings on each dimension of performance regardless of their actual performance. However, the question does not indicate that all the ratings are high, only that Margaret is reluctant to give low scores for poor performance.
severity
Severity error, or strictness bias, refers to the tendency to use the low end of a rating scale to rate all ratees.
Additional Information: Rater Biases
Organizational psychologists would most likely use which of the following when talking to business leaders about implementing the use of psychological tests in selecting employees? Select one: A. utility analysis B. utility evaluation C. job analysis D. job evaluation
Correct Answer is: A
Utility analysis is a procedure used to translate the cost and benefits of different business alternatives into dollars and cents. In this case, an I/O psychologist would use utility analysis to compare how much money the company currently makes without using the psychological tests and how much money the company would be expected to make if a testing program were implemented.
A job analysis is a detailed analysis and description of a job that specifically states what needs to be done (job-related tasks), the nature of the work (work environment), and the type of individual who can perform the work successfully (knowledge, skills, and abilities). Job evaluation is the process used to determine how much to pay each employee. A typical job evaluation process involves assessing the value of each job-related task to the business and then adding up the value of all tasks listed in the job description to determine the overall value of the job.
Additional Information: Utility Analysis
The usefulness of a job selection test is increased to the degree that
Select one:
A. the base rate is low and the selection ratio is high.
B. the base rate is high and the selection ratio is low.
C. the base rate is moderate and the selection ratio is low.
D. the base rate is moderate and the selection ratio is high.
Correct Answer is: C
In a job selection test, usefulness refers to the degree to which the test helps you hire successful candidates. Job selection tests are useful to the degree that the correlation between test scores and job performance is high, the base rate is moderate, and the selection ratio is low. The base rate refers to the percentage of people in the population who are able to perform the job successfully. To understand why you’d want a moderate base rate, think about the extreme cases: a base rate of 100% or 0%. A 100% base rate means that everyone can do the job successfully; a 0% base rate mean that no one can. In both cases, a job selection test is useless because you don’t need it to distinguish between good and bad candidates. A base rate of 50% means that half of the population can do the job successfully and a selection test therefore becomes more useful in distinguishing between acceptable and unacceptable applicants. The selection ratio refers to the proportion of available jobs relative to applicants. For example, if 100 people apply for 10 openings, the selection ratio would be 10%. With a small selection ratio, you are only selecting the very top scorers on the test, and assuming the test has a reasonable correlation with job performance, these top scorers are more likely to succeed on the job. Note that the smaller the selection ratio, the higher the number of false negatives, which are people who fail the test but would have succeeded on the job. But this is more of a problem for candidates than it is for businesses that use the test; the latter will still end up with more successful candidates the lower the selection ratio.
Additional Information: Incremental Validity
Research on goal-setting theory suggests that it is:
Select one:
A. applicable to the performance of males but not females.
B. applicable only to females in managerial-level jobs.
C. applicable to females when goals are set participatively but not when they are assigned.
D. applicable to both males and females whether goals are set participatively or are assigned.
Correct Answer is: D
Very few studies have attempted to determine if there are differences between males and females in goal-setting behavior. The existing studies suggest that, overall, the predictions of goal-setting theory are equally applicable to both genders, although there may be some minor differences. For example, at least one study found that females prefer mastery goals over social comparison goals.
Additional Information: Goal-Setting Theory
Super’s theory of career development views “career maturity” as:
Select one:
A. the extent to which a person has mastered the tasks related to his or her developmental stage.
B. knowing how to choose a career that is consistent with your self-concept.
C. unattainable for most people.
D. attainable, but typically not until mid-life or later.
Correct Answer is: A
Donald Super proposed a five stage model of career development: growth (birth-15 yrs), exploration (15-24 yrs), establishment (25-44 yrs), maintenance (45-64 yrs), and decline (65+ yrs). A person is considered to have reached “career maturity” when he or she has mastered the tasks of his or her developmental stage and is prepared to enter the next stage. The term “self concept” is another important aspect of Super’s theory and refers to a person’s abilities, interests, values, personality traits, etc. He believed that people choose a career that is consistent with their self-concept.
Additional Information: Super’s Career and Life Development Theory
According to House’s path-goal theory, the optimal leader style:
Select one:
A. is a democratic one that allows workers to participate in setting goals and identifying ways for achieving them.
B. is the one that emphasizes a task-oriented (versus person-oriented) approach that focuses on ways to achieve goals.
C. varies depending on the situation but always involves helping workers achieve their goals.
D. varies depending on the leader’s experience and personality but always focuses on ensuring that goals are consistent with workers’ skills and knowledge.
Correct Answer is: C
As its name implies, path-goal theory predicts that leaders will be most successful when they show followers the path for achieving goals. Path-goal theory is also a contingency theory, which means that it proposes that the best leadership style depends on certain characteristics of the situation.
Additional Information: House’s Path-Goal Theory of Leadership
Overall, research on the compressed work week suggests that its effects are:
Select one:
A. increased job satisfaction, with no effect on job performance.
B. increased job performance, with no effect on job satisfaction.
C. decreased job performance, with no effect on satisfaction.
D. increased job performance and increased job satisfaction.
Correct Answer is: A
In the compressed work week (CWW), the number of days worked is shortened but the work hours per day are lengthened. For example, the work week might be compressed into four days a week, ten hours a day. Research results regarding the effects of the CWW are mixed, but most studies suggest that job satisfaction tends to increase, while job performance is not affected and (depending on the job) may even decrease. The CWW also tends to result in decreased absenteeism.
Additional Information: Compressed Work Week
According to Donald Super, career development can be described in terms of progress through a developmental sequence of vocational stages. One's standing in this developmental sequence, in relation to where one should be, given his or her chronological age, is referred to as Select one: A. vocational maturity. B. vocational consistency. C. vocational resolution. D. vocational level.
Correct Answer is: A
Super postulated a developmental sequence of vocational development occurring through the life span and consisting of five stages: growth, exploration, establishment, maintenance, and decline. Each of these stages also consists of a number of substages. Super coined the term “vocational maturity” to refer to the degree to which a person’s progress in this sequence is appropriate given the person’s chronological age. In fact, Super and his colleagues constructed a number of assessment instruments specifically designed to measure vocational maturity.
Additional Information: Super’s Career and Life Development Theory
The company you work for has asked you to develop and implement a training program. You would begin with a: Select one: A. formative evaluation B. summative evaluation C. needs assessment D. job evaluation
Correct Answer is: C
Needs assessment, or needs analysis, is a process to determine if training is needed and, if so, what type of training should be provided. This process is generally divided into three steps: (1) organizational analysis, (2) task analysis, and (3) person analysis. An organizational analysis is to identify if training fits with the organization’s goals. Task analysis identifies the specific tasks that employees need to be trained in and links them to the relevant knowledge, skills, and abilities of each task. A person analysis identifies employees who need to be trained, the type of training they need and if they are ready for training.
A formative evaluation* is a method of assessing a program’s weaknesses while the program activities are forming or happening, focusing on the process. A summative evaluation* determines the effects of a training program after it has been developed. A job evaluation* determines the appropriate compensation for a job (* incorrect choices).
Additional Information: Needs Analysis
Low LPC leaders would be most likely to say:
Select one:
A. More beautiful paint colors in this office make us all feel better
B. Flexitime was a brillant invention
C. It’s time for a change around here
D. The first one to hand in this budget report wins the office lottery pool
Correct Answer is: D
According to Fiedler’s 1971 contingency theory, a leader’s effectiveness is determined by a combination of the leader’s style and the characteristics of the situation. Low LPC leaders are task and achievement oriented.
More beautiful paint colors in this office make us all feel better
Flexitime was a brillant invention
These two options could describe High LPC leaders who are primarily relationship oriented.
