Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

OB Final Exam > Practice Questions - Cumulative > Flashcards

Practice Questions - Cumulative Flashcards

1
Q

A nurse is assessing the lochia discharge on a 1 day postpartum woman. The nurse notes that the lochia is red & has a fleshy odor. The nurse determines that this assessment finding indicates what?

a.) A normal finding.
b.) The presence of infection.
c.) The need for increasing oral fluids.
d.) The need for increasing ambulation.

Exam 1

A

a.) A normal finding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A postpartum patient asks the nurse about the occurence of afterpains. The nurse informs the mother that afterpains will be especially noticeable…

a.) When ambulating
b.) While taking a sitz bath
c.) During breastfeeding
d.) Once the patient arrives home & activities are increased

Exam 1

A

c.) While breastfeeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What might the presence of free-flowing, bright red blood indicate?

KNOW THIS!!!!!

Exam 1

A

Cervical laceration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A vagina should return to its normal, pre-pregnancy size within how many weeks of delivery?

A

6 - 8 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Pregnancy is considered to be what type of state?

Exam 1

A

Hypercoaguable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a common postpartum complication that can be caused by hormonal shifts as well as pathological etiology such as spinal anesthesia or postpartum onset of preeclampsia?

KNOW THIS!!!!!

Exam 1

A

Headache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the most common cause of excessive postpartum bleeding?

KNOW THIS!!!!!

Exam 1

A

Uterine Atony

  • failure of the uterine muscle to contract
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How long does it take for the ductus arteriosus to close?

Exam 1 (Fetal A&P)

A

first 24 hours of life
* takes 2 - 3 months otherwise fully close

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Do veins or arteries carry oxygen to the baby?

KNOW THIS!!!!

Exam 1 (Fetal A&P)

A

VEINS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How many veins & arteries are in fetal circulation?

KNOW THIS!!!

Exam 1 (Fetal A&P)

A

2 Arteries & 1 Vein (AVA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the most important physiologic change in a newborn?

KNOW THIS!!!!

Exam 1

A

Initiation of breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What induces mild hypercapnia, hypoxia, & acidosis [normal is 7.30 - 7.40] that stimulates the respiratory center?

Exam 1

A

Labor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

If the baby isn’t breathing, what measures should be taken?

KNOW THIS!!!!

Exam 1

A

Positive Pressure Ventilation

  • NOT CPR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What maternal hormone does NOT pass the placenta?

Exam 1 (Fetal A&P)

A

Insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

At what point after birth will a newborn’s blood sugar drop to the lowest level?

KNOW THIS!!!!

Exam 1 (Fetal A&P)

A

2 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Infection risk increases in a mom who has been ruptured for over how many hours?

KNOW THIS!!!!

Exam 1

A

18+ hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When does the anterior fontanelle close?

KNOW THIS!!!!

Exam 1 (Fetal A&P)

A

12 - 18 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When does the posterior fontanelle close?

KNOW THIS!!!!

Exam 1 (Fetal A&P)

A

2 - 3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A new father wants to know what medication was put into his infant’s eyes & why it is needed. How does the nurse explain the purpose of erythromycin ointment?

a.) Erythromycin opthalmic ointment destroys an infectious exudate caused by Staphylococcus that could make the infant blind.

b.) This opthalmic ointment prevents gonorrheal & chlamydial infetion of the infant’s eyes, potentially acquired from the birth canal.

c.) The ointment prevents the infant’s eyes from sticking together & helps the infant see.

d.) Erythromycin prevents potentially harmful exudate from invading the tear ducts of the infant’s eyes, leading to dry eye.