It’s time for a change around here
This could describe a transformational leader which Bass (1990) (see I/O section) described as change focused.
Additional Information: Fiedler’s Contingency (LPC) Theory
Studies examining the predictions of goal-setting theory for work groups suggests that
Select one:
A. having employees work as a team with team goals results in lower productivity than having employees work as individuals with individual goals.
B. having employees work as a team with team goals results in higher productivity than having employees work as individuals with individual goals.
C. having employees work as a team with team goals results in similar levels of productivity as having employees work as individuals with individual goals, as long as the goals have been consciously accepted by the employees.
D. having employees work as a team with team goals results in similar levels of productivity as having employees work as individuals with individual goals, as long as the goals have been determined by the employees.
Correct Answer is: B
A current emphasis in the I/O literature is on team work, and the increased reliance on teams in organizations is supported by research showing that teams are more productive than individuals. Note that, in some situations, group performance is not as good as individual performance (e.g., in certain types of decision-making). However, this question is asking specifically about research related to goal-setting theory, so this is the best response. See A. J. DuBrin, Fundamentals of Organizational Behavior: An Applied Approach, Cincinnati, OH, South-Western College Publishing, 1997.
Additional Information: Goal-Setting Theory
Holland's social type is most similar to which other one of his types? Select one: A. artistic B. investigative C. realistic D. conventional
Correct Answer is: A
Holland’s theory categorizes individuals based on their resemblance to six personality types: realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and conventional (you can remember the sequence as “RIASEC”). The personality types reflect a person’s primary interest, or an environment’s primary characteristic; for example, the social type enjoys working with others and avoids ordered, systematic activities that involve tools or machinery. There is overlap between the types, though some types overlap more than others. For example, the social type is relatively more similar to the artistic and enterprising types, and less similar to the realistic, investigative, and conventional types.
Additional Information: Holland’s Personality and Environment Typology
According to Fiedler’s contingency model, a task-oriented leader is most effective when
Select one:
A. the task is very structured or very unstructured.
B. the task is moderately structured.
C. the employees are either very high or very low in ability.
D. the employees are moderate in terms of ability level.
Correct Answer is: A
To answer this question, you need to know that Fiedler referred to task-oriented leaders as “low-LPC” leaders and that he proposed that low-LPC leaders are most effective in very favorable and very unfavorable situations. The favorability of the situation is determined by several factors, including the structure of the task (but not the ability of the employees).
Additional Information: Fiedler’s Contingency (LPC) Theory
Individuals vulnerable to burnout tend to be:
Select one:
A. lazy workers with low motivation.
B. insecure hard workers.
C. fulfilled from sources outside the job.
D. managers with responsibility and power.
Correct Answer is: B
Burnout is most suffered by compulsive workaholics who are insecure and unfulfilled in their personal lives. Specifically, burnout victims are not lazy, nor are they fulfilled in their outside lives. Finally, they tend to be in dead-end jobs with little hope for promotion. Knowing these facts (which are reviewed in the Industrial/Organizational section), you could have deduced the correct answer.
While both positive and negative effects are associated with high levels of group cohesiveness, with respect to productivity, high group cohesiveness is:
Select one:
A. associated with higher productivity when management is indifferent to the group.
B. associated with higher productivity when management is supportive of the group.
C. consistently associated with lower group productivity.
D. consistently associated with higher group productivity
Correct Answer is: B
Schmuck & Schmuck (2000) define group cohesion as “the relation of individual group members to the group as a whole.” Whether or not high levels of group cohesiveness manifests in improved productivity depends in part on how the group is managed. Management supportiveness is one of several variables that moderates the relationship between group cohesiveness and group productivity, with high levels of support being associated with higher levels of productivity and management hostility or indifference being associated with lower productivity.
____________________________ is a basic concept of the organizational development strategy of process consultation.
Select one:
A. Attitude change follows behavior change
B. Behavior change follows attitude change
C. Attitude and behavior change simultaneously
D. Changes in attitude and behavior follow insight
Correct Answer is: A
Process consultation centers on distinguishing and changing obvious behaviors that disrupt the normal social processes of a job. A distinctive feature of process consultation is its assertion that behavior change is the main concern and precedes attitude change.
Additional Information: Process Consultation
A \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is performed during the development or delivery of an intervention to determine if it needs to be modified in order to meet its goals. Select one: A. summative evaluation B. formative evaluation C. utility analysis D. needs analysis
Correct Answer is: B
A distinction is made between formative and summative evaluation in the literature on evaluation. Formative evaluations are conducted during the delivery of the intervention to identify ways to improve it.
summative evaluation
Summative evaluations are conducted at the end of the intervention to evaluate its effectiveness and participants’ reactions to it.
utility analysis
Whereas the utility analysis summarizes and identifies key variables that describe the consequences of HR programs.
needs analysis
A needs analysis is the first step in developing a training program. It is conducted prior to developing an intervention to determine what the intervention should include.
Additional Information: Program Evaluation
Communication networks in which information passes along a chain of command are associated with: Select one: A. complex job tasks B. simple job tasks C. increased individual satisfaction D. collaborative job tasks
Correct Answer is: B
Centralized communication networks, where all communication passes through one position or person, have been shown to be more efficient when tasks are mundane and simple. Formal communication networks where information moves between many positions or people (decentralized communication networks) work best with complex and/or collaborative job tasks. Research indicates decentralized networks also result in more individual satisfaction.
Additional Information: Communication Networks
The most effective approach to encourage students to learn new vocabulary words in a foreign language would be to instruct them to:
Select one:
A. learn as many words as possible.
B. take their time and plan to learn 5 words a day.
C. apply pressure on themselves to learn 20 words a day.
D. take it easy and not worry about specific number of words.
Correct Answer is: B
According to Locke’s 1970 goal-setting theory, goals serve two purposes-they are a basis for motivation and they direct behavior. Goal attainment is maximized when goals are specific and moderately difficult and when frequent feedback about progress toward goal achievement is provided. Goal-setting theory proposes that, when people accept goals, they intend to achieve them and, therefore, are willing to put forth the effort to do so.
learn as many words as possible.
take it easy and not worry about specific number of words.
These two responses are too vague.
apply pressure on themselves to learn 20 words a day.
This choice is excessively difficult.
Additional Information: Goal-Setting Theory
Of the following, the best way to reduce rater errors such as the halo and leniency biases would be
Select one:
A. use of a forced-choice rating scale.
B. use of the forced distribution rating scale.
C. use of Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales.
D. adequate training of raters.
Correct Answer is: D
A number of special types of rating scales designed to reduce rater bias (such as the forced-choice and the Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales) have been derived, and, in fact, there is some research to show that they are effective in doing so. However, no rating scale will be effective unless raters are trained adequately in its use. Indeed, research shows that relevant training can minimize some rating errors – specifically, the halo effect, constant error such as the leniency or strictness bias, and contrast effects. The operative word here is “relevant”: unless training focuses on matters such as the multi-dimensionality of work performance, objective recording of behavior, and rating people in terms of actual job requirements, training the raters won’t work.
Additional Information: Rater Biases
The fundamental principle underlying goal-setting theory is:
Select one:
A. self-efficacy beliefs are related to an individual’s commitment to organizational goals.
B. organizational goals are only achieved when they are consistent with a person’s self-concept.
C. behavior is regulated by a person’s conscious goals and intentions.
D. participation is necessary to ensure commitment to goals.
Correct Answer is: C
Acceptance of goals is paramount importance goal-setting theory. Acceptance is the critical factor: A person must consciously accept the goals and intend to achieve them.
organizational goals are only achieved when they are consistent with a person’s self-concept.
Self-efficacy beliefs and consistency with one’s self-concept are not goal-setting theory principles.
participation is necessary to ensure commitment to goals.
Participation in goals may increase one’s acceptance and intentions, but it is not considered required.
Additional Information: Goal-Setting Theory
A needs assessment is usually conducted to: Select one: A. acertain a job applicant's skills B. describe the requirements of a job C. determine the relative worth of a job D. identify the needs of an organization
Correct Answer is: D
A needs assessment involves identifying the needs of the organization. A needs assessment is often conducted to determine which employees need training and what should be included in that training.
describe the requirements of a job
This choice describes the purpose of a job analysis, which is to describe the requirements of a job.
determine the relative worth of a job
This describes the purpose of a job evaluation, which is to determine the salary levels of jobs.
Additional Information: Needs Analysis
In regard to substance use, the Americans with Disabilities Act
Select one:
A. protects alcoholics and drug addicts as “qualified individuals” with a disability.
B. prohibits administering a drug test to an individual who is participating in a drug rehabilitation program.
C. prohibits drug testing from being administered to a prospective employee after a job offer is made.
D. protects individuals participating in a drug rehabilitation program who are no longer using drugs.
Correct Answer is: D
The Americans With Disabilities Act (ADA) does not consider individuals who are “currently engaging in the illegal use of drugs” as suffering from a disability on that basis. In other words, it does not protect current drug users. However, it does protect past substance addicts – as long as the individual is currently participating in or has completed a supervised rehabilitation program, and the person is not currently using drugs.
In regard to drug testing, the act does not identify any circumstances in which drug testing is prohibited. In fact, even though it protects former substance addicts, the Act permits employers to use “reasonable means” – including drug tests – to verify that such persons are no longer using substances.
Additional Information: Americans with Disabilities Act
A selection test that has a validity coefficient of .50 will have the greatest incremental validity when:
Select one:
A. the selection ratio is .95 and the base rate is .20
B. the selection ratio is .95 and the base rate is .50
C. the selection ratio is .05 and the base rate is .20
D. the selection ratio is .05 and the base rate is .50
Correct Answer is: D
Information on a test’s incremental validity for differing combinations of base rates, selection ratios, and validity coefficients is provided by the Taylor-Russell tables. Decision-making accuracy can improve on a test with a low or moderate validity coefficient when the selection ratio is low (e.g., .05) and the base rate is moderate (near .50).
Additional Information: Incremental Validity
According to recent research, the compressed workweek has the least impact on: Select one: A. absenteeism B. supervisor performance ratings C. overall job satisfaction D. satisfaction with work schedule
Correct Answer is: A
A meta-analysis by Baltes and colleagues found that the compressed workweek (increasing the number of hours per day and decreasing the number of days worked in a given work period) did not have a strong impact on absenteeism or objective measures of job performance. However, compressed workweek schedules were found to have positive effects on supervisor ratings of employee performance, employee overall job satisfaction, and employee satisfaction with the work schedule [B. B. Baltes et al., (1999). Flexible and compressed workweek schedules: A meta-analysis of their effects on work, Journal of Applied Psychology, 84(4), 496-513]. Earlier conclusions about the effects of the four-day (compressed) workweek have not been completely consistent with the findings from this meta-analysis.
Additional Information: Compressed Work Week
A recent trend in organizational compensation is to use team and organization-wide incentives. Research evaluating the effects of these incentives suggests that:
Select one:
A. they are associated with lower levels of productivity than individual incentives.
B. they are associated with lower levels of productivity than individual incentives as well as with lower morale, increased sabotage, and other undesirable consequences.
C. they have little or no effect on productivity but do improve satisfaction and commitment.
D. they have positive effects on productivity, especially when incentives are linked to performance.
Correct Answer is: D
Gainsharing and profit-sharing are the most common group and organization-wide incentive plans used in organizations. The studies have found that they are associated with increased productivity, especially gainsharing which more closely links bonuses to individual and group performance.
Utility analysis is a technique that assesses the:
Select one:
A. practicality of implementing a training program.
B. influence of training on performance.
C. overall usefulness of a training program.
D. the return on investment of training
Correct Answer is: D
Utility analysis was introduced as a method for evaluating the organizational benefits of using systematic procedures (e.g., proficiency tests) to improve personnel selection but has been extended to evaluating any intervention that attempts to improve human performance. It is a quantitative method that estimates the dollar value of benefits generated by an intervention based on the improvement it produces in worker productivity. Utility analysis provides management with information that can be used to evaluate the financial impact of an intervention, including computing a return on their investment in implementing it.
Additional Information: Utility Analysis
You have been hired as a consultant to a school psychologist in order to improve her efficacy in working with children with behavioral problems. During your consultation, you become aware that she is exhibiting "theme interference". The type of consultation you are providing can best be described as: Select one: A. advocacy B. process C. client-centered D. consultee-centered
Correct Answer is: D
The focus of consultee-centered consultation is on the consultee’s knowledge, skill, and objectivity in order to improve their effectiveness in working with members of a specific population.
In client-centered consultation, the focus is on a specific client, rather than an entire group. Advocacy consultants act as advocates for a disenfranchised group. Process consultants* focus on communication patterns and conflict resolution among co-workers (* incorrect options).
The term “theme interference” is useful to know, although it is not really key to answering this question. Theme interference occurs when a worker displaces past or present personal problems onto a situation at work. It is thus, analogous to transferance in psychotherapy.
Additional Information: Mental Health Consultation (Caplan)
A man reports that he is dissatisfied with his low-level job on an assembly line. He says that money is the only reason he is doing his work. According to Herzberg, what would be the best way to increase this person’s job motivation?
Select one:
A. give him a greater number of jobs to do
B. give him more responsibility
C. give him more money
D. give him a longer lunch break
Correct Answer is: B
According to Herzberg’s two-factor theory, need satisfiers can be divided into two types: hygiene factors and motivators. The absence of hygiene factors (e.g., money, security) results in dissatisfaction; however, their presence does not lead to satisfaction. By contrast, the presence of motivators (e.g., responsibility, power, self-esteem) results in satisfaction; however, their absence does not lead to dissatisfaction. Therefore, to increase a worker’s motivation, one would have to add factors such as responsibility to his or her job. Increased money or security will reduce any dissatisfaction, but will not increase motivation or satisfaction.
Additional Information: Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory
The terms "circumscription" and "compromise" are associated with: Select one: A. Gottfredson B. Super C. Krumboltz D. Meichenbaum
Correct Answer is: A
Gottfredson’s (1981; 1996; 2002) theory of circumscription and compromise addresses about how gender and prestige influence and limit career choice. The theory proposes four stages of cognitive development including: orientation to size and power; orientation to sex roles; influence of social class; introspection and perceptiveness and that the expression of occupational aspirations emerges as a process of elimination or is the outcome of the competing processes of circumscription and compromise. Circumscription refers to the progressive elimination of least preferred options or alternatives that occurs as children become increasingly aware of occupational differences in gender or sex-type, prestige, and then field of work. Compromise refers to the expansion of preferences in recognition of and accommodation to external constraints (e.g., level of effort required, accessibility, cost) encountered in implementing preferences. (See: Gottfredson, L. S. (1981). Circumscription and compromise: a developmental theory of occupational aspirations. Journal of Counseling Psychology Monograph, 28(No. 6, November), 545-579.) Gottfredson, L. S. (2002). Gottfredson’s theory of circumscription, compromise, and self creation. In D. Brown (Ed.), Career Choice and Development (4th ed., pp. 85-148). San Francisco: Jossey-Bass.)