Med Math Quiz

A

b.) This ointment prevents gonorrheal & chlamydial infection of the infant’s eyes, potentially acquired from the birth canal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A nursing student is describing how to apply erythromycin ointment to a newborn’s eyes. Which answer indicates a need for additional teaching?

a.) “I will wipe the eyes after instilling the ointment.”

b.) “Administration of the eye ointment may be delayed for an hour or so after birth so that eye contact & parent-infant attachment & bonding can occur.”

c.) “I will instill 1-2 cm of eye ointment into each of the neonate’s conjunctival sacs.”

d.) None of the above

Med Math Quiz

A

a.) “I will wipe the eyes after instilling the ointment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A nursing student tasks about IM injections in newborns because her only practice experiences have been with adults. What is the correct injection site for an IM injection for a newborn?

a.) Vastus lateralis muscle

b.) None of the above

c.) Gluteal muscle

d.) Vastus deltoid muscle

Med Math Quiz

A

a.) Vastus Lateralis Muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Pain should be regularly assessed in all newborns. Your newborn patient is to have a circumcision. Which intervention is an example of non-pharmacologic pain management in the newborn?

a.) Acetaminophen

b.) Feeding the newborn

c.) Give Sucrose during the procedure

d.) Loosening the newborn’s clothing

Med Math Quiz

A

c.) Give sucrose during the procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which statement regarding the practice of giving newborns Vitamin K immediately after birth is most accurate?

a.) Newborns’ GI systems are sterile, resulting in a lack of vitamin K production.

b.) Hemolysis of the fetal red blood cells increases coagulation problems.

c.) Newborns are susceptible to avitaminosis.

d.) Newborns have mature livers that produce clotting factors.

Med Math Quiz

A

a.) Newborns’ GI systems are sterile, resulting in a lack of vitamin K production.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The primary care provider ahs ordered Vitamin K 0.5 mg IM for a newborn. The medication is available as 2 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer to the baby? (Calculate to the nearest hundreth)

a.) 4.00

b.) 2.50

c.) 0.52

d.) 0.25

Med Math Quiz

A

d.) 0.25 mL

0.5 mg / 2 mg = 0.25 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

A client is to receive morphine 4 mg Q3-4 hours subcutaneously for pain. The morphine is available on the unit in premeasured syringes of 10 mg/mL. When the nurse administers the medication, how many mL of morphine will be wasted? (Calculate to the nearest tenth).

a.) 0.4

b.) 6.0

c.) 4.0

d.) 0.6

Med Math Quiz

A

d.) 0.6 mL

  • 4 / 10 **= ** 0.4 mL administered
  • 1.0 - 0.4 = 0.6 mL wasted
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

A neonatologist prescribes gentamicin for a 2 day old septic preterm infant who weighs 1,653 grams & is 38 cm long. The drug reference states: Neonatal dosage of gentamicin for babies less than 1 week of age is 2.5 mg/kg Q12-24 hours. Calculate the safe daily dosage of this medication. (Calculate to the nearest hundreth).

a.) 4.13

b.) 413.25

c.) 41.3

d.) 0.41

Med Math Quiz

A

a.) 4.13

  • 1,653 g / 1,000 = 1.653 kg
  • 2.5 x 1.653 = 4.13
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Cloxacillin 500 mg by mouth 4 times a day for 10 days has been ordered for a patient with a breast abscess. The patient states that she is unable to swallow pills. The oral solution is available as 125 mg / 5 mL. How many mL of medicine should the woman take per dose? (Calculate to the nearest whole).

a.) 4

b.) 2.0

c.) 20

d.) 40

Med Math Quiz

A

c.) 20

  • 125 / 5 = 25
  • 500 / 25 mg = 20 mL
28
Q

A client who has been diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis has been ordered to receive 12 units heparin/min. The nure receives a 500 mL bag of D5W with 20,000 units of heparin added from the pharmacy. At what rate in mL/hr should the nruse set the infusion pump? (Calculate to the nearest whole).

a.) 1.8

b.) 0.3

c.) 18

d.) 30

Med Math Quiz

A

c.) 18

29
Q

The primary healthcare provider caring for a pregnant client diagnosed with gonorrhea writes the following order: ceftriaxone 250 mg IM x one dose. The medication is available in 1 gram vials. The nurse adds 8 mL of normal saline to the vial. How many mL of the medication should the nurse administer? (Calcualte to the nearest whole).

a.) 2

b.) 0.25

c.) 20

d.) 2,000

Med Math Quiz

A

a.) 2

  • 1 gram = 1,000 mg
  • 1000 mg / 8 mL = 250 mg / x mL
  • 1000 x = 2,000
  • x = 2
30
Q

What is the first step a nurse should take before administering any medication?

a.) Check the patient’s vital signs.

b.) Verify the provider’s order & the medication label against the patient’s identification.

c.) Ensure the patient is fasting.

d.) Call the pharmacy to confirm the prescription.