Super’s theory proposed a five stage model of career development wherein people achieve job satisfaction when they are able to express themselves and develop their self-concept through their work roles. Krumboltz’s Social Learning Theory of Career Decision Making (SLTCDM) includes four types of influences on making career decisions: genetic characteristics and special abilities; environmental conditions and events; learning experiences; performance standards and values. Social learning influences can be positive or negative factors. Meichenbaum is associated with cognitive-behavioral therapy.
Additional Information: Gottfredson’s Theory of Circumscription and Compromise
You are hired as a consultant to a large organization and are asked to make a recommendation regarding the best work schedules to implement. You recommend a compressed work week because it most likely will result in:
Select one:
A. increased productivity but decreased satisfaction
B. decreased productivity but increased satisfaction
C. increased satisfaction with little or no effect on productivity
D. increased satisfaction and increased productivity
Correct Answer is: C
A compressed work week requires employees to work fewer days but more hours per day. Research on the effects of the compressed work week is mixed; however, most research has found that productivity is not affected, except for physically demanding jobs, in which case, it decreases. Satisfaction is usually increased and absenteeism usually declines, especially among younger, lower-level employees, and men.
Additional Information: Compressed Work Week
Which of the following is NOT one of the levels of Kirkpatrick's training evaluation model? Select one: A. learning B. reaction C. results D. return on investment
Correct Answer is: D
Donald Kirkpatrick’s (1959, 1998) model for evaluating training and learning programs includes four levels: reaction, learning, behavior and result. Each level of evaluation is used to assess the effectiveness of training programs and the effects of the training on the employees. Level 1 (“reaction”) evaluations focus on the individual’s response to the training or intervention. Level 2 (“learning”) measures what has been learned, often using pre/post-tests or end-of-course tests. Level 3 evaluations assess the impact of the intervention on the individual’s behavior or performance in the workplace and level 4 (“results”) measure the impact of training on the organization’s results. (See: Kirkpatrick, D.L. (1998). Evaluating Training Programs: The Four Levels (3rd ed.). San Francisco, California: Berrett-Koehler.)
Return on investment (ROI), is a “level 5” evaluation, proposed by Jack Phillips, used to calculate the return on investment of an intervention or training. Phillips’ Five Level ROI is an expansion of Kirkpatrick’s model and encourages ROI evaluations for each of the first four levels. (See: Phillips, J.J. (2000). Return on investment in training and performance improvement programs. Woburn, MA: Butterworth-Heinemann.)
Additional Information: Program Evaluation
When Total Quality Management (TQM) fails, it is often because
Select one:
A. there are too few managers.
B. there is too much attention to customer demands.
C. the employees are not given sufficient responsibility.
D. the rewards are not distributed fairly.
Correct Answer is: C
TQM is an organizational philosophy that focuses on maximizing customer service and satisfaction. An important characteristic of TQM is its involvement of employees in all aspects of decision-making, and failures are often due to management’s unwillingness to do this.
Additional Information: Total Quality Management
The belief that workers have just enough self motivation to show up at work, punch the time clock, and do only the minimum necessary to get the job done best exemplifies which theory? Select one: A. Three-needs theory B. Theory X C. Theory Y D. Theory Z
Correct Answer is: B
McGregor’s (1960) Theory X and Theory Y management theories reflect the key differences between the scientific management and human relations administrative models. The scientific management model assumes workers are primarily motivated by financial self-interest or pay; job demands must match workers’ skills; and workers need constant supervision and detailed guidelines as they are incapable of self-regulating or assuming personal responsibility. Theory X is similar to scientific management in that Theory X managers believe that workers dislike work and avoid it whenever possible, thus workers must be directed and controlled. Theory X advises managers to be very strict, closely monitor employee performance, diligently enforce policies and procedures, and carefully match employees to jobs. A military drill sergeant would be an example of this approach to management.
In contrast, Theory Y’s* management approach is based on the assumptions that workers are not naturally passive or lazy, they enjoy autonomy, and are willing to accept responsibility. Theory Y advises managers to smile, to treat workers with respect, to bend some of the rules to get the job done, and to be easy-going in their management styles.
While Theory X and Y talk about workers from the perspective of how to manage them, Theory Z* examines how workers contribute and proposes that workers naturally wish to cooperate and are loyal to the organization.
McClelland’s three needs, or Learned, theory proposes individuals learn needs from their culture and when one of these needs is strong in an individual, then it has the potential to motivate behavior that leads to its satisfaction ( incorrect choices). The theory’s three primary needs are: the need for affiliation (n Aff), which is a desire to establish social relationships with others; the need for power (n Pow), or a desire to control one’s environment and influence others; and the need for achievement (n Ach) or a desire to take responsibility, set challenging goals, and obtain performance feedback.
Additional Information: Theory X vs. Theory Y Leaders
An organization's employee agrees to a high-ranking executive's request for the employee to work overtime. The previous week, the same employee turned down a similar request from a peer. From the perspective of French and Raven's analysis of the bases of power, the employee accepted the executive's request due to the latter's \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ power. Select one: A. coercive B. reward C. legitimate D. referent
Correct Answer is: C
French and Raven identified six categories of power, which reflect the sources of influence upon which the power holder relies. Even if you were familiar with these categories, this question may have been difficult to answer, because all four of the choices could have been operating here. The way to choose the best answer is to work with the information you have at hand and not to add your own inferences to the question. Legitimate power refers to formal authority delegated to the individual in the form of rank, title, decree, etc. This question indicates that the requester is a high-ranking executive; i.e., he has a title and the formal authority and right to exercise power within the organization. Therefore, based on the available information, legitimate power is the best answer. Coercive power stems from the ability of the power-holder to punish others. Reward power arises from the ability to reward others. Referent power is based on personal qualities, and operates to the degree others identify with the power holder. As noted, all three of these power bases could have been at work here: the employee may have feared that the executive would fire him or otherwise punish him if he didn’t work overtime; he may have thought the executive would give him a raise or reward him some other way if he did work overtime; or he may have accepted the request out of admiration for or loyalty to the executive. However, the question does not explicitly refer to any of these scenarios. The only source of power that is obvious–due to the wording that the request comes from a “high ranking executive”–is legitimate power. The other two sources of power are expert power, which stems from a belief that the power holder has specialized knowledge or expertise, and informational power, which stems from the ability to control the availability of information.
Additional Information: Bases of Social Power
In industrial settings, administration of a trainability test would be done for the purposes of determining whether
Select one:
A. the examinee is likely to do well on the job.
B. the examinee is likely to do well on a job sample.
C. the examinee will be satisfied on the job.
D. the examinee is suited to train others.
Correct Answer is: B
A trainability test is designed to determine whether or not potential employees are suitable for training. It is not designed to be directly predictive of how well the person will do on the job itself. Instead, it would more directly indicate how well the person would do on a job sample, which is likely to be a part of the training sessions. In fact, trainability tests typically include job samples and are described as a type of job sample.
Additional Information: Work Samples (Selection Procedures)
In order to best reduce leniency bias you would use: Select one: A. peer ratings B. BARS C. BIB D. forced-choice
Correct Answer is: D
Leniency bias is the tendency of a rater to give all ratees positive ratings. Although the Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scale (BARS) may improve rating accuracy over a standard Likert Scale, it is not as effective at reducing biases as a forced-choice method. A forced-choice method consists of pairs of statements about job performance that both appear equally favorable or unfavorable, but the statements in each pair actually differentiate between good and poor performing individuals.
Additional Information: Personnel Comparison Systems (Selection Procedures)
One reason to give job applicants a realistic job description at the time they apply for a job is to: Select one: A. reduce turnover. B. attract talented job applicants. C. retain current employees. D. reduce the need for selection tests.
Correct Answer is: A
A realistic job description is known among industrial/organizational psychologists as a “realistic job preview.” It involves providing job applicants with accurate information about the job and the company – both positive information and negative information. Research on realistic job previews has shown that they are beneficial for reducing turnover.
Additional Information: Work Samples (Selection Procedures)
In a meta-analysis of the relationship between self-efficacy beliefs and achievement outcomes, Stajkovic and Luthans (1998) found self-efficacy was positively and strongly related to work-related performance and:
Select one:
A. the relationship between self-efficacy and work-related performance is moderated by task complexity
B. the relationship between self-efficacy and work-related performance is moderated by locus of performance
C. the relationship between self-efficacy and work-related performance is moderated by task complexity and locus of performance
D. the relationship between self-efficacy and work-related performance is not influenced by task complexity or locus of performance
Correct Answer is: C
The results of Stajkovic and Luthans’ meta-analysis found self-efficacy positively related to work-related performance and that the relationship is moderated by task complexity and situational factors present in work environments. The two moderators appear to weaken the relationship between self-efficacy and work-related performance, with the relationship weakest for the higher levels of task complexity and field settings. Situational factors and organizational practices identified as influences on the relationship between self-efficacy and performance include: accuracy of task descriptions, definitions and circumstances of the tasks; instruction on necessary technical means and how to use them for successful task performance; physical distractions in the work environment; training programs that enhance employees self-efficacy beliefs of what they can do with the skills they already possess; developing effective behavioral and cognitive coping strategies, becoming more task-diagnostic, conceptualizing ability as an incremental skill; timing of program implementation; clarity and objectivity of performance standards; and personal consequences contingent on performance. (See: Stajkovic, A. D., & Luthans, F. (1998). Self-efficacy and work-related performances: A meta-analysis. Psychological Bulletin, 124, 240-261.)
Holland’s approach to vocational guidance is based on the assumption that:
Select one:
A. interests motivate occupational choice
B. behavior is a function of personality-environment congruence
C. job satisfaction and performance are related to a match between aptitude and job requirements
D. interests change in a predictable way over the course of the lifespan
Correct Answer is: B
Holland’s six occupational themes represent both personality and environment types. According to Holland, job satisfaction, productivity, and other behaviors are affected by the congruence or fit between a person’s personality and the nature of the work environment.
Additional Information: Holland’s Personality and Environment Typology
The three dimensions of situational control identified by Fiedler include all of the following except: Select one: A. leader-employee relations B. position or legitimate power C. role expectations D. task structure
Correct Answer is: C
Fiedler’s Contingency Model states leaders have a dominant leadership style that is resistant to change and distinguishes between two types of leaders - high LPC leaders (person-oriented, more focused on maintaining good interpersonal relationships) and low LPC leaders (task-oriented, more focused on successful task performance). Changes in the structure of the situation can improve the chances of success as the leader’s success is contingent on the situation, task to be completed, leader’s style or personality, and the maturity of the group. Fielder proposes task-oriented (low-LPC) leaders are most effective when the leader has either low or high situational control and person-oriented (high-LPC leaders) are most effective when situational control is moderate. According to Fielder, situational control is determined by: leader-member relations, task-structure, and leader position power.
Additional Information: Fiedler’s Contingency (LPC) Theory
If you administer a measure of global job satisfaction to employees at the Acme Corporation, you would expect to find the highest levels of satisfaction among workers aged: Select one: A. 20 to 25. B. 30 to 35. C. 40 to 45. D. 50 to 55.
Correct Answer is: D
The relationship between age and satisfaction actually depends on what aspect of satisfaction you’re measuring. However, the question refers to global satisfaction, and the research has found that higher levels of global job satisfaction are associated with older age and vice versa.
Additional Information: Job Satisfaction
An important decision when utilizing the multiple hurdles approach in personnel selection is:
Select one:
A. how to weigh each predictor.
B. which order to administer the predictors.
C. if the same person should administer the criterion and evaluate predictor performance.
D. which statistical test to use to assess if the results are significant.
Correct Answer is: B
Multiple hurdles approach requires applicants to score above a specific level or pass several measures one at a time. The usefulness of the multiple hurdles technique is maximized by administering the predictors in a logical order (e.g., from least to most difficult or least to most expensive).
Additional Information: Combining Predictors
According to Herbert Simon’s administrative model, decision-makers in organizational settings typically chose the:
Select one:
A. least expensive choice
B. most “satisficing” choice
C. best choice after weighing all the alternatives
D. worst choice after weighing all the alternatives
Correct Answer is: B
Herbert Simon earned a Nobel Prize in economics, but was also known for his theories in psychology, computer science (artificial intelligence), and administration. The one thread through all of his work was his interest in decision-making and problem solving. His “administrative” model maintains that decision-makers cannot always afford to be rational, instead, they must choose the first solution that is minimally acceptable or “satisficing.” This is in contrast to another decision making theory, the “rational-economic model” in which decision-makers attempt to find the optimal solution to a problem.
Additional Information: Individual Decision-Making
Of the following, the best predictor of job success would likely be a Select one: A. general cognitive ability test. B. personality test. C. structured interview. D. vocational interest inventory.
Correct Answer is: A
Research on the validity of selection measures generally finds the cognitive ability tests and biodata are 1-2 in terms of predictive validity. Although validity coefficients will vary from study to study, the most widely accepted conclusion is that general ability tests are the best overall predictors.
Additional Information: General Mental Ability (Selection Procedures)
An organization decides to implement changes based on a job characteristics assessment. Which of the following is least likely to be affected? Select one: A. work quality B. motivation C. satisfaction D. absenteeism
Correct Answer is: A
Studies show when jobs are redesigned according to the job characteristics model there are improvements in satisfaction, absenteeism, turnover, and motivation. Work quality is less likely to be affected.
Additional Information: The Job Characteristics Model
Justification for the use of a selection procedure or battery in a new setting without conducting a local validation research study is referred to as: Select one: A. synthetic validity. B. validity generalization. C. transportability. D. meta-analysis.
Correct Answer is: B
Validity generalization, or generalized evidence of validity, is evidence of validity that generalizes to setting(s) other than the setting(s) in which the original validation evidence was documented and is accumulated through strategies such as synthetic validity/job component validity, transportability and meta-analysis* (* incorrect choices). Synthetic validity/job component validity is based on previous demonstration of the validity of inferences from scores on the selection procedure or battery with respect to one or more domains of work (job components). Transportability refers to a strategy for generalizing evidence of validity in which demonstration of important similarities between different work settings is used to infer that validation evidence for a selection procedure accumulated in one work setting generalizes to another work setting.
According to Donald Super, job choice, job satisfaction, and life satisfaction are predicated on: Select one: A. the self-concept. B. personality traits. C. early childhood experience. D. biological factors.
Correct Answer is: A
Donald Super developed a comprehensive theory of vocational development. According to the theory, individuals choose occupations that are consistent with their self-concept, which develops in a predictable sequence of stages. Job satisfaction and life satisfaction are both a function of the degree to which one’s activities are consistent with the self-concept.
Additional Information: Super’s Career and Life Development Theory
Common biases that reduce rater accuracy when assessing job performance include: Select one: A. the leniency and strictness biases. B. the constant and contrast biases. C. the Rosenthal and Hawthorne biases. D. the reactivity and expectancy biases.
Correct Answer is: A
Rater biases include the strictness, leniency, central tendency, and halo biases. The other phenomenon listed in the responses are problems in other areas than performance ratings.
Additional Information: Rater Biases
Research has generally found that job enrichment:
Select one:
A. increases job performance and, to a lesser degree, job satisfaction particularly among blue collar workers
B. increases job satisfaction and decreases absenteeism, particularly among younger, well-educated employees
C. increases job satisfaction but has no effect on job performance
D. has no significant effects on job satisfaction or performance
Correct Answer is: B
Job enrichment involves redesigning a job in order to enable workers to have more challenge, responsibility, decision-making authority, and opportunities for advancement. Although the research findings are mixed, they generally have found that job enrichment leads to increased job satisfaction, decreased absenteeism and turnover, and in some cases, increased job performance in terms of quality rather than quantity. The benefits of job enrichment are greatest among younger, well-educated, employees who have a high need for achievement.
Additional Information: Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory
A high LPC leader
Select one:
A. Treats his least favorite worker well
B. Treats his least favorite worker poorly
C. Treats his favorite worker like his least favorite worker
D. Has an ambivalent style toward his workers .
Correct Answer is: A
Fiedler’s Contingency Theory proposed that in terms of a leader’s style and the favorableness of a situation, the latter was determined by the degree to which the leader could control and influence their subordinate. Fiedler described a leader’s style by his or her scores on his Least Preferred Coworker Scale. A high LPC leader describes their least preferred coworker in positive terms and these leaders are primarily relationship oriented. Note that the question talks about how a leader “treats” their worker rather than how they “describe” the worker. While these are not exactly the same concepts, the EPPP will take these type of liberties so this is an example of choosing an answer that is in the “ballpark”.
Additional Information: Fiedler’s Contingency (LPC) Theory
All of the following are examples of a rater bias except: Select one: A. central tendency bias B. ceiling effect C. contrast effect D. severity error
Correct Answer is: B
Rater biases impacts the accuracy of subjective rating scales. When a rater rates all individuals using the middle of a rating scale, he/she is exhibiting the central tendency bias. When ratings of one individual are affected by ratings given to another then the rater is exhibiting a contrast effect. Severity error, also known as strictness error or bias, refers to the rater tendency to rate all individuals using the low end of the rating scale ( incorrect choices).
A ceiling effect is not a rater bias, it refers to the measurement instrument’s inability to distinguish between individuals who have high levels of what is being assessed by the instrument.
Additional Information: Rater Biases
Members of a cohesive group, as compared to members of a non-cohesive group, are more likely to have: Select one: A. lower absenteeism B. lower productivity C. better decision-making D. higher turnover
Correct Answer is: A
Group cohesiveness has been associated with less absenteeism and turnover and, in some situations, greater productivity. You should have been able to eliminate this option (better decision-making) if you recalled the research on groupthink, which is characterized, in part, by high group cohesiveness, and is associated with poorer quality decisions.
In the auto service department at a car dealership, managers talk to customers, diagnose problems with the cars, and assign repair tasks to mechanics. A new manager takes over so that mechanics interact directly with customers and decide on their own what work needs to be done. The new manager is using which of the following motivational techniques? Select one: A. job enrichment. B. job enlargement. C. quality circle. D. assessment center
Correct Answer is: A
Job enrichment is a motivational technique that involves giving employees increased responsibility, decision-making authority, and autonomy. Job enrichment is designed to reduce boredom, and increase workers’ feelings of meaningfulness, responsibility, and competence. It is based on Herzberg’s two-factor theory of motivation, which classifies factors that affect job satisfaction into two categories: motivators, which increase satisfaction, and hygiene factors, which prevent dissatisfaction. Motivators are related to intrinsic conditions of the job itself, such as the autonomy and the opportunity for personal growth. In the question, the manager is increasing the responsibility and autonomy of the mechanics, so job enrichment is the best answer.
Additional Information: Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory
According to social learning theory, job training would be most effective when using:
Select one:
A. behavioral modeling
B. vestibule training
C. reinforcement on a variable interval schedule
D. reinforcers tailored to each employee’s needs
Correct Answer is: A
According to Bandura’s social learning theory (or theory of observational learning), it is possible to learn a given behavior merely by watching a model perform it. Behavioral practice and reinforcement, though they influence the probability that a behavior will be learned, are not absolutely necessary for the behavior to be imitated.
vestibule training
Vestibule training involves a simulation of work conditions, although it does not necessarily involve modeling.
reinforcement on a variable interval schedule
reinforcers tailored to each employee’s needs
These two choices, which involve reinforcement procedures, can be eliminated.
Additional Information: Social Learning Theory
In contrast to traditional organizational culture, a quality-oriented culture emphasizes all of the following except:
Select one:
A. using cross-training so that each worker can perform a variety of tasks.
B. viewing workers as requiring continuous learning and development.
C. basing rewards on long-term (versus short-term) achievement.
D. rewarding employees for individual (versus group) achievement.
Correct Answer is: D
This is the opposite of what is true about organizations that focus on quality where the policy is to emphasize rewarding group performance and organization-level achievement rather than individual achievement (which is characteristic of the traditional approach). The other characteristics listed in the responses are relatively new approaches and are characteristic of “total quality” organizations.
Additional Information: Total Quality Management
According to the Ohio State University studies from the 1950s, what are the two dimensions of leadership?
Select one:
A. consideration and initiating structure
B. employee-centered and production-centered
C. autocratic and democratic
D. authoritarian and laissez-faire
Correct Answer is: A
Using a style approach, the Ohio State leadership studies identified two behavioral dimensions of leaders: initiating structure and consideration. These dimensions were treated as independent of each other in contrast to previous studies of leader behavior which placed related dimensions along a single continuum of leadership ranging from employee to production-centered (“employee-centered and production-centered”). In different models of leadership, the dimension of initiating structure is sometimes referred to as task-orientation and concern for production. The dimension of consideration has also been labeled employee orientation, relations-oriented and concern for people. (See: Stogdill, R. M., and Coons, A. E. (Eds.). (1957). Leader behavior: Its description and measurement. Columbus, OH: Bureau of Business Research, Ohio State University.)
Additional Information: Consideration and Initiating Structure
Lewin’s classic study on leadership styles produced which of the following findings?
Select one:
A. Democratic groups produce a higher quantity of work than either autocratic or laissez-faire groups.
B. In autocratic groups, the leader’s absence does not affect the quality or quantity of work.
C. The success of all three leadership styles studied–democratic, autocratic, and laissez-faire–depended on the personality of group members.
D. Laissez-faire was the least successful leadership style in terms of both quantity and quality of work output.
Correct Answer is: D
In 1951, Kurt Lewin and his colleagues conducted a study assessing the effectiveness of three different leadership styles: authoritarian, where the leader remains aloof and uses orders to direct the group’s behavior; democratic, where the leader actively encourages group members and participates in their activities; and laissez-faire, where the leader provides knowledge but does not direct or participate in activities. The subjects were 10-year-old boys participating in an arts and crafts club. A key finding was that the laissez-faire style was the least successful, resulting in significantly lower quality and quantity of work as compared to the other two styles. Other findings were that groups with democratic leaders produced the highest quality of work and its members were the most satisfied, and that autocratically led groups produced the highest quantity of work. Some children did prefer the autocratic style, so choice 3 would have been a better answer if laissez-faire was not included–laissez-faire style is not successful regardless of the personality of the group members.
Additional Information: Autocratic, Democratic, vs. Laissez-Faire Leaders
The notion of social comparison is central to which of the following theories? Select one: A. expectancy theory B. equity theory C. path-goal theory D. ERG theory
Correct Answer is: B
Of the theories listed in the responses, only one – equity theory – predicts that worker motivation is related to the comparisons we make between our own situation and that of others.
Additional Information: Equity Theory
Job evaluation methods have been criticized for containing biases against work typically performed by women. This criticism most directly pertains to the standard of Select one: A. employment equity. B. procedural justice. C. comparable worth. D. job fairness.
Correct Answer is: C
The term “job evaluation” refers to procedures used within a workplace to establish the relative worth of particular jobs and tasks within the organization. If a job evaluation were biased against work typically performed by women, this would mean that the value of such work to the organization would be unfairly set too low. The term “comparable worth” refers to the standard that wages for jobs with different titles and/or duties should be based on their actual worth to the organization rather then the gender makeup of the workers in those jobs. In other words, a gender biased job evaluation would contradict the standard of comparable worth.
Regarding the other choices, employment equity refers to multidimensional efforts to promote fair representation of minority groups in the workplace–not only through hiring practices but also through retention, promotion, and training efforts. Procedural justice refers to perceptions of fairness in the processes that resolve disputes and allocate resources. It is not as good an answer as comparable worth because it usually refers to perceptions rather than actual practice and because comparable worth refers specifically to the undervaluation of tasks that women typically perform. A bias in a job evaluation method relates more to distributive justice, or fairness in outcomes, because a job evaluation is typically used to establish salary. And “job fairness” is a broad term that generally means that distribution of workplace rewards, such as salaries and selection for jobs, is based on merit rather than some form of bias.
Additional Information: Gender Issues in Organizations
Central to an understanding of work-family conflict are the notions of:
Select one:
A. involvement and boundary permeability.
B. individuation and responsibility.
C. instrumentality and rewards.
D. costs and benefits.
Correct Answer is: A
As its name implies, work-family conflict occurs when role expectations and demands at work and at home are incompatible. Work-family conflict is affected by several factors including the extent of involvement in work and family roles and the degree to which boundaries between work and family roles are permeable.
Additional Information: Work-Family Conflict
The most common type of work-family conflict is: Select one: A. time-based B. strain-based C. behaviorally-based D. systemically-based
Correct Answer is: A
Research suggests that high levels of work-family conflict are related to negative outcomes for the individual (life dissatisfaction, anxiety, poor health), for relationships (increased interpersonal conflict, divorce), and for the organization (absenteeism, tardiness, loss of talented employees). Work-family conflict can be time-based, strain-based, or behavior-based. Time-based conflict, which occurs when role pressures stemming from the two different domains compete for the individual’s time, is the most common type of work-family conflict. It is based on the scarcity hypothesis, that the sum of a person’s energy is fixed; therefore multiple roles inevitably reduces the time and energy available to meet all role demands, resulting in strain and work-family conflict. Much of the research on work-family conflict has been based on this premise proposed by role theory and role scarcity.
Work-family conflict is bi-directional; work can interfere with family and family can interfere with work. These are referred to as work-to-family conflict and family-to-work conflict. Recent research, based on the enhancement theory, suggests quality multiple roles provide additional sources of social support, increased skills, and heightened self-esteem and well being. Evidence of positive spillover, both from work to home and from home to work, continues to be found.
Strain-based conflict occurs when the strain experienced in one role domain interferes with effective performance of role behaviors in the other domain. Behavior-based conflict is described as conflict stemming from incompatible behaviors demanded by competing roles. Recent research, using a systems perspective, demonstrates that one member of a dyad can impact the other’s experience of work-family conflict. The effects of this work and family stress and strain are referred to as “crossover effects.” (See: Barnett, R. C. and Hyde, J. S. (2001) Women, men, work, and family: An expansionist theory. American Psychologist, 56(10), 781-796.)
Workers are likely to find which of the following work schedules to be the least stressful? Select one: A. fixed shift B. flextime C. compressed work week D. swing shift
Correct Answer is: B
Flextime allows the employees to make their own schedule, as long as they work the required number of hours and as long as they are present for the pre-defined “core” hours” (e.g., 10 a.m. to 2 p.m.). As you might expect, research shows that flextime is associated with increased job satisfaction, better attitudes toward the job and the work environment, and less worker stress.
Additional Information: Flextime
A highly differentiated profile on the Self-Directed Search inventory signifies:
Select one:
A. all six section scores on the instrument are high.
B. half of the section scores on the instrument are high and the other half low.
C. two of the section scores on the instrument are high and are opposites on the personality hexagon.
D. only one of the section scores on the instrument is high.
Correct Answer is: D
According to Holland (1997), differentiation is defined as the level of definition or distinctness of a profile and can be thought of as the difference between an individual’s highest and lowest summary scale score on the SDS. A highly differentiated profile would only have a high point code on one of the six types. Profile elevation is the sum of the six section scores on the instrument, so (“all six section scores on the instrument are high”) would be an example of high profile elevation.
Additional Information: Holland’s Personality and Environment Typology
Employees are provided with a training program designed to improve the quality of their work. At the conclusion of the training program a supervisor administers a test to the employees. Three months later the same supervisor evaluates the employees on their job performance and correlates the two scores. The correlation between the scores is 0.70. The results are most likely biased due to: Select one: A. a contrast effect B. a restricted range of scores C. criterion contamination D. demand characteristics
Correct Answer is: C
Criterion contamination occurs when a rater knows how a ratee did on a predictor test, and this knowledge affects the rating. For example, if an employee obtained a very high score on the post-training test and the supervisor knows this, the supervisor’s ratings of the employee’s on-the-job performance might be biased upward. To prevent criterion contamination, the rater should have no knowledge of the ratees’ predictor scores.
Contrast effect* refers to the tendency to give ratings on the basis of comparisons to other ratees. There is no indication that there is a restricted range of scores, and if there was, that would reduce the correlation between the predictor and criterion scores. Demand characteristics are cues in the environment that inform research participants what behaviors are expected of them (* incorrect options).
Additional Information: Criterion Contamination
Holland's investigative type is least similar to which other one of his types? Select one: A. artistic B. conventional C. enterprising D. social
Correct Answer is: C
Holland’s theory categorizes individuals based on their resemblance to six personality types: realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and conventional (you can remember the sequence as “RIASEC” ). The personality types reflect a person’s primary interest, or an environment’s primary characteristic; for example, the investigative type enjoys working alone and solving complex problems; likes dealing with ideas more than people or things and has math or scientific abilities. There is overlap between the types, with some overlapping more than others. For example, the investigative type is more similar to the realistic and artistic, and less similar to the enterprising, conventional and social* types (* incorrect choices).
Additional Information: Holland’s Personality and Environment Typology
Research indicates the validity of structured interviews as predictors of performance:
Select one:
A. are the most valid across different jobs.
B. is increased when the interview includes both structured and unstructured items.
C. are no more valid than unstructured interviews when used alone.
D. is increased when the interview is used in combination with a measure of general mental ability
Correct Answer is: D
Summarizing the predictive validity of interviews and other selection techniques in a meta-analysis of the research, Schmidt and Hunter (1998) report measures of general mental ability are the most valid predictors across different jobs. For structured and unstructured interviews, they note corrected validity coefficients of .51 and .38, respectively. When an interview is combined with another selection procedure, especially a general mental ability test, the predictive validity of interviews is increased (See: Schmidt & Hunter. (1998). The validity and utility of selection measures in personnel psychology: Practical and theoretical implications of 85 years of research findings, Psychological Bulletin, 124(2), 262-274).
Additional Information: Interviews (Selection Procedures)
If you wanted to encourage students to learn new vocabulary words in a foreign language, the most effective approach would be to:
Select one:
A. tell them to take it easy and not worry about it
B. tell them to learn as many words as they can
C. tell them to take their time and plan to learn 5 words a day
D. put pressure on them and tell them to learn 20 words a day
Correct Answer is: C
Although this question appears to be about learning and memory, the answer is probably best addressed in I/O’s Goal Setting Theory. According to goal-setting theory, goals are best attained when the goals are specific and moderately difficult. and
tell them to take it easy and not worry about it
tell them to learn as many words as they can
These two choices are too vague.
put pressure on them and tell them to learn 20 words a day
This is excessively difficult.
Additional Information: Goal-Setting Theory
A manager assumes that his employees need constant supervision and detailed guidelines in order to perform their jobs well. What management style does this reflect? Select one: A. Theory Y B. Theory X C. laissez-faire D. management by objectives
Correct Answer is: B
McGregor’s (1960) Theory X and Theory Y management theories reflect the key differences between the scientific management and human relations administrative models. Managers adopting a scientific management model assume that workers are motivated primarily by financial self-interest (i.e., pay is the most effective motivator); that job demands must match workers’ skills; and that workers need detailed guidelines and constant supervision because they are incapable of regulating themselves or assuming responsibility on their own. Theory X is similar to scientific management: Theory X managers believe that workers dislike work and avoid it whenever possible; therefore, workers must be directed and controlled.
Personal reality and common reality were defined by:
Select one:
A. Ginzberg’s Stages of Career Development
B. Super’s Career and Life Development
C. Miller-Tiedeman and Tiedeman’s Decision Making Model
D. Gottfredson’s Theory of Career Development
Correct Answer is: C
Miller-Tiedeman and Tiedeman defined personal authoritative reality as what feels right to the individual and common reality as what the individual is told they should do. This was an expansion on Tiedeman and O’Hare’s Decision Making Model. The other responses also represent stage theories of career choice.
Ginzberg’s theory contains three periods (fantasy, tentative, and realistic) with sub-stages corresponding to ages preteen through the early 20’s. (See: Ginzberg, E., Ginzberg, S.W., Axelrad, S., & Herman, J.L. (1951). Occupational Choice: an approach to a general theory. New York: Columbia University Press; Ginzberg, E. (1972). Toward a theory of occupational choice: A restatement. Vocational Guidance Quarterly, 20, 169-176.) Super’s stages continue across the life-span. In Gottfredson’s theory, there are four stages of cognitive development: orientation to size and power; orientation to sex roles; influence of social class; introspection and perceptiveness. The first stage typically begins around age 3 and the last in mid-adolescence. The theory addresses how gender and prestige influence and limit career choice. (See: Gottfredson, L.S. (1981). Circumscription and compromise: A developmental theory of occupational aspirations. Journal of Counseling Psychology, 28, 545-579.)
Additional Information: Miller-Tiedeman and Tiedeman’s Decision Making Model
In conducting a program evaluation, your first step would be to:
Select one:
A. conduct a needs analysis.
B. conduct a job analysis.
C. define the objectives of the program.
D. construct or identify measurement instruments
Correct Answer is: C
Bloom (1972) noted that program evaluation (also known as evaluation research) entails the following four sequential steps: 1) specifying the program’s objectives and goals; 2) defining the relevant parameters (e.g., the target population, the criteria used to define the target behavior, the criteria used to determine whether the program’s goals have been met); 3) specifying the techniques and procedures used to achieve the program’s goals; and 4) collecting the relevant data. If you didn’t know this, you probably could have deduced that it would be hard to evaluate a program unless you first knew what its goals were.
To determine whether or not the doctrine of comparable worth is lived up to in an organization, one would rely on Select one: A. the perceptions of employees. B. a job description. C. a job evaluation. D. a task analysis
Correct Answer is: C
The doctrine of comparable worth states that workers (in particular, men and women) should get equal pay for performing jobs that have equivalent worth. A job evaluation is a method of determining the worth or value of jobs in an organization. Thus, it is the best answer to this question, because it would be a way of comparing the value of different jobs. Note that many critics believe that current methods of job evaluation contain inherent gender biases. Statistics clearly show that women earn less than men, and some believe that one reason for this is that job evaluation methods undervalue the work that women perform.
Additional Information: Gender Issues in Organizations
"Business necessity" and "job relatedness" are related to: Select one: A. personnel training B. adverse impact C. comparable worth D. truth in testing
Correct Answer is: B
According to the Americans with Disabilities Act and the Federal Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures, business necessity and job relatedness are conditions that may permit the use of a selection or other employment procedure that results in an adverse impact. If an employer can demonstrate that it is job related and a business necessity, despite having adverse impact, the employer may be able to continue using the procedure.
Additional Information: Adverse Impact
Which of the following theorists related career development to ego identity development? Select one: A. Anna Freud B. Super C. Holland D. Tiedeman and O'Hara
Correct Answer is: D
Tiedeman and O’Hara based their career development model on Erikson’s psychosocial theory of ego identity development. They proposed that a person develops a vocational identity through a process of many differentiations and reintegrations throughout one’s lifespan. Differentiation comes from the realization that a particular career does not “fit” with one’s personality. Integration involves identification with a career.
Additional Information: Tiedeman and O’Hare’s Decision Making Model
A “needs assessment” is used to:
Select one:
A. identify the worth of a job so that an equitable wage can be determined.
B. determine if and what kind of training is needed in an organization.
C. describe the requirements of a job.
D. identify which type of job would be most satisfying for an individual.
Correct Answer is: B
A “needs assessment” or “needs analysis” is the first step in developing a training program. Not surprisingly, this involves identifying the needs of the organization.
Additional Information: Needs Analysis
Within the context of Theory of Work Adjustment (TWA), job tenure is related to an employee's: Select one: A. organizational commitment. B. satisfaction and satisfactoriness. C. career concept. D. motivation and ability.
Correct Answer is: B
Dawis and Lofquist’s (1964) model of career development, Theory of Work Adjustment (TWA), centers on the connection between a worker and his/her job and work environment. A key element of the theory is that an individual is best suited for positions that have matching demands and rewards to his/her individual characteristics. According to the TWA, satisfaction and satisfactoriness are factors related to job tenure. Satisfaction, in this theory, refers to a worker’s satisfaction with the job. This is established by the degree to which the worker’s needs are satisfied by the provided rewards of the job. Satisfactoriness, on the other hand, refers to the organization or employer’s satisfaction with the worker. For example, how well the worker’s skills fulfill the requirements of the job and is able to perform the job.
Additional Information: Theory of Work Adjustment
The predictor cut-off score of a selection test is lowered. How will this impact successful hiring?
Select one:
A. increase the probability of false negatives
B. decrease the probability of false positives
C. decrease the probability of true positives
D. increase the probability of true positives
Correct Answer is: C
The term “positive” refers to individuals selected or hired and “negative” to those who are not. “True” refers to a correct decision and “false” refers to an incorrect decision. When a predictor cutoff is lowered, more people are selected overall, or there are more positives. Since the predictor criterion is lower there are more true and false positives. Therefore, the probability that those hired will be successful (true positives) decreases and the probability of unsuccessful hiring (false positives) increases.
Additional Information: Decision-Making
Job commitment has the highest correlation with Select one: A. job satisfaction. B. absenteeism and turnover. C. productivity. D. quality of work.
Correct Answer is: B
The research on job commitment, or the degree to which a person identifies with an organization and is willing to work to help the organization reach its goals, suggests that it has a moderate to strong negative correlation with absenteeism and turnover. In this respect, it is similar to job satisfaction, which also is more highly correlated with absenteeism and turnover than with other variables (such as productivity) typically studied in the organizational psychology literature.
Additional Information: Organizational Commitment
Most studies of correlates of industrial accidents indicate that the strongest association is with Select one: A. machine malfunction. B. organizational ambiance. C. supervisory attitude. D. human error.
Correct Answer is: D
As you can imagine, what people do (or don’t do) is the leading cause of industrial accidents. Not paying attention, daydreaming, not fixing the machine correctly, not training properly, etc., all can lead to accidents. It follows that to correct this problem one would want people trained better and one would want an environment in which attention is paid to possible accident-causing conditions.
Additional Information: Safety and Accidents