Med Math Quiz

A

b.) Verify the provider’s order & the medication label against the patient’s identification.

31
Q

When performing medication reconciliation, which of the following actions should the nurse include?

a.) Only document changes in prescribed medications.

b.) Disregard over the counter medications.

c.) Compare the patient’s new medication orders with the list of medications they have been taking.

d.) Asume the patient’s current medications are correct without validation.

Med Math Quiz

A

c.) Compare the patient’s new medication orders with the list of medications they have been taking.

32
Q

After a vaginal delivery, it is determined that the newborn requires fluid resuscitation. The dose for normal saline is 10 mL/kg. The newborn weighs 3500 g. Calculate the intravenous dose for the newborn.

a.) 10 mL

b.) 20 mL

c.) 35 mL

d.) 50 mL

Med Math Quiz

A

c.) 35 mL

  • 3500 g = 3.5 kg
  • 10 mL x 3.5 kg = 35 mL
33
Q

How do you convert kilograms to grams?

KNOW THIS!!!!!

A

1 kg = 1,000 g

34
Q

How do you convert kilograms to pounds?

KNOW THIS!!!!!

A

1 kg =2.2 lbs

35
Q

A newborn requires medication B, which is prescribed at 0.1 mg/kg/dose. If the newborn weighs 2.8 kg, how much medication should be administered per dose?

a.) 0.18 mg

b.) 0.30 mg

c.) 0.25 mg

d.) 0.28 mg

Med Math Quiz

A

d.) 0.28 mg

  • 0.1 x 2.8 = 0.28 mg
36
Q

The prescribed dose for medication C is 5 mg/kg/day, to be administered in 3 divided doses. If the newborn weighs 4000 g, how much medication should be administered per dose?

a.) 5 mg

b.) 6.67 mg

c.) 10 mg

d.) 20 mg

Med Math Quiz

A

b.) 6.67 mg

  • 4,000 g = 4 kg
  • 5 mg x 4 kg = 20 mg

20 mg / 3 = 6.67 mg

37
Q

A woman in preterm labor is prescribed betamethasone to enhance fetal lung maturity. The prescribed dose is 12 mg IM every 24 hours for 2 doses. The available concentration of betamethasone is 6 mg/mL. How many mL are needed per dose?

a.) 1.5 mL

b.) 2 mL

c.) 1 mL

d.) 3 mL

Med Math Quiz

A

b.) 2 mL

38
Q

A woman is prescribed misoprostol (Cytotec) 600 mcg orally for postpartum hemorrhage. The available tablet strength is 200 mcg. How many tablets should she take to achieve the prescribed dose?

a.) 4

b.) 5

c.) 3

d.) 2

Med Math Quiz

A

c.) 3

39
Q

A pregnant woman with preeclampsia is prescribed magnesium sulfate for seizure prophylaxis. The loading dose is 4 g IV over 20 minutes, followed by a maintenance infusion fo 2 g per hour. How many mL of a 50% magnesium sulfate solution (which is 500 mg/mL) should be given for the loading dose?

a.) 4

b.) 6

c.) 8

d.) 10

Med Math Quiz

A

c.) 8

4 g = 4,000 mg
* 4,000 mg / 500 mg = 8

40
Q

A pregnant woman is prescribed IV cefazolin for surgical prophylaxis prior to a cesarean section. The prescribed dose is 2 grams, and the available concentration of cefazolin is 1 gram per 50 mL. How many mL of the solution should be administered to deliver the prescribed dose?

a.) 25

b.) 50

c.) 75

d.) 100

Med Math Quiz

A

d.) 100

  • 1 g / 50 mL = 2 g / x mL

50 x 2 = 100 mL

41
Q

The nurse is assessing a newborn at 5 hours ofage and finds a soft mass over the infant’s occiput. The mass crosses the suture line. The nurse documents this finding as which of the following?

a.) Subgaleal hemorrhage

b.) Caput succedaneum

c.) Cephalohematoma

d.) Hydrocephalus

Exam 1

A

b.) Caput succedaneum

42
Q

What is the difference in primary and secondary powers?

Exam 1

A

Primary = involuntary
* responsible for cervical dilation, effacement, & fetal descent

Secondary = voluntary
* maternal bearing down efforts

43
Q

Interpret the following:

3 cm / 50% / -3

Exam 1

A
  • 3 cm = 3 cm dilated
  • 50% = 50% effaced
  • -3 = -3 station
44
Q

Interpret the following:

4 cm/ 80% / +2

Exam 1

A
  • 4 cm = 4 cm dilated
  • 80% = 80% effaced
  • +2 = +2 fetal station
45
Q

With regard to fetal position during labor, nurses should be aware that:

a.) Position is ameasureo f the degree of descent of the presenting part of the fetus through the birth canal.

b.) Birth is imminent when the presenting part of the fetus is at +4 to +5, below the spine.

c.) The largest transverse diameter of the presenting part is the suboccipitobregmatic diameter.

d.) Engagement is the term used to describe the beginning of labor.

Exam 1

A

b.) Birth is imminent when the presenting part of the fetus is at +4 to +5, below the spine.

46
Q

What is the difference in an ultrasound transducer and a tocotransducer?

KNOW THIS!!!!!!

Exam 1

A

**Tocotransducer = ** measures uterine contractions and is placed over uterine fundus

*

Ultrasound Transducer = measures the fetal heart rate (FHR) and is placed over fetal back, BELOW mother’s umbilicus

47
Q

Describe the 4 types of fetal heart rate variability.

KNOW THIS!!!!!

Exam 1

A
  • Absent: none (distress, hypoxic, sleeping)
  • Minimal: ≤ 5 bpm difference from baseline
  • Moderate: 6 - 25 bpm difference from baseline
  • Marked: > 25 bpm difference from baseline

Referring to changes in amplitude range

48
Q

What is VEAL CHOP?

KNOW THIS!!!!!!!!!

A
  • Variable decelerations = Cord compression
  • Early decelerations = Head compression
  • Accelerations = OK
  • Late decelerations = Placental insufficiency
49
Q

How are abnormal fetal heart rates managed?

KNOW THIS!!!!!

A

LIONS PIT

*

  • Left side lying
  • IV fluid bolus
  • Notify physician
  • 1.) Stop Pitocin

*

STOP PITOCIN = FIRST STEP

50
Q

What is tachysystole & what is the treatment?

KNOW THIS!!!!!

Exam 2

A

5+ contractions in a 10 minute window averaged over 30 minutes

  • too many contractions

Tx = terbutaline

51
Q

What is preeclampsia?

KNOW THIS!!!!!

Exam 2

A

Development of hypertension AND proteinuria after 20 weeks gestation in a previously normotensive woman

Can also be HTN +
* thrombocytopenia
* renal insufficiency
* impaired liver funciton
* pulmonary edema
* cerebral or visual symptoms

in the absence of proteinuria

52
Q

What medication is used to prevent & treat seizure activity (eclampsia) in pregnancy? What is the antidote for this medication?

KNOW THIS!!!!!

Exam 2

A

Magnesium Sulfate

  • antidote = Calcium Gluconate
53
Q

What is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage?

KNOW THIS!!!!!

A

Uterine atony

Failure of the uterus to contract firmly to pre-pregnancy size

54
Q

What medications are used to treat postpartum hemorrhage? What are the contraindications?

KNOW THIS!!!!!

Exam 2

A

Hemabate
* contra = Asthma

Methergine
* contra = HTN

  • Cytotec
  • Oxytocin
55
Q

A woman presents to the clinic because she missed her last menstrual period (LMP) & thinks she may be pregnant. She reports fatigue, breast tenderness, urinary frequency, & N/V in the morning. The HCP will interpret these findings as which of the following changes of pregnancy?

a.) Positive
b.) Probable
c.) Presumptive
d.) Possible

A

c.) Presumptive

  • subjective
56
Q

A patient is diagnosed with gestational hypertension & is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which findings would the nurse interpret as indicating a therapeutic level fo medication?

a.) Urinary output of 20 mL per hour.
b.) Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute.
c.) Deep tendon reflexes 2+.
d.) Difficulty in arousing.

Exam 2

A

c.) Deep tendon reflexes 2+

With magnesium sulfate, DTRs of 2+ are considered normal & therefore therapeutic level of the drug

57
Q

The nurse is developing a plan of care for a woman who is pregnant with twins. The nurse includes interventions focusing on which of the following because of the woman’s increased risk?

a.) Oligohydramnios
b.) Preeclampsia
c.) Post-term labor
d.) Chorioamnionitis

Exam 2

A

b.) Preeclampsia

58
Q

A 1-day-old neonate, 32 weeks gestation, is in an overhead warmer. The nurse assesses the morning axillary temperature as 96.9 F. Which of the following could explain this assessment finding?

a.) This is a normal axillary temperature for a neonate.
b.) Axillary temperatures are not valid for preterm babies.
c.) The supply of brown adipose tissue is incomplete.
d.) Conduction heat loss is pronounced in the baby.

Exam 2

A

c.) The supply of brown adipose tissue is incomplete.

59
Q

Which vital sign deviates from the normal reading as a result of puerperal sepsis?

a.) Temperature
b.) Respirations
c.) Blood pressure
d.) Pulse

Exam 2

A

a.) Temperature

  • Fever is > 100.4 F
60
Q

A number of changes in the integumentary system occur during pregnancy. WHich change persists after birth?

a.) Epulis
b.) Chloasma
c.) Stiae gravidarum
d.) Telangiectasia

Exam 2

A

c.) Striae gravidarum

61
Q

With regard to follow-up visits & the physical examination for women receiving prenatal care, nurses should be aware that…

a.) The interview portions become more intensive as the visits become more frequent over the course of the pregnancy.

b.) Monthly visits are scheduled for 1st trimester, every 2 weeks for 2nd trimester, & weekly for 3rd trimester.

c.) During the abdominal examination, the nurse should be alert for supine hypotension.

d.) For pregnant women, a systolic BP of 130/80 is sufficient to be considered hypertensive.

Exam 2

A

c.) During the abdominal examination, the nurse should be alert for supine hypotension.

Supine hypotension: occurs when a pregnant person’s uterus compresses the inferior vena cava & aorta while they are lying on their back

62
Q

Women with hyperemesis gravidarum…

a.) Are a majority, because 80% of all women suffer from it at some time.

b.) Have vomiting severe & persistent enough to cause weight loss, dehydration, & electrolyte imbalance.

c.) Need IV fluid & nutrition for most of their pregnancy.

d.) Often inspire similar, milder symptoms if their male partners & mothers

Exam 2

A

b.) Have vomiting severe & persistent enough to cause weight loss, dehydration, & electrolyte imbalance.

63
Q

What are the 3 most common medications used to control HTN during pregnancy? (NOT for preeclampsia)?

KNOW THIS!!!!!

Exam 2

A
  • Labetalol
  • Hydralazine (IV only)
  • Nifedipine (procardia)
64
Q

What are the 3 Tocolytic drugs & what are they used for?

KNOW THIS!!!!!

Exam 2

A

Tocolytic = inhibit contractions

Not My Time

  • Nifedipine
  • Magnesium sulfate
  • Terbutaline
65
Q

What medications are used for postpartum hemorrhage?

KNOW THIS!!!!!

Exam 2

A
  • Cytotec (misoprostol)
  • Hemabate – do NOT use w/ asthma
  • Methergine – do NOT use w/ HTN
  • Oxytocin / pitocin

OB Final Exam (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions