Practice Questions Flashcards

1
Q

A 62-year-old man presents to the emergency
department (ED) with the chief concern of chest
pain that woke him from sleep and radiates to
his jaw. An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals
ST-segment depression in leads II, III, and aVF.
His blood pressure is 112/62 mm Hg and heart rate
is 60 beats/minute. Cardiac enzymes have been
obtained, and the first troponin result was slightly
positive. Preparations are under way to take the
patient to the cardiac catheterization laboratory
for evaluation. Which medication regimen is most
appropriate for this patient at this time?
A. Aspirin 325 mg, clopidogrel 600-mg loading dose (LD), and unfractionated heparin
(UFH) infusion 80-unit/kg bolus, followed
by 18 units/kg/hour and metoprolol 5 mg
intravenously.
B. Aspirin 81 mg; prasugrel 60-mg LD; UFH
infusion 60-unit/kg bolus, followed by 12
units/kg/hour; and intravenous enalaprilat.
C. Aspirin 325 mg, ticagrelor 180-mg LD, and
UFH infusion 60-unit/kg bolus, followed by
12 units/kg/hour.
D. Aspirin 81 mg, prasugrel 60-mg LD, nitroglycerin infusion at 10 mcg/minute, and
bivalirudin 0.75-mg/kg bolus and 1.75-mg/kg/
hour infusion.

A

C

Acute Care Cardiology

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2
Q

An 81-year-old African American man (weight 90
kg) presents to the ED with chest pressure (10/10
on a pain scale). His ECG reveals ST-segment depression in the inferior leads. His medical history is significant for hypertension and chronic
kidney disease. Pertinent laboratory results are troponin 5.8 ng/L, serum creatinine (SCr) 3.7 mg/dL,
and estimated creatinine clearance (eCrCl) 20 mL/
minute. The patient has been given aspirin 325
mg single dose; a nitroglycerin drip, initiated at 5
mcg/minute, will be titrated to chest pain relief and
blood pressure. The patient consents for cardiac
catheterization after adequate hydration. Which
anticoagulation strategy is most appropriate to initiate in this patient?
A. Intravenous heparin 4000-unit intravenous
bolus, followed by a 1000-unit/hour continuous infusion.
B. Enoxaparin 90 mg subcutaneously every 12
hours.
C. Fondaparinux 2.5 mg subcutaneously daily.
D. Bivalirudin 67.5-mg bolus, followed by a 157-
mg/hour infusion.

A

Acute Care Cardiology

A

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3
Q

A 56-year-old man presents to the hospital with
the chief concern of chest pain that was unrelieved
at home with sublingual nitroglycerin. His ECG
reveals ST-segment depression and T-wave inversion. Cardiac markers show an elevated troponin I.
The cardiologist has requested that the patient go
to the cardiac catheterization laboratory for further
evaluation. The patient has a history of coronary
artery disease (CAD) and had a myocardial infarction (MI) about 6 months ago. During his previous
hospitalization, he was confirmed to have developed
heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) after his
platelet count (Plt) dropped to 40,000/mm3
and he
had a positive ELISA (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay) upon serologic testing after his previous
catheterization. Given this patient’s diagnosis and
history, which treatment regimen would be most
appropriate during his cardiac catheterization?
A. Tirofiban.
B. Bivalirudin.
C. Enoxaparin.
D. Tenecteplase.

A

Acute Care Cardiology

B

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4
Q

A 62-year-old man presents to the ED after several hours of chest discomfort. His ECG reveals
a 1- to 2-mm ST-segment elevation with positive troponins. He has also had increasing shortness of
breath and lower-extremity swelling over the past
2–3 weeks. His medical history is significant for
tobacco use for 40 years, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, diabetes, and hypertension. His
blood pressure is 102/76 mm Hg and heart rate is
111 beats/minute. He has rales in both lungs and
2–3+ pitting edema in his extremities. His echocardiogram reveals an ejection fraction of 25%.
After primary percutaneous coronary intervention
(PCI), he is transferred to the cardiac intensive
care unit. Which best describes the acute use of
β-blocker therapy in this patient?
A. Give 12.5 mg of oral carvedilol within the first
24 hours.
B. Give 5 mg of intravenous metoprolol at the
bedside.
C. Give 200 mg of oral metoprolol succinate at
discharge.
D. Give no β-blocker at this time.

A

Acute Care Cardiology

D

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5
Q

. A 60-year-old man (weight 75 kg) presents to
the ED with crushing substernal chest pain and
ST-segment elevations on ECG. He has a medical
history of diabetes and a 40 pack-year history of
smoking. He is taken immediately to the catheterization laboratory for primary PCI, and a drugeluting stent is placed in his left anterior descending artery. In addition to aspirin, which regimen
would best maintain this patient’s stent patency?
A. Clopidogrel 300-mg LD, followed by 75 mg
daily for 12 months.
B. Prasugrel 60-mg LD, followed by 10 mg daily
for 12 months.
C. Ticagrelor 180-mg LD, followed by 90 mg
twice daily for 6 months.
D. Clopidogrel 600-mg LD, followed by 75 mg
daily for 6 months.

A

Acute Care Cardiology

B

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6
Q

A 60-year-old woman with New York Heart
Association (NYHA) class IV heart failure (HF)
(heart failure with reduced ejection fraction
[HFrEF]) is admitted for increased shortness of
breath and dyspnea at rest. Her extremities appear
well perfused, but she has 3+ pitting edema in her
lower extremities. Her vital signs include blood
pressure 125/70 mm Hg, heart rate 92 beats/minute, and oxygen saturation (Sao2
) 89% on 100%
facemask. After initiating an intravenous diuretic,
which intravenous agent is best to rapidly treat this
patient’s pulmonary symptoms?
A. Dobutamine.
B. Milrinone.
C. Nitroglycerin.
D. Metoprolol.

A

Acute Care Cardiology

C

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7
Q

A 75-year-old woman admitted for pneumonia
has a history of several non–ST-segment elevation
myocardial infarctions (NSTEMIs). She had an
episode of sustained ventricular tachycardia (VT)
during this hospitalization. Her corrected QT (QTc)
interval was 380 milliseconds on the telemetry.
Her left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) was
found to be 25%. Her serum potassium and magnesium were 4.6 mEq/L and 2.2 mg/dL, respectively.
Which intravenous agent is most appropriate for
this patient’s ventricular arrhythmias?
A. Procainamide.
B. Metoprolol.
C. Magnesium.
D. Amiodarone.

A

Acute Care Cardiology

D

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8
Q

A 53-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital
after the worst headache she has ever had. Her
medical history includes exertional asthma, poorly
controlled hypertension, glaucoma, and hyperlipidemia. She is nonadherent to her medications
and has not taken her prescribed blood pressure
medications for 4 days. Vital signs include blood
pressure 220/100 mm Hg and heart rate 65 beats/
minute. She has retinal hemorrhaging on funduscopic examination. Which is most appropriate for
this patient’s hypertensive emergency?
A. Fenoldopam 0.1 mcg/kg/minute.
B. Nicardipine 5 mg/hour.
C. Labetalol 0.5 mg/minute.
D. Enalaprilat 0.625 mg intravenously every 6
hours.

A

Acute Care Cardiology

B

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9
Q

A 52-year-old woman has a witnessed cardiac
arrest in a shopping mall and is resuscitated with
an automatic external defibrillator device. On electrophysiologic study, she has inducible VT. Which is most appropriate for reducing the secondary
incidence of sudden cardiac death (SCD)?
A. Propafenone.
B. Amiodarone.
C. Implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD).
D. Metoprolol.

A

Acute Care Cardiology

C

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10
Q

The Sudden Cardiac Death in Heart Failure trial
evaluated the efficacy of amiodarone or an ICD
versus placebo in preventing all-cause mortality
in ischemic and nonischemic patients with NYHA
class II and III HF. There was a 7.2% absolute risk
reduction and a 23% relative risk reduction in allcause mortality at 60 months with an ICD versus
placebo. Which best shows the number of patients
needed to treat with an ICD to prevent one death
versus placebo?
A. 1.
B. 4.
C. 14.
D. 43.

A

Acute Care Cardiology

C

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11
Q

A 66-year-old woman (weight 70 kg) with a history of MI, hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and diabetes mellitus presents with sudden-onset diaphoresis, nausea, vomiting, and dyspnea, followed by a bandlike upper
chest pain (8/10) radiating to her left arm. She had felt well until 1 month ago, when she noticed her typical
angina was occurring with less exertion. Her ECG reveals ST-segment depression in leads II, III, and aVF and
hyperdynamic T waves and positive cardiac enzymes. Blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg, and all laboratory
results are normal; SCr is 1.2 mg/dL. Home medications are aspirin 81 mg/day, simvastatin 40 mg every night,
metoprolol 50 mg twice daily, and metformin 1 g twice daily. Which regimen is best for this patient?
A. An early invasive approach with aspirin 325 mg, ticagrelor 180 mg one dose, and UFH 60-unit/kg bolus;
then 12 units/kg/hour titrated to 50–70 seconds.
B. An early invasive approach with aspirin 325 mg and enoxaparin 70 mg subcutaneously twice daily.
C. An ischemia-guided strategy with tirofiban 25 mcg/kg; then 0.15 mg/kg/minute plus enoxaparin 80 mg
subcutaneously twice daily, aspirin 325 mg, and clopidogrel 300 mg one dose; then 75 mg once daily.
D. An ischemia-guided strategy with aspirin 325 mg and ticagrelor 180 mg one dose; plus UFH 70-unit/kg
bolus; then 15 units/kg/hour.

A

Acute Care Cardiology

A

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12
Q

A 45-year-old patient underwent an elective percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty and drug-eluting
stent placement in the right coronary artery. Which best represents the minimum time DAPT should be continued?
A. 1 month.
B. 3 months.
C. 6 months.
D. 12 months.

A

Acute Care Cardiology

C

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13
Q

A 52-year-old man (weight 100 kg) with a history of hypertension and hypertriglyceridemia presents at a major
university teaching hospital with a cardiac catheterization laboratory. He has had 3 hours of crushing 10/10
substernal chest pain radiating to both arms that began while he was eating his lunch (seated), which is accompanied by nausea, diaphoresis, and shortness of breath. He has never before had chest pain of this character or
intensity. He usually can walk several miles without difficulty and smokes 1.5 packs/day of cigarettes. Home
medications are lisinopril 2.5 mg/day and aspirin 81 mg daily. Current vital signs include heart rate 68 beats/
minute and blood pressure 178/94 mm Hg. His ECG reveals a 3-mm ST-segment elevation in leads V2–V4, I,
and aVL. Serum chemistry values are within normal limits. The first set of cardiac markers shows positive
troponins, 0.8 mcg/L (normal defined as less than 0.1 mcg/L). Which regimen is best for this patient’s STEMI?
A. Reperfusion with primary PCI with stenting, clopidogrel 300 mg one dose, aspirin 325 mg one dose, and
tirofiban 25 mcg/kg followed by 0.15 mcg/kg/minute.
B. Reperfusion with a reteplase 10-unit bolus twice (30 minutes apart), clopidogrel 300 mg one dose, aspirin
325 mg one dose, and UFH 60 unit/kg followed by 12 unit/kg/hour.
C. Reperfusion with tenecteplase 25-mg intravenous push one dose, ticagrelor 180 mg one dose, aspirin 325
mg one dose, and bivalirudin 0.75 mg/kg followed by 1.75 mg/kg/hour.
D. Reperfusion with primary PCI with stenting, prasugrel 60 mg one dose, aspirin 325 mg one dose, and
bivalirudin 0.75 mg/kg followed by 1.75 mg/kg/hour.

A

Acute Care Cardiology

D

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14
Q

A 76-year-old male smoker (weight 61 kg) has a history of hypertension, benign prostatic hypertrophy, and
lower back pain. Three weeks ago, he began to have substernal chest pain with exertion (together with dyspnea), which radiated to both arms and was associated with nausea and diaphoresis. These episodes have
increased in frequency to four or five times daily; they are relieved with rest. He has never had an ECG. Today,
he awoke with 7/10 chest pain and went to the ED of a rural community hospital 2 hours later. He was acutely
dyspneic and had ongoing pain. Home medications are aspirin 81 mg/day for 2 months, doxazosin 2 mg/day,
and ibuprofen 800 mg three times daily. Vital signs include heart rate 42 beats/minute (sinus bradycardia) and
blood pressure 104/48 mm Hg. Laboratory results include blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 45 mg/dL, SCr 2.5 mg/
dL, and troponin 1.5 ng/L (normal value less than 0.1 ng/L). His ECG reveals a 3-mm ST-segment elevation.
Aspirin, ticagrelor, and sublingual nitroglycerin were given in the ED. The nearest hospital with a catheterization laboratory facility is 2½ hours away. Which regimen is best?
A. Give alteplase 15 units intravenously plus enoxaparin 30-mg intravenous bolus.
B. Use an ischemia-guided treatment strategy with UFH 4000-unit intravenous bolus, followed by 800 units
intravenously per hour.
C. Give tenecteplase 35 mg intravenously plus UFH 4000-unit intravenous bolus followed by 800 units intravenously per hour.
D. Transfer the patient to a facility for primary PCI.

A

Acute Care Cardiology

C

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15
Q

A 72-year-old man is admitted to the hospital for HF decompensation. The patient has progressively increased
dyspnea when walking (now 10 ft [3 m], previously 30 ft [6 m]) and orthopnea (now four pillows, previously two
pillows), increased bilateral lower-extremity swelling (3+), 13 kg of weight gain in the past 3 weeks, and dietary
nonadherence. He has a history of idiopathic dilated cardiomyopathy (LVEF 25%, NYHA class III), paroxysmal AF, and hyperlipidemia. Pertinent laboratory values are as follows: BNP 2300 pg/mL (0–50 pg/mL), K+ 4.9
mEq/L, BUN 32 mg/dL, SCr 2.0 mg/dL (baseline 1.9 mg/dL), aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 40 IU/L, alanine
aminotransferase 42 IU/L, INR 1.3, aPTT 42 seconds, blood pressure 108/62 mm Hg, heart rate 82 beats/minute,
and Sao2 95%. Home medications include carvedilol 12.5 mg twice daily, lisinopril 40 mg/day, furosemide 80 mg
twice daily, spironolactone 25 mg/day, and digoxin 0.125 mg/day.
5. Which regimen is best for treating his ADHF?
A. Carvedilol 25 mg twice daily.
B. Sodium nitroprusside 0.1 mcg/kg/min via continuous infusion.
C. Furosemide 120 mg intravenously twice daily.
D. Milrinone 0.5 mcg/kg/minute

A

Acute Care Cardiology

C

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16
Q

A 72-year-old man is admitted to the hospital for HF decompensation. The patient has progressively increased
dyspnea when walking (now 10 ft [3 m], previously 30 ft [6 m]) and orthopnea (now four pillows, previously two
pillows), increased bilateral lower-extremity swelling (3+), 13 kg of weight gain in the past 3 weeks, and dietary
nonadherence. He has a history of idiopathic dilated cardiomyopathy (LVEF 25%, NYHA class III), paroxysmal AF, and hyperlipidemia. Pertinent laboratory values are as follows: BNP 2300 pg/mL (0–50 pg/mL), K+ 4.9
mEq/L, BUN 32 mg/dL, SCr 2.0 mg/dL (baseline 1.9 mg/dL), aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 40 IU/L, alanine
aminotransferase 42 IU/L, INR 1.3, aPTT 42 seconds, blood pressure 108/62 mm Hg, heart rate 82 beats/minute,
and Sao2 95%. Home medications include carvedilol 12.5 mg twice daily, lisinopril 40 mg/day, furosemide 80 mg
twice daily, spironolactone 25 mg/day, and digoxin 0.125 mg/day

After being initiated on intravenous loop diuretics with only minimal urinary output, the patient is transferred
to the coronary care unit for further management of diuretic-refractory decompensated HF. His Sao2
is now
87% on a 4-L nasal cannula, and an arterial blood gas is being obtained. His blood pressure is 110/75 mm
Hg and heart rate is 75 beats/minute. The patient’s SCr and K+
concentrations have begun to rise and are now
2.7 mg/dL and 5.4 mmol/L, respectively. In addition to a one-time dose of intravenous chlorothiazide, which
regimen is most appropriate for this patient?
A. Nitroglycerin 20 mcg/minute.
B. Sodium nitroprusside 0.3 mg/kg/minute.
C. Dobutamine 5 mcg/kg/minute.
D. Milrinone 0.5 mcg/kg/minute.

A

Acute Care Cardiology

A

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17
Q

72-year-old man is admitted to the hospital for HF decompensation. The patient has progressively increased
dyspnea when walking (now 10 ft [3 m], previously 30 ft [6 m]) and orthopnea (now four pillows, previously two
pillows), increased bilateral lower-extremity swelling (3+), 13 kg of weight gain in the past 3 weeks, and dietary
nonadherence. He has a history of idiopathic dilated cardiomyopathy (LVEF 25%, NYHA class III), paroxysmal AF, and hyperlipidemia. Pertinent laboratory values are as follows: BNP 2300 pg/mL (0–50 pg/mL), K+ 4.9
mEq/L, BUN 32 mg/dL, SCr 2.0 mg/dL (baseline 1.9 mg/dL), aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 40 IU/L, alanine
aminotransferase 42 IU/L, INR 1.3, aPTT 42 seconds, blood pressure 108/62 mm Hg, heart rate 82 beats/minute,
and Sao2 95%. Home medications include carvedilol 12.5 mg twice daily, lisinopril 40 mg/day, furosemide 80 mg
twice daily, spironolactone 25 mg/day, and digoxin 0.125 mg/day.

The patient initially responds with 2 L of urinary output overnight, and his weight decreases by 1 kg the next
day. However, by day 5, his urinary output has diminished again, and his SCr has risen to 4.3 mg/dL. He was
drowsy and confused this morning during rounds. His extremities are cool and cyanotic, blood pressure is
89/58 mm Hg, and heart rate is 98 beats/minute. It is believed that he is no longer responding to his current
regimen. A Swan-Ganz catheter is placed to determine further management. Hemodynamic values are cardiac
index 1.5 L/minute/m2
, SVR 2650 dynes/second/cm5
, and Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure 30 mm Hg.
Which regimen is most appropriate for his current symptoms?
A. Milrinone 0.2 mcg/kg/minute.
B. Dobutamine 10 mcg/kg/minute.
C. Sodium nitroprusside 0.1 mcg/kg/minute.
D. Phenylephrine 20 mcg/minute.

A

Acute Care Cardiology

A

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18
Q

A 68-year-old man is admitted after an episode of syncope, with a presyncopal syndrome of seeing black spots and
dizziness before passing out. Telemetry monitor showed sustained VT for 45 seconds. His medical history includes
HF NYHA class III, LVEF 30%, two MIs, hypertension for 20 years, LV hypertrophy, diabetes, and diabetic
nephropathy. His medications include lisinopril 5 mg/day, furosemide 20 mg twice daily, metoprolol 25 mg twice
daily, digoxin 0.125 mg/day, glipizide 5 mg/day, atorvastatin 40 mg, and aspirin 81 mg/day. His blood pressure is
120/75 mm Hg, with heart rate 80 beats/minute, BUN 30 mg/dL, and SCr 2.2 mg/dL.
8. Which is the best therapy to initiate for conversion of his sustained VT?
A. Amiodarone 150 mg intravenously for 10 minutes, then 1 mg/minute for 6 hours, then 0.5 mg/minute.
B. Sotalol 80 mg twice daily titrated to QTc of about 450 milliseconds.
C. Dofetilide 500 mcg twice daily titrated to QTc of about 450 milliseconds.
D. Procainamide 20 mg/minute, with a maximum of 17 mg/kg.

A

Acute Care Cardiology

A

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19
Q

A 68-year-old man is admitted after an episode of syncope, with a presyncopal syndrome of seeing black spots and
dizziness before passing out. Telemetry monitor showed sustained VT for 45 seconds. His medical history includes
HF NYHA class III, LVEF 30%, two MIs, hypertension for 20 years, LV hypertrophy, diabetes, and diabetic
nephropathy. His medications include lisinopril 5 mg/day, furosemide 20 mg twice daily, metoprolol 25 mg twice
daily, digoxin 0.125 mg/day, glipizide 5 mg/day, atorvastatin 40 mg, and aspirin 81 mg/day. His blood pressure is
120/75 mm Hg, with heart rate 80 beats/minute, BUN 30 mg/dL, and SCr 2.2 mg/dL.

The patient presents to the ED 3 months after amiodarone maintenance initiation (he refused ICD placement)
after a syncopal episode, during which he lost consciousness for 30 seconds, according to witnesses. He also
has rapid heart rate episodes during which he feels dizzy and lightheaded. He feels very warm all the time (he
wears shorts, even though it is winter), cannot sleep, and has lost 3 kg in weight. He received a diagnosis of
hyperthyroidism caused by amiodarone therapy. On telemetry, he has runs of nonsustained VT. Which best
predicts the duration of amiodarone-associated hyperthyroidism in this patient?
A. 12 hours.
B. 1 month.
C. 6 months.
D. 18 months.

A

Acute Care Cardiology

C

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20
Q

A 64-year-old woman presents to the ED with the chief concern of palpitations. Her medical history includes
hypertension controlled with a diuretic and an inferior-wall MI 6 months ago. She is pale and diaphoretic but
can respond to commands. The patient’s laboratory values are within normal limits. Her vital signs include
blood pressure 95/70 mm Hg and heart rate 145 beats/minute; telemetry shows sustained VT. Despite chronic
use of β-blocker therapy, the patient has developed sustained VT that is successfully terminated with lidocaine. Subsequent electrophysiologic testing reveals inducible VT, and sotalol 80 mg orally twice daily is prescribed. Two hours after the second dose, the patient’s QTc is 520 milliseconds. Which regimen change would
be most appropriate for this patient?
A. Continue sotalol at 80 mg orally twice daily.
B. Increase sotalol to 120 mg orally twice daily.
C. Discontinue sotalol and initiate dofetilide 125 mcg orally twice daily.
D. Discontinue sotalol and initiate amiodarone 400 mg orally three times daily.

A

Acute Care Cardiology

D

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21
Q

A 68-year-old man with a history of stage 5 chronic kidney disease receiving hemodialysis, hypertension,
CAD post-MI, HFrEF, and gastroesophageal reflux disease presents with acute-onset shortness of breath and
chest pain. After his recent dialysis, he was nonadherent to medical therapy for 2 days and noticed he had
gained 2 kg in 24 hours. His baseline orthopnea worsened to sleeping sitting up in a chair for the 2 nights
before admission. He admits smoking cocaine within the past 24 hours and developed acute-onset chest tightness with diaphoresis and nausea, and his pain was 7/10. He went to the ED, where his blood pressure was
250/120 mm Hg. He had crackles halfway up his lungs on examination, and chest radiography detected bilateral fluffy infiltrates with prominent vessel cephalization. His ECG revealed sinus tachycardia, heart rate 122
beats/minute, and ST-segment depressions in leads 2, 3, and aVF. He was admitted for a hypertensive emergency. Laboratory results are as follows: BUN 48 mg/dL, SCr 11.4 mg/dL, BNP 2350 pg/mL, troponin T 1.5
ng/L (less than 0.1 mcg/L), creatine kinase 227 units/L, and creatine kinase-MB 22 units/L. Which medication
is best for this patient’s hypertensive emergency?
A. Intravenous nitroglycerin 5 mcg/minute titrated to a 25% reduction in MAP.
B. Labetalol 2 mcg/minute titrated to a 50% reduction in MAP.
C. Sodium nitroprusside 0.25 mcg/kg/minute titrated to a 25% reduction in MAP.
D. Clonidine 0.1 mg orally every 2 hours as needed for a 50% reduction in MAP.

A

Acute Care Cardiology

A

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22
Q

A 56-year-old white woman with a long history of hypertension because of nonadherence and recently diagnosed HF (ejection fraction 35%) presents to the local ED with blood pressure 210/120 mm Hg and heart rate
105 beats/minute. She states that she felt a little lightheaded but that she now feels okay. She ran out of her
blood pressure medications (including hydrochlorothiazide, carvedilol, and lisinopril) 3 days ago. Her current
laboratory values are within normal limits. Which medication is best for this patient?
A. Sodium nitroprusside 0.25 mcg/kg/minute titrated to a 25% reduction in MAP.
B. Labetalol 80 mg intravenously; repeat until blood pressure is less than 120/80 mm Hg.
C. Resumption of home medications; refer for follow-up within 2 days.
D. Resumption of home medications; initiate amlodipine 10 mg daily; refer for follow-up in 1 week.

A

Acute Care Cardiology

C

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23
Q

R.S., a 58-year-old woman with a history of hypertension (HTN), chronic coronary disease (CCD),
myocardial infarction (MI) 4 months ago, and dyslipidemia, presents to the clinic for a follow-up.
She has no worsening signs or symptoms of dyspnea or edema compared with her baseline. An
echocardiogram reveals a left ventricular ejection
fraction (LVEF) of 35%. She is in New York Heart
Association (NYHA) class III. Her medications
include aspirin 81 mg/day, metoprolol succinate
150 mg/day, and atorvastatin 40 mg/day at night.
Her vital signs include blood pressure (BP) 138/80
mm Hg and heart rate (HR) 58 beats/minute. Her
lungs are clear, and laboratory results are within
normal limits. Given her history and physical
examination, what is the most appropriate modification to R.S.’s current drug therapy?
A. Continue current therapy.
B. Initiate digoxin 0.125 mg/day.
C. Initiate vericiguat 2.5 mg/day.
D. Initiate sacubitril 24 mg/valsartan 26 mg twice
daily

A

Chronic Care Cardiology

D

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24
Q

J.O. is a 64-year-old woman with NYHA class II
nonischemic dilated cardiomyopathy (LVEF of
30%). She presents to the heart failure (HF) clinic
for a follow-up. She is euvolemic. Her medications
include enalapril 10 mg twice daily, furosemide
40 mg twice daily, and potassium chloride 20 mEq
twice daily. Her vital signs include BP 130/88 mm
Hg and HR 78 beats/minute. Her laboratory results
are within normal limits. What is the best way to
manage J.O.’s HF?
A. Continue current regimen.
B. Increase enalapril to 20 mg twice daily.
C. Initiate carvedilol 3.125 mg twice daily.
D. Initiate digoxin 0.125 mg/day

A

Chronic Care Cardiology

C

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25
Q

J.M. is a 65-year-old woman with a history of
HTN who presents to her primary care physician
with shortness of breath and markedly decreased
exercise tolerance. An echocardiogram reveals an LVEF of 65%, with diastolic dysfunction. J.M.
currently takes losartan 150 mg/day for HTN. Her
vital signs include BP 134/84 mm Hg and HR 68
beats/minute. Her lung fields are clear to auscultation, and there is no evidence of systemic congestion. Her laboratory results include SCr 1.1 mg/
dL and K 5.1 mEq/L. Which is the best change to
make to J.M.’s pharmacologic regimen today?
A. Add metoprolol succinate 50 mg/day.
B. Initiate furosemide 40 mg/day.
C. Add spironolactone 25 mg/day.
D. Add empagliflozin 10 mg/day.

A

Chronic Care Cardiology

D

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26
Q

B.W. is a 78-year-old man with a history of HTN,
peripheral arterial disease (PAD), gastroesophageal reflux disease, and asymptomatic atrial fibrillation (AF) for the past month. His therapy includes
aspirin 325 mg/day, lansoprazole 30 mg every
night, atenolol 50 mg/day, lisinopril 10 mg/day, and
atorvastatin 20 mg/day. His vital signs include BP
132/72 mm Hg and HR 68 beats/minute. Which is
the best therapy for B.W. at this time?
A. Add diltiazem and rivaroxaban.
B. Add digoxin and increase lisinopril to 20 mg/
day.
C. Discontinue atorvastatin and add warfarin.
D. Add apixaban and decrease aspirin to 81 mg/day.

A

Chronic Care Cardiology

D

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27
Q

Z.G. is a 61-year-old man with AF, HTN, and dyslipidemia. His medications include digoxin 0.125
mg/day, warfarin 5 mg/day, amlodipine 10 mg/day,
and pravastatin 20 mg every night. He comes to the
clinic with no complaints except for palpitations
and shortness of breath when doing yard work. His
vital signs include BP 138/80 mm Hg and HR 100
beats/minute. His international normalized ratio
(INR) is 2.4, and his digoxin concentration is 1.1
ng/mL. All other laboratory results are within normal limits. Which is the best option to help with
Z.G.’s symptoms?
A. Add metoprolol succinate 50 mg/day.
B. Increase digoxin to 0.25 mg/day.
C. Add verapamil 240 mg/day.
D. Continue current regimen and advise the patient
to avoid activitiesthat cause signs orsymptoms.

A

Chronic Care Cardiology

A

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28
Q

R.P. is an 69-year-old Hispanic man with a history
of HTN and gout. His medications include allopurinol 300 mg/day, amlodipine 10 mg/day, and aspirin 81 mg/day. His vital signs include BP 145/85
mm Hg and HR 82 beats/minute. His laboratory
values are normal and his 10-year atherosclerotic
cardiovascular disease (ASCVD) risk is 22.4%.
Which is the best therapy for R.P.?
A. Add hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg/day to achieve
a systolic blood pressure (SBP) goal of less
than 130 mm Hg.
B. Add lisinopril 40 mg/day and titrate to achieve
an SBP goal of less than 140.
C. Add losartan 25 mg/day to achieve an SBP less
than 130 mm Hg.
D. Make no changes to his current medications
because his SBP is at goal.

A

Chronic Care Cardiology

C

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29
Q

J.T. is a 58-year-old man who presents to his primary care provider for the first time in 10 years.
He has smoked 2 packs/day for the past 30 years
and takes no medication. A fasting lipid panel
shows total cholesterol (TC) 222 mg/dL, lowdensity lipoprotein cholesterol (LDL-C) 105 mg/dL,
triglycerides (TG) 330 mg/dL, and high-density
lipoprotein cholesterol (HDL-C) 51 mg/dL. His
vital signs include BP 140/75 mm Hg and HR 80
beats/minute. His pooled cohort equation reveals
a 10-year ASCVD risk of 14.6%. Which would be
the best pharmacologic therapy to initiate in J.T.?
A. Initiate simvastatin 20 mg/day and gemfibrozil
600 mg twice daily.
B. Initiate rosuvastatin 2.5 mg/day.
C. Initiate pravastatin 20 mg/day and fenofibrate
160 mg/day.
D. Initiate atorvastatin 20 mg/day

A

Chronic Care Cardiology

D

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30
Q

J.S. is a 43-year-old man with HTN who presents
for an annual physical examination. His family
history is significant for his father having HTN.
His only medication is lisinopril 10 mg/day. His
BP is 145/90 mm Hg. A fasting lipid profile shows
TC 238 mg/dL, TG 95 mg/dL, LDL-C 176 mg/dL,
and HDL-C 43 mg/dL. His calculated 10-year
ASCVD risk according to the pooled cohort equation is 3.9%. Which best describes the next step for
management in J.S.?
A. Initiate high-intensity statin therapy.
B. Initiate fenofibrate 130 mg/day.
C. Initiate moderate-intensity statin therapy.
D. Do not initiate statin therapy and reevaluate
risk in 4–6 years

A

Chronic Care Cardiology

D

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31
Q

J.C. is a 62-year-old man (height 177.8 cm, weight
135 kg [1 month ago 143 kg]) with a history of
diabetes, chronic kidney disease (CKD), bipolar
disorder, CCD, and hypertriglyceridemia that, in
the past, has resulted in pancreatitis. His family
history is significant for his father having CCD
and hypertriglyceridemia. He is not a smoker, but
admits drinking a 6-pack of beer daily. Pertinent
laboratory findings include a hemoglobin A1C of
11.6% and a serum creatinine (SCr) of 2.6 mg/dL.
He currently takes atorvastatin 40 mg every evening, aspirin 81 mg/day, metformin 1000 mg twice
daily, olanzapine 10 mg/day, metoprolol tartrate 50
mg twice daily, and coenzyme Q10 200 mg/day. His
fasting lipid profile is TC 402 mg/dL, LDL-C unable
to calculate, HDL-C 48 mg/dL, and TG 1500 mg/
dL. His other laboratory values are within normal
limits. Which best describes potential secondary
causes of elevated TG concentrations that should
be considered in J.C.?
A. Obesity, poorly controlled diabetes, olanzapine, metoprolol, coenzyme Q10.
B. Alcohol consumption, poorly controlled diabetes, weight loss, metoprolol.
C. Obesity, metformin, hyperthyroidism, alcohol
consumption.
D. Alcohol consumption, obesity, poorly controlled diabetes, olanzapine, metoprolol.

A

Chronic Care Cardiology

D

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32
Q

A.M. is a 32-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes
and HTN. Her current medication regimen is as follows: ramipril 10 mg/day, chlorthalidone 25 mg/day,
amlodipine 10 mg/day, ethinyl estradiol 20 mcg/norethindrone 1 mg daily (for the past 2 years), and insulin
as directed. Her vital signs today include BP 145/83 mm
Hg, repeated BP 145/81 mm Hg; HR 82 beats/minute;
height 167.64 cm; weight 70 kg. A.M. presents to the
clinic for HTN management. She has no new concerns
but expresses that she would prefer not to take any more
drugs, if possible.

Which option is the best clinical plan for A.M.?
A. No change in therapy is currently warranted.
B. Advise weight loss and recheck her BP in
3 months.
C. Change chlorthalidone to hydrochlorothiazide.
D. Discuss changing her contraceptive method.

A

Chronic Care Cardiology

D

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33
Q

A.M. is a 32-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes
and HTN. Her current medication regimen is as follows: ramipril 10 mg/day, chlorthalidone 25 mg/day,
amlodipine 10 mg/day, ethinyl estradiol 20 mcg/norethindrone 1 mg daily (for the past 2 years), and insulin
as directed. Her vital signs today include BP 145/83 mm
Hg, repeated BP 145/81 mm Hg; HR 82 beats/minute;
height 167.64 cm; weight 70 kg. A.M. presents to the
clinic for HTN management. She has no new concerns
but expresses that she would prefer not to take any more
drugs, if possible.

A.M. and her husband have decided they are ready
to have children. What is the best medication
option for A.M.?
A. No change in therapy is warranted.
B. Discontinue ramipril and replace with labetalol.
C. Increase chlorthalidone to 50 mg/day.
D. Discontinue all antihypertensive therapy

A

Chronic Care Cardiology

B

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34
Q

A 66-year-old African American man (height
177.8 cm, weight 91 kg) with AF and CCD (non–
ST-segment elevation MI and stent placement 3
years ago) presents with palpitations. Rate control
therapy, including trials of β-blockers and nondihydropyridine calcium channel blockers, has
been unsuccessful in controlling his symptoms.
He currently takes metoprolol succinate 50 mg/
day, aspirin 81 mg/day, atorvastatin 80 mg/day, lisinopril 5 mg/day, and warfarin 4 mg/day. His laboratory results show INR 2.2, potassium (K) 4.8
mEq/L, SCr 1.2 mg/dL. His BP is 110/70 mm Hg,
and his HR is 95 beats/minute. Which is the best
antiarrhythmic therapy for him?
A. Disopyramide.
B. Flecainide.
C. Propafenone.
D. Sotalol.

A

Chronic Care Cardiology

D

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35
Q

L.S. is a 48-year-old woman with alcohol-induced cardiomyopathy. Her most recent LVEF is 20%; her daily
activities are limited by dyspnea and fatigue (NYHA class III). Her medications include lisinopril 40 mg
daily, furosemide 40 mg twice daily, carvedilol 12.5 mg twice daily, spironolactone 25 mg/day, and digoxin
0.125 mg/day. She has been stable on these doses for the past month. Her most recent laboratory results
include sodium (Na) 140 mEq/L, potassium (K) 4.0 mEq/L, chloride 105 mEq/L, bicarbonate 26 mEq/L,
blood urea nitrogen 12 mg/dL, SCr 0.8 mg/dL, glucose 98 mg/dL, calcium 9.0 mg/dL, phosphorus 2.8 mg/
dL, magnesium 2.0 mEq/L, and digoxin 0.7 ng/mL. She weighs 69 kg, and her vital signs include BP 112/70
mm Hg and HR 72 beats/minute. In the clinic today, she has concerns for increased shortness of breath and
fatigue. On physical examination, you note 2+ bilateral lower extremity pitting edema and hear crackles on
inspiration. What is the best approach for maximizing the management of her HF?
A. Increase carvedilol to 25 mg twice daily.
B. Increase lisinopril to 80 mg/day.
C. Add empagliflozin 10 mg/day.
D. Increase digoxin to 0.25 mg/day.

A

Chronic Care Cardiology

C

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36
Q

J.T. is a 62-year-old man (height 182.88 cm, weight 85 kg) with a history of CCD (MI 3 years ago), HTN,
depression, CKD (baseline SCr 2.8 mg/dL), PAD, osteoarthritis, hypothyroidism, and HF (LVEF of 25%).
His medications include aspirin 81 mg/day, atorvastatin 40 mg every night, enalapril 5 mg twice daily, metoprolol succinate 50 mg/day, furosemide 80 mg twice daily, cilostazol 100 mg twice daily, acetaminophen 650
mg four times daily, sertraline 100 mg/day, and levothyroxine 0.1 mg/day. His vital signs include BP 128/74
mm Hg and HR 72 beats/minute. Pertinent laboratory results include K 4.1 mEq/L, SCr 2.8 mg/dL, and a
thyroid-stimulating hormone of 2.6 mIU/L. His HF is stable and considered NYHA class II. What is the best
approach for maximizing the management of his HF?
A. Discontinue metoprolol and begin carvedilol 12.5 mg twice daily.
B. Change enalapril to sacubitril/valsartan 24/26 mg orally twice daily.
C. Add spironolactone 25 mg/day.
D. Add digoxin 0.125 mg/day.

A

Chronic Care Cardiology

B

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37
Q

J.T. is a 62-year-old man (height 182.88 cm, weight 85 kg) with a history of CCD (MI 3 years ago), HTN,
depression, CKD (baseline SCr 2.8 mg/dL), PAD, osteoarthritis, hypothyroidism, and HF (LVEF of 25%).
His medications include aspirin 81 mg/day, atorvastatin 40 mg every night, enalapril 5 mg twice daily, metoprolol succinate 50 mg/day, furosemide 80 mg twice daily, cilostazol 100 mg twice daily, acetaminophen 650
mg four times daily, sertraline 100 mg/day, and levothyroxine 0.1 mg/day. His vital signs include BP 128/74
mm Hg and HR 72 beats/minute. Pertinent laboratory results include K 4.1 mEq/L, SCr 2.8 mg/dL, and a
thyroid-stimulating hormone of 2.6 mIU/L. His HF is stable and considered NYHA class II.

Which drug that J.T. (from Patient Case 2) is currently taking would be best to discontinue because of his
HFrEF?
A. Acetaminophen.
B. Sertraline.
C. Cilostazol.
D. Levothyroxine.

A

Chronic Care Cardiology

C

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38
Q

P.M. is a 52-year-old man (height 177.8 cm, weight 116 kg) with a history of HTN and a transient ischemic
attack 2 years ago. He visits his primary care doctor with the chief concern of several weeks of a “fluttering” feeling in his chest on occasion. He thinks the fluttering is nothing; however, his wife insists he have it
checked. His current medications include metoprolol tartrate 50 mg twice daily and aspirin 81 mg/day. He is
adherent to this regimen and has health insurance, but he does not like to make the 3-hour trip to his primary
care provider. His laboratory data from his past visit were all within normal limits. His vitalsignstoday include
BP 130/78 mm Hg and HR 76 beats/minute. All laboratory values are within normal limits. An electrocardiogram
(ECG) reveals an irregularly irregular rhythm, with no P waves, and a HR of 74 beats/minute. A diagnosis of AF
is made. What is the best approach for managing his AF at this time?
A. Begin digoxin 0.25 mg/day.
B. Begin diltiazem CD 240 mg/day.
C. Begin warfarin 5 mg/day and titrate to a goal INR of 2.5.
D. Begin dabigatran 150 mg twice daily.

A

Chronic Care Cardiology

D

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39
Q

H.D. is a 67-year-old man with a history of HTN and AF for 4 years. His medications include ramipril 5 mg
twice daily, sotalol 120 mg twice daily, digoxin 0.125 mg/day, and warfarin 5 mg/day. He visits his primary
care physician after being discharged from the emergency department with increased fatigue on exertion
palpitations, and lower extremity edema. His vital signs today include BP 115/70 mm Hg and HR 88
beats/minute, and all laboratory results are within normal limits; however, his lower extremity edema has
worsened. His INR is 2.8. His ECG shows AF. An echocardiogram reveals an LVEF of 35%–40%. H.D.’s
physician would like to continue a rhythm control approach. What is the best treatment option for managing
his AF?
A. Discontinue sotalol and begin metoprolol succinate 12.5 mg/day.
B. Discontinue sotalol and begin dronedarone 400 mg twice daily.
C. Discontinue sotalol and begin amiodarone 400 mg twice daily, tapering to goal dose of 200 mg/day for the
next 6 weeks.
D. Continue sotalol and add metoprolol tartrate 25 mg twice daily

A

Chronic Care Cardiology

C

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40
Q

. W.D. is a 55-year-old woman who was recently admitted to the hospital with acute myocardial infarction
which was treated with a stent. She has a medical history of HTN and GERD. She is visiting your clinic
today for management of her cardiovascular medications. Her vitals today include BP 152/86 mm Hg and
HR 82 beats/minute. Her labs are all WNL, including Na 140 mEq/L, K 4.3 mEq/L, and SCr 1.0 mg/dL. Her
current medication regimen includes clopidogrel 75 mg daily, aspirin 81 mg daily, and atorvastatin 40 mg
daily. What is the most appropriate approach to manage her HTN?
A. Add carvedilol monotherapy
B. Add lisinopril and metoprolol
C. Add amlodipine and metoprolol
D. Add lisinopril monotherapy

A

Chronic Care Cardiology

D

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41
Q

T.J. is a 58-year-old African American woman presenting for routine follow-up of her chronic obstructive
pulmonary disease. She has no other medical history. Her blood pressure today (average of 2 readings) is
138/88 mm Hg. Her HR is 77 beats/minute. Her BP at her last visit was 136/86 mm Hg. Her current medications include tiotropium dry powder inhaler daily and an albuterol metered dose inhaler as needed. Her labs
include Na 140 mEq/L, K 4.0 mEq/L, Cl 102 mEq/L, bicarbonate 28 mEq/L, serum urea nitrogen 14 mg/dL,
and SCr 0.8 mg/dL. Her 10-year ASCVD risk is 12%. What is the best approach for managing her HTN?
A. Begin diet and lifestyle modifications only
B. Begin lifestyle modifications and add amlodipine 5 mg daily
C. Begin lifestyle modifications and add lisinopril 2.5 mg daily
D. Begin lifestyle modifications and add lisinopril 2.5 mg daily plus hydrochlorothiazide 12.5 mg daily

A

Chronic Care Cardiology

B

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42
Q

M.M. is a 63-year-old woman who just finished 6 months of diet and exercise for dyslipidemia. She has a history of hypertension, diabetes, and asthma. She smokes one pack of cigarettes and drinks three beers per day.
Her mother had HTN and suffered an MI at age 42 years. Her father had HTN and diabetes. Her medications
are albuterol metered dose inhaler, lisinopril, metformin, linagliptin, and calcium carbonate antacids. Her
vital signs include BP 134/84 mm Hg and HR 75 beats/minute. Her laboratory results are as follows: HDL-C
38 mg/dL, LDL-C 134 mg/dL, TG 186 mg/dL, TC 209 mg/dL, and hemoglobin A1C 8.6%. Her pooled cohort
equation estimates a 10-year ASCVD risk of 27.8%. What is the most appropriate next step for M.M.?
A. Initiate a low-intensity statin
B. Initiate a moderate-intensity statin
C. Initiate a high-intensity statin
D. Initiate a high-intensity statin plus ezetimibe

A

Chronic Care Cardiology

C

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43
Q

According to the ACC/AHA blood cholesterol guidelines, which is best described as a high-intensity statin dose?
A. Pravastatin 20 mg/day.
B. Lovastatin 20 mg/day.
C. Atorvastatin 40 mg/day.
D. Rosuvastatin 10 mg/day.

A

Chronic Care Cardiology

C

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44
Q

Which best describes a potential secondary cause of high TG concentrations?
A. Amiodarone.
B. Biliary obstruction.
C. Sirolimus.
D. Saturated fats

A

Chronic Care Cardiology

C

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45
Q

A 66-year-old man with a medical history of HTN and ACS with a drug-eluting coronary stent placement
14 months ago presents to the primary care clinic. Current medications include aspirin 81 mg/day, prasugrel
10 mg/day, nitroglycerin 0.4-mg sublingual tablets as needed for chest pain, metoprolol succinate 75 mg/day,
ramipril 10 mg/day, and atorvastatin 20 mg/day. He asks you how long he will need to take prasugrel. What
is the best answer?
A. Call your physician because you may be able to stop prasugrel now.
B. Your prasugrel should have been discontinued 6 months after ACS; discontinue it now.
C. You will need to take prasugrel indefinitely.
D. You will need to take prasugrel for at least 18 months after your MI and stent placement.

A

Chronic Care Cardiology

A

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46
Q

J.M. is a 72-year-old female (weight 57 kg) who presents to the hospital with nonvalvular atrial fibrillation
(AF). After her heart rate is controlled with metoprolol, she is asymptomatic. She also has hypertension,
dyslipidemia, and depression. Her medications include
metoprolol tartrate 100 mg orally twice daily, enalapril
10 mg orally twice daily, and citalopram 20 mg orally
daily. Her heart rate is 78 beats/minute and blood pressure is 134/86 mm Hg. Her SCr is 0.8 mg/dL and CrCl is
60 mL/minute; she has normal hepatic function.

Which best depicts J.M.’s CHA2DS2-VASc score
and HAS-BLED score?
A. CHA2DS2-VASc score 1; HAS-BLED score 1.
B. CHA2DS2-VASc score 3; HAS-BLED score 1.
C. CHA2DS2-VASc score 5; HAS-BLED score 4.
D. CHA2DS2-VASc score 3; HAS-BLED score 2.

A

Anticoagulation

B

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47
Q

J.M. is a 72-year-old female (weight 57 kg) who presents to the hospital with nonvalvular atrial fibrillation
(AF). After her heart rate is controlled with metoprolol, she is asymptomatic. She also has hypertension,
dyslipidemia, and depression. Her medications include
metoprolol tartrate 100 mg orally twice daily, enalapril
10 mg orally twice daily, and citalopram 20 mg orally
daily. Her heart rate is 78 beats/minute and blood pressure is 134/86 mm Hg. Her SCr is 0.8 mg/dL and CrCl is
60 mL/minute; she has normal hepatic function.

 Which is the most appropriate stroke prevention strategy for J.M.?
 A.	 Aspirin 325 mg orally once daily.
 B.	 Rivaroxaban 20 mg orally once daily.
 C.	 Apixaban 2.5 mg orally twice daily.
 D.	 Edoxaban 30 mg orally once daily.
A

Anticoagulation

B

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48
Q

J.M. is a 72-year-old female (weight 57 kg) who presents to the hospital with nonvalvular atrial fibrillation
(AF). After her heart rate is controlled with metoprolol, she is asymptomatic. She also has hypertension,
dyslipidemia, and depression. Her medications include
metoprolol tartrate 100 mg orally twice daily, enalapril
10 mg orally twice daily, and citalopram 20 mg orally
daily. Her heart rate is 78 beats/minute and blood pressure is 134/86 mm Hg. Her SCr is 0.8 mg/dL and CrCl is
60 mL/minute; she has normal hepatic function.

J.M. was initiated on dabigatran and 3 months later
is involved in a motor vehicle accident resulting
in an intracranial hemorrhage. Which is the most
appropriate reversal strategy for J.M.?
A. Protamine.
B. Fresh frozen plasma (FFP).
C. Coagulation factor Xa [recombinant],
inactivated.
D. Idarucizumab.

A

Anticoagulation

D

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49
Q

B.T. is 68-year-old male (height 183 cm, weight 96 kg)
who recently underwent surgical aortic valve replacement with a bioprosthetic valve and is recovering well.
He also has hypertension, dyslipidemia, systolic heart failure, and a history of sustained ventricular tachycardia. His medications include carvedilol 25 mg orally
twice daily, lisinopril 10 mg orally daily, furosemide
40 mg orally daily, amiodarone 400 mg orally daily,
and atorvastatin 80 mg orally daily. His CrCl is 40 mL/
minute, hepatic function is normal, and other laboratory
data are within normal limits.

Which is the most appropriate antithrombotic regimen for B.T.?
A. Aspirin 81 mg orally daily.
B. Warfarin 7.5 mg orally daily to an INR of 2.5–3.5.
C. Apixaban 5 mg orally twice daily.
D. Dabigatran 150 mg twice daily

A

Anticoagulation

A

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50
Q

B.T. is 68-year-old male (height 183 cm, weight 96 kg)
who recently underwent surgical aortic valve replacement with a bioprosthetic valve and is recovering well.
He also has hypertension, dyslipidemia, systolic heart failure, and a history of sustained ventricular tachycardia. His medications include carvedilol 25 mg orally
twice daily, lisinopril 10 mg orally daily, furosemide
40 mg orally daily, amiodarone 400 mg orally daily,
and atorvastatin 80 mg orally daily. His CrCl is 40 mL/
minute, hepatic function is normal, and other laboratory
data are within normal limits.

Which best depicts how long B.T. should receive
therapy?
A. At least 1 month.
B. At least 3 months.
C. At least 1 year.
D. Indefinitely.

A

Anticoagulation

D

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51
Q

M.R. is a 51-year-old female (height 165 cm, weight 98
kg, BMI 36 kg/m2
) who presents to the ED with pain,
swelling, and redness in her right leg up into her thigh.
She also has some shortness of breath and pain in the
middle of her chest. She reports that she had a hysterectomy about 2 weeks ago and has not been moving much
at home in the past 2 weeks. On physical examination,
her right leg is warmer than her left and tender to the
touch. Her cardiac examination appears normal, with
vital signs consisting of a heart rate of 80 beats/minute, blood pressure 146/96 mm Hg, respiratory rate 20
breaths/minute, and Sao2 92% on room air. Her initial
laboratory information includes a positive D-dimer, a
negative troponin, and a CrCl of 65 mL/minute. Duplex
ultrasound detects a right femoral-popliteal deep
vein thrombosis (DVT), and CT reveals a pulmonary
embolism (PE). Her other conditions include hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and dyslipidemia. She has also
smoked 1 pack/day of cigarettes for the past 30 years.
Her medications include lisinopril 10 mg orally daily,
chlorthalidone 25 mg orally daily, metformin 1000 mg
orally twice daily, pravastatin 40 mg orally daily, and
hydrocodone 5 mg/acetaminophen 325 mg orally every
6 hours as needed for pain.

Which best depicts M.R.’s number of venous
thromboembolism (VTE) risk factors?
A. 3.
B. 4.
C. 5.
D. 6.

A

Anticoagulation

C

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52
Q

M.R. is a 51-year-old female (height 165 cm, weight 98
kg, BMI 36 kg/m2
) who presents to the ED with pain,
swelling, and redness in her right leg up into her thigh.
She also has some shortness of breath and pain in the
middle of her chest. She reports that she had a hysterectomy about 2 weeks ago and has not been moving much
at home in the past 2 weeks. On physical examination,
her right leg is warmer than her left and tender to the
touch. Her cardiac examination appears normal, with
vital signs consisting of a heart rate of 80 beats/minute, blood pressure 146/96 mm Hg, respiratory rate 20
breaths/minute, and Sao2 92% on room air. Her initial
laboratory information includes a positive D-dimer, a
negative troponin, and a CrCl of 65 mL/minute. Duplex
ultrasound detects a right femoral-popliteal deep
vein thrombosis (DVT), and CT reveals a pulmonary
embolism (PE). Her other conditions include hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and dyslipidemia. She has also
smoked 1 pack/day of cigarettes for the past 30 years.
Her medications include lisinopril 10 mg orally daily,
chlorthalidone 25 mg orally daily, metformin 1000 mg
orally twice daily, pravastatin 40 mg orally daily, and
hydrocodone 5 mg/acetaminophen 325 mg orally every
6 hours as needed for pain.

Which is the most appropriate treatment strategy
for M.R.?
A. Enoxaparin 100 mg subcutaneously every 12
hours and dabigatran 150 mg orally twice daily;
after 5 days, enoxaparin can be discontinued.
B. Rivaroxaban 15 mg orally twice daily for 7
days, followed by 20 mg orally once daily.
C. Enoxaparin 100 mg subcutaneously every 12
hours for 5 days; then initiate edoxaban 60 mg
orally once daily.
D. Unfractionated heparin (UFH) 4000-unit
bolus, followed by 1000 units/hour and warfarin 7.5 mg orally daily to an INR of 2.0–3.0,
discontinuing UFH when a therapeutic INR is
reached.

A

Anticoagulation

C

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53
Q

A male patient (height 186 cm, weight 125 kg) is
admitted for the treatment of a DVT with a PE. He
is administered a 10,000-unit bolus of UFH and
initiated on an infusion of 2000 units/hour. Twelve
hours into the infusion, he begins to vomit blood.
Which is the most appropriate protamine dose for
this patient?
A. 100 mg.
B. 50 mg.
C. 22.5 mg.
D. 11.25 mg

A

Anticoagulation

B

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54
Q

A female patient (height 163 cm, weight 65 kg)
has undergone a hip fracture surgery. She has normal renal and hepatic function. Which is the most
appropriate regimen for preventing VTE in this
patient?
A. Dabigatran 110 mg orally once 2 hours after
surgery, followed by 220 mg orally once daily.
B. Enoxaparin 30 mg subcutaneously once daily.
C. Fondaparinux 2.5 mg subcutaneously once daily.
D. Edoxaban 60 mg orally once daily.

A

Anticoagulation

C

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55
Q

B.D. is a 73-year-old male (height 175 cm, weight 80 kg) with newly diagnosed nonvalvular AF. He also has a
history of hypertension, dyslipidemia, stable ischemic heart disease, and systolic heart failure. His medications
include aspirin 81 mg orally daily, enalapril 10 mg orally daily, atorvastatin 80 mg orally daily, metoprolol
succinate 200 mg orally daily, furosemide 40 mg orally daily, spironolactone 25 mg orally daily, and amlodipine
10 mg orally daily. His heart rate is 72 beats/minute and blood pressure is 122/72 mm Hg. His laboratory values
include K 4.9 mEq/L, stable SCr 1.9 mg/dL, and blood glucose 101 mg/dL.
Which best depicts B.D.’s CHA2
DS2
-VASc score?
A. 2.
B. 3.
C. 4.
D. 5.

A

Anticoagulation

B

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56
Q

B.D. is a 73-year-old male (height 175 cm, weight 80 kg) with newly diagnosed nonvalvular AF. He also has a
history of hypertension, dyslipidemia, stable ischemic heart disease, and systolic heart failure. His medications
include aspirin 81 mg orally daily, enalapril 10 mg orally daily, atorvastatin 80 mg orally daily, metoprolol
succinate 200 mg orally daily, furosemide 40 mg orally daily, spironolactone 25 mg orally daily, and amlodipine
10 mg orally daily. His heart rate is 72 beats/minute and blood pressure is 122/72 mm Hg. His laboratory values
include K 4.9 mEq/L, stable SCr 1.9 mg/dL, and blood glucose 101 mg/dL.

Which is most accurate regarding DOAC therapy for reducing the risk of stroke in patients with nonvalvular
AF such as B.D.?
A. All the DOACs significantly reduced ischemic stroke in the phase III trials compared with warfarin.
B. All the DOACs significantly reduced hemorrhagic stroke in the phase III trials compared with warfarin.
C. Apixaban is more effective than rivaroxaban because apixaban was superior to warfarin in the
ARISTOTLE trial and rivaroxaban was only noninferior to warfarin in the ROCKET-AF trial.
D. Dabigatran was studied in patients with highest risk across the phase III trials and should not be used in
patients with a CHADS2 score less than 3.

A

Anticoagulation

B

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57
Q

B.D. is a 73-year-old male (height 175 cm, weight 80 kg) with newly diagnosed nonvalvular AF. He also has a
history of hypertension, dyslipidemia, stable ischemic heart disease, and systolic heart failure. His medications
include aspirin 81 mg orally daily, enalapril 10 mg orally daily, atorvastatin 80 mg orally daily, metoprolol
succinate 200 mg orally daily, furosemide 40 mg orally daily, spironolactone 25 mg orally daily, and amlodipine
10 mg orally daily. His heart rate is 72 beats/minute and blood pressure is 122/72 mm Hg. His laboratory values
include K 4.9 mEq/L, stable SCr 1.9 mg/dL, and blood glucose 101 mg/dL.

Which is the most appropriate regimen for reducing B.D.’s risk of stroke?
A. Dabigatran 75 mg orally twice daily.
B. Rivaroxaban 20 mg orally once daily.
C. Apixaban 5 mg orally twice daily.
D. Edoxaban 60 mg orally once daily

A

Anticoagulation

C

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58
Q

B.D. is a 73-year-old male (height 175 cm, weight 80 kg) with newly diagnosed nonvalvular AF. He also has a
history of hypertension, dyslipidemia, stable ischemic heart disease, and systolic heart failure. His medications
include aspirin 81 mg orally daily, enalapril 10 mg orally daily, atorvastatin 80 mg orally daily, metoprolol
succinate 200 mg orally daily, furosemide 40 mg orally daily, spironolactone 25 mg orally daily, and amlodipine
10 mg orally daily. His heart rate is 72 beats/minute and blood pressure is 122/72 mm Hg. His laboratory values
include K 4.9 mEq/L, stable SCr 1.9 mg/dL, and blood glucose 101 mg/dL.

Six months later, B.D. elects to undergo PCI for the management of his chronic coronary artery disease. He
has had no medication changes, and his vital signs and laboratory information remain consistent. Which is
the best available evidence-based approach to B.D.’s antithrombotic therapy?
A. Rivaroxaban 10 mg orally daily plus clopidogrel 75 mg orally daily.
B. Apixaban 2.5 mg orally twice daily plus clopidogrel 75 mg orally daily.
C. Adjusted-dose warfarin to an INR of 2.0–3.0 plus aspirin 81 mg orally daily plus clopidogrel 75 mg
orally daily.
D. Edoxaban 15 mg orally once daily plus aspirin 81 mg orally daily plus clopidogrel 75 mg orally daily

A

Anticoagulation

A

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59
Q

S.D. is a 62-year-old female (height 165 cm, weight 80 kg) with a history of significant primary mitral regurgitation. Her echocardiogram reveals significant leaflet flaring that is not amendable to mitral valve repair. She also has
a history of hypertension, dyslipidemia, and gout. Her medications include lisinopril 10 mg orally daily, hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg orally daily, simvastatin 40 mg orally daily, and allopurinol 300 mg orally daily. Her heart rate
is 68 beats/minute and blood pressure is 128/74 mm Hg. Her CrCl is 68 mL/minute. She is scheduled to undergo
valve replacement surgery and will receive a mechanical mitral valve. You are discussing the oral anticoagulant
postoperative plan with S.D.’s team

Which is the optimal regimen for preventing thrombosis?
A. Adjusted-dose warfarin to an INR goal of 2.5–3.5 plus aspirin 81 mg orally daily.
B. Adjusted-dose warfarin to an INR goal of 2.0–3.0 plus aspirin 81 mg orally daily.
C. Adjusted-dose warfarin to an INR goal of 2.0–3.0.
D. Adjusted-dose warfarin to an INR goal of 2.5–3.5.

A

Anticoagulation

D

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60
Q

S.D. is a 62-year-old female (height 165 cm, weight 80 kg) with a history of significant primary mitral regurgitation. Her echocardiogram reveals significant leaflet flaring that is not amendable to mitral valve repair. She also has
a history of hypertension, dyslipidemia, and gout. Her medications include lisinopril 10 mg orally daily, hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg orally daily, simvastatin 40 mg orally daily, and allopurinol 300 mg orally daily. Her heart rate
is 68 beats/minute and blood pressure is 128/74 mm Hg. Her CrCl is 68 mL/minute. She is scheduled to undergo
valve replacement surgery and will receive a mechanical mitral valve. You are discussing the oral anticoagulant
postoperative plan with S.D.’s team

Which best describes thrombotic risk in patients with valve replacement surgery?
A. Bioprosthetic valves carry a higher risk of thrombosis than mechanical valves.
B. The highest risk of thrombosis with bioprosthetic valve placement is during the first year after surgery.
C. All patients with mechanical heart valves require bridging therapy during invasive procedures.
D. Valve replacement in the mitral position carries a higher risk of thrombosis than in the aortic position

A

Anticoagulation

D

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61
Q

B.G. is a 62-year-old male (height 175 cm, weight 110 kg) hospitalized for a heart failure exacerbation. He has
symptoms when doing only limited exertion and has been out of bed only to use the bathroom for the past
3 days. His medical history also includes stable ischemic heart disease, hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and a
PE 2 years ago. He smokes 2 packs of cigarettes/day and drinks 1 glass of wine with dinner most evenings.
His medications include bisoprolol 5 mg orally daily, lisinopril 10 mg orally daily, aspirin 81 mg orally daily,
ranolazine 1000 mg orally twice daily, furosemide 40 mg orally daily, spironolactone 25 mg orally daily, and
metformin 1000 mg orally twice daily. His blood pressure today is 110/70 mm Hg and heart rate is 58 beats/
minute. His laboratory values are normal except for a BNP of 1498 ng/mL. Which is the most appropriate VTE
prevention strategy for B.G.?
A. Administer fondaparinux 5 mg subcutaneously daily.
B. Administer apixaban 2.5 mg orally twice daily.
C. Administer enoxaparin 40 mg subcutaneously daily.
D. His risk does not warrant prophylactic therapy.

A

Anticoagulation

C

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62
Q

A 48-year-old male (height 178 cm, weight 90 kg) presents to the ED with pain and swelling in his left leg.
On examination, his leg is warm to the touch and tender and has 3+ pitting edema below the knee. His
D-dimer is positive, and his duplex ultrasonography identifies a femoral-popliteal DVT. He understands
that he will need to receive anticoagulant therapy but wants to avoid any injections, if possible. He has good
insurance coverage. His other medical conditions are hypertension, HIV, and dyslipidemia. His medications
include benazepril 20 mg orally daily, ritonavir 100 mg orally daily, darunavir 800 mg orally daily, emtricitabine 200 mg/tenofovir disoproxil fumarate 300 mg orally daily, and atorvastatin 10 mg orally daily. His
vital signs are stable, and his CrCl is 78 mL/minute. Which is the most appropriate anticoagulant regimen to
initiate for this patient?
A. Rivaroxaban 15 mg orally twice daily for 21 days, followed by 20 mg orally daily.
B. Edoxaban 60 mg orally daily.
C. Warfarin 2.5 mg orally daily.
D. Apixaban 5 mg orally twice daily for 7 days, followed by 2.5 mg orally twice daily.

A

Anticoagulation

D

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63
Q

. A 49-year-old male (height 175 cm, weight 100 kg) was diagnosed with an idiopathic DVT 3 weeks ago. He
currently takes warfarin 8 mg orally daily. He missed his INR readings last week when he went on a short
vacation. Today, his INR is 10.4. He is not currently bleeding and has no risk factors for bleeding. In addition
to holding his warfarin dose, which is the best initial strategy for managing this patient’s high INR?
A. Hold warfarin only.
B. Hold warfarin and administer 4PCC 50 units/kg intravenously.
C. Hold warfarin and administer vitamin K 5 mg orally.
D. Hold warfarin and administer vitamin K 10 mg intravenously.

A

Anticoagulation

C

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64
Q

A 58-year-old male is receiving enoxaparin 40 mg subcutaneously daily for VTE prophylaxis. While trying
to shave himself at 6 p.m., he cuts his neck, and the medical team cannot stop the bleeding. His last enoxaparin dose was administered at 8 a.m. Which would be the most appropriate protamine dose (in milligrams) for
this patient?
A. 10.
B. 20.
C. 40.
D. 50

A

Anticoagulation

B

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65
Q

A 58-year-old woman remains intubated in the
intensive care unit (ICU) after a recent abdominal operation. In the operating room, she receives
more than 10 L of fluid and blood products, but has
received aggressive diuresis with furosemide postoperatively. In the past 3 days, she has generated
12 L of urine output, and her blood urea nitrogen
(BUN) and serum creatinine (SCr) have steadily
increased to 40 and 1.5 mg/dL, respectively. Her
urine chloride (Cl) concentration was 9 mEq/L
(24 hours after her last dose of furosemide). This
morning, her arterial blood gas (ABG) reveals pH
7.50, Paco2 46 mm Hg, and bicarbonate (HCO3

)
34 mEq/L. Her vital signs include blood pressure
85/40 mm Hg and heart rate 110 beats/minute.
Which action is best to improve her acid-base status?
A. 0.9% sodium chloride bolus.
B. 5% dextrose (D5
W) bolus.
C. Hydrochloric acid infusion.
D. Acetazolamide intravenously

A

Critical Care

A

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66
Q

A 21-year-old man (weight 80 kg) admitted 1
day ago after a gunshot wound to the abdomen
is receiving mechanical ventilation and is thrashing around in bed and pulling at his endotracheal
tube. His score is +3 on the Richmond AgitationSedation Scale (RASS). The patient is negative for
delirium according to the Confusion Assessment
Method for the ICU (CAM-ICU). His pulmonary
status precludes extubation, and the attending physician estimates that he will remain intubated for at
least 48 more hours. The medical team has decided
that his RASS goal should be between 0 and -1.
He is receiving a fentanyl infusion (150 mcg/hour),
which has been adequately controlling his pain
(Critical-Care Pain Observation Tool [CPOT] less
than 3 for 24 hours). Vital signs include blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg and heart rate 110 beats/minute. His baseline QTc interval is 460 milliseconds.
Which is the best intervention for achieving this
patient’s RASS goal?
A. Initiate a dexmedetomidine 1-mcg/kg loading
dose over 10 minutes, followed by 0.7 mcg/kg/
hour.
B. Initiate a lorazepam 3-mg intravenous load,
followed by a lorazepam 3-mg/hour infusion.
C. Initiate propofol at 5 mcg/kg/minute and
titrate by 5 mcg/kg/minute every 5 minutes as
needed.
D. Initiate haloperidol 1 mg intravenously, and
double the dose every 1 hour as needed.

A

Critical Care

C

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67
Q

A 62-year-old woman is admitted to the medical ICU for respiratory dysfunction necessitating
mechanical ventilation. She has no significant
medical history. Her chest radiograph reveals
bilateral lower lobe infiltrates, her white blood cell
count (WBC) is 21 × 103
cells/mm3
, lactate is 1.7
mmol/L, temperature is 103.3°F (39.6°C), blood
pressure is 82/45 mm Hg (normal for her is 115/70
mm Hg), heart rate is 110 beats/minute, and respiratory rate is 22 breaths/minute. After she is given
a diagnosis of community-acquired pneumonia,
she is empirically initiated on ceftriaxone 2 g/day
and azithromycin 500 mg/day intravenously. After
fluid resuscitation with 6 L of lactated Ringer solution, her blood pressure is unchanged. Dopamine
is initiated and titrated to 9 mcg/kg/minute, with a
resulting blood pressure of 96/58 mm Hg, and her heart rate is 138 beats/minute. She has made less
than 100 mL of urine during the past 6 hours, and
her SCr has increased from 0.9 mg/dL to 1.3 mg/
dL. Her serum albumin concentration is 2.7 g/dL.
Which therapy is best for this patient at this time?
A. Administer 5% albumin 500 mL intravenously over 1 hour and reassess mean arterial
pressure (MAP).
B. Initiate hydrocortisone 50 mg intravenously
every 6 hours.
C. Change dopamine to norepinephrine 0.01
mcg/kg/minute to maintain a MAP greater
than 65 mm Hg.
D. Reduce the dopamine infusion to 1 mcg/kg/
minute to maintain a urine output of at least 1
mL/kg/hour.

A

Critical Care

C

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68
Q

A 92-year-old woman (weight 51 kg) is admitted
to the ICU with urosepsis and septic shock. She
lives in a long-term care facility and has a medical history significant for coronary artery disease
and hypertension. Her blood pressure is 72/44 mm
Hg, central venous pressure (CVP) is 5 mm Hg,
heart rate 120 beats/minute, and oxygen saturation
(Sao2
) is 99%; her laboratory values are normal,
except for a BUN of 74 mg/dL and Cr of 2.7 mg/dL
(baseline of 1.5 mg/dL). Her urine output is about
20 mL/hour. Appropriate empiric antibiotics were
initiated. Which therapy is most appropriate to initiate next?
A. Norepinephrine 0.05 mcg/kg/minute.
B. Lactated Ringer solution 1500-mL bolus.
C. Dopamine 5 mcg/kg/minute.
D. Albumin 5% 500-mL bolus

A

Critical Care

B

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69
Q

46-year-old man had a witnessed cardiac arrest
in an airport terminal. After about 5 minutes, emergency medical services arrived, and defibrillator
pads were applied. The cardiac monitor showed
ventricular tachycardia (VT), and the patient had
no discernible pulse. He was defibrillated with
200 J without return of spontaneous circulation
(ROSC). He received an additional two shocks of
200 J with no improvement. Between shocks, the
patient received compressions. An intravenous line
was obtained, and an epinephrine 1-mg intravenous
push was given; chest compressions and artificial respirations were initiated. Within 1 minute, the
patient was reassessed. The cardiac monitor still
showed VT, and he remained pulseless; therefore,
another shock of 200 J, followed by an amiodarone
300-mg intravenous push, was administered. After
this, the patient was converted to a normal sinus
rhythm with a heart rate of 100 beats/minute. The
patient was then transported to the hospital, intubated and unresponsive. Which recommendation is
most likely to improve this patient’s outcomes?
A. Administer sodium bicarbonate 50 mEq
intravenously.
B. Administer vasopressin 40 unitsintravenously.
C. Administer a continuous infusion of heparin.
D. Initiate a targeted temperature management
protocol.

A

Critical Care

D

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70
Q

A 72-year-old man is admitted to the medical ICU
for post-cardiac arrest care with targeted temperature management. His body temperature was maintained at 91.4°F (33°C) for 24 hours, and the health
care team decides it is time to rewarm slowly at
0.5°C every hour. Which is most important to consider during the rewarming phase?
A. Frequent laboratory monitoring is necessary
to guide potassium supplementation because
of the risk of hypokalemia.
B. A vecuronium continuous infusion should be
administered to prevent shivering.
C. Phenytoin should be administered for seizure
prophylaxis.
D. Frequent blood glucose monitoring is necessary, given the risk of hypoglycemia.

A

Critical Care

D

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71
Q

A 65-year-old man with a history of hypothyroidism, heart failure, and myocardial infarction is
admitted to the ICU with severe community-acquired pneumonia. Six hours after admission, he
develops acute respiratory failure, hypotension,
and acute kidney injury from presumed sepsis. He
is placed on mechanical ventilation, and a nasogastric tube is placed, with no plans for extubation.
Which is most appropriate for this patient’s stress
ulcer prophylaxis (SUP)?
A. Administer sucralfate 1 g four times daily by
nasogastric tube.
B. Administer magnesium hydroxide 30 mL four
times daily by nasogastric tube.
C. Administer famotidine 20 mg intravenously
daily.
D. No prophylaxis is indicated for this patient
because he has no risk factors for SUP.

A

Critical Care

C

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72
Q

A 45-year-old man is admitted to the ICU with
H1N1 influenza causing respiratory failure. He is
intubated and sedated with fentanyl 200 mcg/hour
and propofol 25 mcg/kg/minute. He has received
4 L of lactated Ringer solution and 1 L of albumin and is currently receiving norepinephrine 0.15
mcg/kg/minute and vasopressin 0.03 unit/minute
for hemodynamic support. His current vital signs
are blood pressure 85/58 mm Hg, heart rate 99
beats/minute, and respiratory rate 18 breaths/minute. Which is the best plan for this patient’s steroid
therapy?
A. Initiate hydrocortisone 50 mg every 6 hours
intravenously.
B. Perform a cosyntropin stimulation test and
initiate hydrocortisone 50 mg every 6 hours
intravenously if the patient does not have an
increase greater than 9 mcg/dL from baseline.
C. Check a random cortisol and initiate
hydrocortisone 50 mg every 6 hours intravenously if the result is less than 10 mcg/dL.
D. Steroids are not indicated at this time.

A

Critical Care

A

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73
Q

A 19-year-old man (height 71 inches [180 cm],
weight 68 kg) is admitted to the ICU after ingesting
an unknown quantity of acetaminophen. After initial resuscitation and treatment with acetylcysteine,
the patient remains unresponsive and intubated.
The intensivist would like to start enteral nutrition
(EN) as soon as possible. Which is the best way to
calculate the patient’s caloric and protein needs?
A. Estimate caloric needs at 25 kcal/kg and protein at 1.2 g/kg.
B. Perform indirect calorimetry to estimate
caloric and protein needs.
C. Estimate caloric needs at 14 kcal/kg and protein at 2 g/kg.
D. Calculate caloric needs based on the Mifflin
equation, and order a prealbumin concentration
to assess protein needs.

A

Critical Care

A

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74
Q

A 57-year-old woman is admitted to the ICU with
injuries sustained after a fall from 12 feet. She has
traumatic brain injury and has been intubated for
airway protection. What is the best intervention
to prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia in this
patient?
A. Initiate pantoprazole 40 mg intravenously daily.
B. Perform selective digestive decontamination
with enteral polymyxin B sulfate, neomycin
sulfate, and vancomycin hydrochloride.
C. Maintain head of bed elevation at 20 degrees
at all times.
D. Start chlorhexidine 0.12% oral swabs twice
daily.

A

Critical Care

D

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75
Q

You are the critical care pharmacist for a 300-bed
hospital. The critical care committee wants to
institute an evidence-based glucose control protocol for the ICU. What is the best goal to implement
for patients who present with septic shock?
A. Check blood glucose every 6 hours and treat
with sliding scale protocol when greater than
180 mg/dL.
B. Initiate insulin infusion with a target of
110–140 mg/dL for two blood glucose values
greater than 140 mg/dL.
C. Initiate insulin infusion with a target of
140–200 mg/dL for two blood glucose values
greater than 180 mg/dL.
D. Initiate insulin infusion with a target blood
glucose of 80–110 mg/dL for two blood glucose values greater than 150 mg/dL.

A

Critical Care

C

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76
Q

Which is the most appropriate therapy to reduce
the risk of delayed ischemia and improve neurologic outcomes after an aneurysmal subarachnoid
hemorrhage (SAH)?
A. Clevidipine continuous infusion titrated to
maintain a systolic blood pressure (SBP) less
than 160 mm Hg.
B. Nimodipine 60 mg orally every 4 hours for 21
days.
C. Norepinephrine continuous infusion titrated
to maintain an SBP greater than 160 mm Hg.
D. Amlodipine 10 mg orally every 24 hours for 21
days.

A

Critical Care

B

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77
Q

A 62-year-old woman has been hospitalized in the ICU for several weeks. Her hospital stay has been complicated by aspiration pneumonia and sepsis, necessitating prolonged courses of antibiotics. For the past few
days, she has been having high temperatures, and her stool output has increased dramatically. Her most recent
stool samples have tested positive for Clostridioides difficile toxin, and her laboratory tests show serum sodium
138 mEq/L, K 3.5 mEq/L, Cl 115 mEq/L, HCO3
− 15 mEq/L, albumin 4.4 g/dL, pH 7.32, and Paco2
30 mm Hg.
Which is most consistent with this patient’s primary acid-base disturbance?
A. AG metabolic acidosis.
B. Non-AG metabolic acidosis.
C. Chloride-responsive metabolic alkalosis.
D. Acute respiratory acidosis.

A

Critical Care

B

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78
Q

A 32-year-old man with no pertinent medical history is admitted to the hospital after being “found down” in
his home with an empty bottle of alprazolam by his side. On arrival at the emergency department, he was neurologically unresponsive, with the following ABG values: pH 7.21, Paco2 58 mm Hg, Pao2 90 mm Hg, HCO3

24 mEq/L, and Sao2 86% on 2 L/minute of oxygen by nasal cannula. Which action is most appropriate?
A. Administer acetazolamide 500 mg intravenous push.
B. Administer 100% oxygen by face mask.
C. Give sodium bicarbonate 100 mEq intravenous push.
D. Provide urgent intubation.

A

Critical Care

D

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79
Q

A 55-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital after several days of worsening shortness of breath. Recently,
she was discharged from the hospital after a similar episode and was doing fine until 3 days before admission,
when she developed a productive cough, necessitating an increase in her home oxygen and more frequent use
of her metered dose inhalers. On admission to the medical ICU, she was anxious and markedly distressed, with
rapid, shallow breaths. She was hypertensive (160/80 mm Hg), tachycardic (140 beats/minute), and tachypneic
(respiratory rate 28 breaths/minute). Her ABG showed pH 7.30, Paco2 59 mm Hg, Pao2 50 mm Hg, HCO3
− 28
mEq/L, and Sao2 83% on 6 L/minute of oxygen by face mask, and she was immediately intubated. Her most
recent laboratory tests show serum sodium 142 mEq/L, K 3.8 mEq/L, Cl 109 mEq/L, HCO3
− 28 mEq/L, and
albumin 4.1 g/dL. Which primary acid-base disturbance is most consistent with this patient’s presentation and
laboratory data?
A. AG metabolic acidosis.
B. Non-AG metabolic acidosis
C. Respiratory acidosis.
D. Respiratory alkalosis.

A

Critical Care

C

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80
Q

A 65-year-old woman is admitted to cardiac surgery ICU after an aortic valve replacement. On hospital day 4,
she is hypotensive (blood pressure 80/50 mm Hg), tachycardic (heart rate 125 beats/minute), tachypneic (respiratory rate 30 breaths/minute), hypoxemic (Pao2 40 mm Hg), febrile (temperature 103.1°F [39.5°C]), and confused. The patient is given adequate boluses of lactated Ringer solution and is then intubated and initiated
on piperacillin/tazobactam and vancomycin for possible nosocomial pneumonia. After fluid boluses fail to
improve her hemodynamic and clinical status, a pulmonary artery catheter is placed, which reveals a PCWP
of 18 mm Hg, CI of 3.3 L/minute/m2
and SVR of 515 dynes/second/cm5
. Her chest radiograph reveals a left
lower lobe consolidation, and she still needs 100% fraction of inspired oxygen (FiO2). Which action is best?
A. Administer angiotensin II infusion titrated to achieve a MAP of at least 65 mm Hg.
B. Administer a dobutamine infusion titrated to achieve a MAP of at least 65 mm Hg.
C. Administer a norepinephrine infusion titrated to achieve a MAP of at least 65 mm Hg.
D. Administer a dopamine infusion titrated to achieve a MAP of at least 65 mm Hg

A

Critical Care

C

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81
Q

A patient (weight 75 kg) is to be initiated on a continuous infusion of norepinephrine for blood pressure support because of septic shock. The nurse has a 250-mL bag of normal saline containing 4 mg of norepinephrine.
Which rate is most appropriate to infuse the norepinephrine drip at a dose of 0.05 mcg/kg/minute?
A. 7 mL/hour.
B. 14 mL/hour.
C. 31.5 mL/hour.
D. 79 mL/hour

A

Critical Care

B

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82
Q

A 42-year-old man was found unresponsive at his group home covered in vomit. He was intubated by the
paramedics. On arrival at the emergency department, his blood pressure is 72/30 mm Hg and heart rate is 95
beats/minute. During the next few hours, he receives 5 L of lactated Ringer solution, 500 mL of 5% albumin,
and norepinephrine infusing at 0.5 mcg/kg/minute. With these interventions, his blood pressure is 87/56 mm
Hg and heart rate is 148 beats/minute. Pertinent laboratory values include WBC 20 × 103
cells/mm3
, lactic acid
1.5 mmol/L, aspartate aminotransferase 78 units/L, SCr 2.2 (baseline 1) mg/dL, platelet count 118,000 cells/
mm3
, international normalized ratio (INR) 1.4, and urine output about 45 mL/hour since arrival. Which is the
most appropriate intervention at this time?
A. Add hydrocortisone 50 mg intravenously every 6 hours.
B. Change norepinephrine infusion to phenylephrine infusion.
C. Change norepinephrine infusion to dopamine infusion.
D. Administer 1 L of lactated Ringer solution.

A

Critical Care

B

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83
Q

A 61-year-old woman collapses in front of her family members, who call 9-1-1 and begin CPR. The paramedics arrive and find the victim unresponsive, with an electrocardiogram revealing ventricular fibrillation,
and administer two additional rounds of CPR and two defibrillations, which are successful. In the emergency
department, the patient’s MAP is 68 mm Hg after fluids and norepinephrine, but the patient remains unresponsive. She is initiated on a TTM protocol. After 24 hours of TTM (body temperature 37°C), the patient is in the
ICU, and the rewarming process has recently begun. The pharmacist arrives in the ICU about 30 minutes into
the rewarming process. The patient has been receiving a continuous infusion of insulin throughout the period
of TTM at an average rate of 4 units/hour, with blood glucose testing every 3 hours. The patient has been
sedated with a continuous infusion of propofol and fentanyl and is receiving cisatracurium for neuromuscular
blockade. The patient’s vital signs are stable, and her laboratory values are normal. Which pharmacist recommendation is most appropriate at this time?
A. Increase blood glucose testing to now and every 1–2 hours during rewarming.
B. Adjust cisatracurium infusion to achieve a TOF of 0/4 impulses.
C. Discontinue propofol infusion to facilitate extubation.
D. Increase insulin infusion to prevent hyperkalemia

A

Critical Care

A

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84
Q

An older woman is admitted to the ICU for acute decompensated heart failure and acute kidney injury with
an ejection fraction of less than 30%. She is administered a continuous infusion of bumetanide; however, the
benefit is limited because of her acute-on-chronic kidney disease. She is intubated on ICU day 2 because of
worsening pulmonary edema and hypoxia. After intubation, her RASS score is 0, her CAM-ICU is negative,
and her CPOT score is 4. Her blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg and heart rate is 88 beats/minute. Which is the
best recommendation for achieving her analgesia, sedation, and delirium goals?
A. Initiate morphine at 5 mg/hour and titrate as needed.
B. Administer haloperidol 5 mg intravenously as needed.
C. Administer fentanyl 25 mcg intravenously every hour as needed.
D. Initiate lorazepam 2 mg/hour and titrate as needed.

A

Critical Care

C

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85
Q

A 42-year-old woman with ARDS and a significant history of alcohol and tobacco abuse is transferred to the medical ICU from an outside hospital. She presented to the outside hospital after 1 week of productive cough, fever,
chills, and increased shortness of breath. On admission to the medical ICU, she is hypotensive (80/60 mm Hg),
tachycardic (130 beats/minute), and febrile (body temperature 102.2°F [39.0°C]). Her ABG shows pH 7.1, Paco2
56 mm Hg, Pao2 49 mm Hg, HCO3
− 16 mEq/L, and Sao2
76% on 100% FiO2
. The only other significant laboratory
results are SCr 2.1 mg/dL and WBC 16 × 103
cells/mm3
. She is achieving her sedation goals with continuous infusions of propofol 20 mcg/kg/minute and fentanyl 200 mcg/hour.

After several nonpharmacologic attempts to improve her oxygenation fail, she is paralyzed, and her ventilator settings are adjusted accordingly. Which statement about neuromuscular blockade in this patient is most
appropriate?
A. Opioids should be discontinued to avoid prolonged neuromuscular weakness.
B. Vecuronium is the agent of choice.
C. Sedatives should be titrated to maintain a RASS goal of 0 to –2 during neuromuscular blockade.
D. Neuromuscular blockers should be titrated to the minimal dose necessary to achieve ventilator synchrony.

A

Critical Care

D

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86
Q

A 42-year-old woman with ARDS and a significant history of alcohol and tobacco abuse is transferred to the medical ICU from an outside hospital. She presented to the outside hospital after 1 week of productive cough, fever,
chills, and increased shortness of breath. On admission to the medical ICU, she is hypotensive (80/60 mm Hg),
tachycardic (130 beats/minute), and febrile (body temperature 102.2°F [39.0°C]). Her ABG shows pH 7.1, Paco2
56 mm Hg, Pao2 49 mm Hg, HCO3
− 16 mEq/L, and Sao2
76% on 100% FiO2
. The only other significant laboratory
results are SCr 2.1 mg/dL and WBC 16 × 103
cells/mm3
. She is achieving her sedation goals with continuous infusions of propofol 20 mcg/kg/minute and fentanyl 200 mcg/hour.

The patient was initiated on neuromuscular blockade as instructed and synchronous with the ventilator, but
about 8 hours later, she began to move around violently in her bed. At this time, she was tachycardic (heart
rate 120 beats/minute) and appeared agitated; her Sao2 dropped to 80%. Which action is best?
A. Double the rate of the neuromuscular blocker every 5 minutes as needed until the patient stops moving.
B. Increase the propofol infusion rate as needed to achieve sedation goals.
C. Initiate a dexmedetomidine infusion.
D. Check the TOF.

A

Critical Care

B

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87
Q

A 42-year-old woman with ARDS and a significant history of alcohol and tobacco abuse is transferred to the medical ICU from an outside hospital. She presented to the outside hospital after 1 week of productive cough, fever,
chills, and increased shortness of breath. On admission to the medical ICU, she is hypotensive (80/60 mm Hg),
tachycardic (130 beats/minute), and febrile (body temperature 102.2°F [39.0°C]). Her ABG shows pH 7.1, Paco2
56 mm Hg, Pao2 49 mm Hg, HCO3
− 16 mEq/L, and Sao2
76% on 100% FiO2
. The only other significant laboratory
results are SCr 2.1 mg/dL and WBC 16 × 103
cells/mm3
. She is achieving her sedation goals with continuous infusions of propofol 20 mcg/kg/minute and fentanyl 200 mcg/hour.

 After that event, the patient did poorly the rest of the night. The patient was initiated on a norepinephrine infusion at 0.02 mcg/kg/minute to maintain an adequate blood pressure. Other medications initiated overnight included piperacillin/tazobactam, vancomycin, and gentamicin. By morning, her SCr has increased to 2.8 mg/dL, and the night shift nurse reports that the patient has had 0/4 twitches on TOF for the past 8 hours. Pertinent electrolyte values include K+ 4.9 mEq/L, calcium 9 mg/dL, and magnesium 2 mg/dL. What is most likely to potentiate the effects of the neuromuscular blocker? A. Piperacillin/tazobactam. B. Gentamicin. C. Norepinephrine. D. Potassium concentration.
A

Critical Care

B

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88
Q

A 73-year-old woman (weight 84 kg) is admitted to the ICU after a pneumonectomy and has been intubated for
4 days. Her blood pressure is 104/65 mm Hg, heart rate is 88 beats/minute, and Sao2 values are 98% on 40% FiO2
and positive end-expiratory pressure 5 cm H2
O; her Glasgow Coma Scale score is 11. Her other laboratory values
are normal. Her medications include simvastatin 20 mg every night, aspirin 81 mg/ day, metoprolol 25 mg twice
daily, heparin 5000 units subcutaneously every 8 hours, and 0.9% sodium chloride intravenously at 75 mL/hour

The surgeon would like to initiate SUP. Which is the best recommendation for this patient?
A. Administer famotidine 20 mg per tube every 12 hours.
B. Administer magnesium hydroxide 30 mL per tube four times daily.
C. Administer sucralfate 1 g per tube four times daily.
D. SUP is not indicated.

A

Critical Care

A

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89
Q

A 73-year-old woman (weight 84 kg) is admitted to the ICU after a pneumonectomy and has been intubated for
4 days. Her blood pressure is 104/65 mm Hg, heart rate is 88 beats/minute, and Sao2 values are 98% on 40% FiO2
and positive end-expiratory pressure 5 cm H2
O; her Glasgow Coma Scale score is 11. Her other laboratory values
are normal. Her medications include simvastatin 20 mg every night, aspirin 81 mg/ day, metoprolol 25 mg twice
daily, heparin 5000 units subcutaneously every 8 hours, and 0.9% sodium chloride intravenously at 75 mL/hour

One week later, the patient is extubated but still in the ICU. Her Glasgow Coma Scale score is 15, blood pressure is 112/70 mm Hg, and heart rate is 75 beats/minute, but her appetite is poor. Which statement is most
appropriate regarding SUP for this patient?
A. SUP should continue until the patient is discharged from the ICU.
B. SUP should be discontinued now.
C. Continue SUP until patient is eating.
D. SUP should be discontinued at hospital discharge.

A

Critical Care

B

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90
Q

A 75-year-old woman (height 65 inches [165 cm], weight 68 kg) who is intubated needs mechanical ventilation for
an acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. She has a medical history of heart failure and
hypertension. Her laboratory values are normal except for a creatinine level of 1.9 mg/dL

Which is the most appropriate recommendation to prevent VTE in this patient?
A. Initiate intermittent pneumatic compression.
B. Administer fondaparinux 2.5 mg subcutaneously once daily.
C. Administer enoxaparin 30 mg subcutaneously twice daily.
D. Administer heparin 5000 units subcutaneously three times daily

A

Critical Care

D

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91
Q

A 75-year-old woman (height 65 inches [165 cm], weight 68 kg) who is intubated needs mechanical ventilation for
an acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. She has a medical history of heart failure and
hypertension. Her laboratory values are normal except for a creatinine level of 1.9 mg/dL

 Three days later, the patient continues to need mechanical ventilation. Enteral nutrition has been initiated through her nasogastric feeding tube and has gradually been increased to her goal of 45 mL/hour. Over the past day, her gastric residuals are consistently 300–350 mL. Which statement is most appropriate to optimize this patient’s nutrition support? A. Change to PN.
 B.	 Add metoclopramide 5 mg intravenously every 6 hours. C. Change feeds to a more concentrated formula. D. Decrease tube feeds to 10 mL/hour.
A

Critical Care

B

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92
Q

A 74-year-old woman (weight 72 kg) arrives in
the emergency department with a 3-day history
of cough, body temperature of 102°F (38.9°C),
and lethargy. She has the following vital signs and
laboratory values: blood pressure 72/40 mm Hg,
heart rate 115 beats/minute, urine output 10 mL/
hour, white blood cell count (WBC) 18 × 103
cells/
mm3
, hemoglobin 12.5 g/dL, and blood urea nitrogen (BUN)/serum creatinine (SCr) ratio of 28:1.7
mg/dL (baseline SCr 1.2 mg/dL), and blood glucose 82 mg/dL. After a 500-mL fluid bolus of 0.9%
sodium chloride, her blood pressure is 80/46 mm
Hg and her heart rate is 113 beats/minute. Her chest
radiograph is consistent with pneumonia. Her medical history includes coronary artery disease and
arthritis. Which is the most appropriate treatment
at this time?
A. Furosemide 40 mg intravenously.
B. 5% albumin 500 mL infused over 4 hours plus
norepinephrine titrated to maintain a systolic
blood pressure of 90 mm Hg or higher.
C. 1000-mL fluid bolus with 5% dextrose (D5
W)
and 0.9% sodium chloride.
D. 1000-mL fluid bolus with 0.9% sodium chloride.

A

Fluids, Electrolytes, Nutrition

D

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93
Q

An order has been received for 2% sodium chloride. Assume no commercially available product is
available. Using 0.9% sodium chloride and 23.4%
sodium chloride, first determine how much of each
is necessary to prepare 1 L of 2% sodium chloride.
Second, calculate the osmolarity of 2% sodium
chloride. Finally, determine whether the resultant
solution should be administered through a central or peripheral intravenous infusion (molecular
weight [MW] of sodium chloride is 58.5, osmotic
coefficient is 0.93).
A. Mix 951 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride plus
49 mL of 23.4% sodium chloride; osmolarity =
635 mOsm/L; peripheral intravenous infusion.
B. Mix 951 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride plus
49 mL of 23.4% sodium chloride; osmolarity
= 954 mOsm/L; central intravenous infusion.
C. Mix 850 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride plus
150 mL of 23.4% sodium chloride; osmolarity
= 954 mOsm/L; central intravenous infusion.
D. Mix 850 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride plus
150 mL of 23.4% sodium chloride; osmolarity
=513mOsm/L; peripheralintravenousinfusion.

A

Fluids, Electrolytes, Nutrition

A

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94
Q

A 68-year-old man is admitted to the hospital for
worsening shortness of breath during the past 2
weeks caused by heart failure. His serum sodium
concentration on admission was 123 mEq/L. Other
abnormal laboratory values include brain natriuretic peptide of 850 pg/mL and SCr of 1.7 mg/
dL. Chest radiography is consistent with pulmonary edema. The patient weighs 85 kg on admission, which is up 3 kg from his baseline weight.
The patient is not experiencing nausea, headache,
or mental status changes. The physician orders 3%
sodium chloride to treat the hyponatremia. Which
recommendation is best?
A. 3% sodium chloride is an appropriate choice
because the hyponatremia is probably acute.
B. A 250-mL bolus of 3% sodium chloride is
appropriate if used in combination with furosemide to prevent volume overload.
C. 3% sodium chloride is appropriate if the serum
sodium does not increase more than 10 mEq/L
in 24 hours.
D. The risks of 3% sodium chloride outweigh the
potential benefit for this patient

A

Fluids, Electrolytes, Nutrition

D

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95
Q

A 55-year-old man with diabetes and kidney disease has hyperkalemia. His laboratory values
include potassium (K+
) 7.2 mEq/L, calcium (Ca2+)
9 mg/dL, albumin 3.5 g/dL, and blood glucose 302
mg/dL. His electrocardiogram (ECG) is abnormal,
with peaked T waves. What is the best recommendation for initial treatment?
A. Regular insulin 10 units intravenously plus
50 g of dextrose intravenously.
B. 10% calcium gluconate 10 mL intravenously.
C. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)
15 g orally.
D. Sodium bicarbonate 50 mEq intravenously
over 5 minutes.

A

Fluids, Electrolytes, Nutrition

B

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96
Q

A 68-year-old woman (weight 60 kg) is admitted
to the hospital after a cardioembolic stroke. Her
medical history is significant for atrial fibrillation,
acute myocardial infarction, and diabetes. She has
been unconscious for 48 hours. The medical team
decides to start providing nutrition. All of her laboratory values, including glucose concentrations,
are normal. Although she currently has no enteral
access, she does have a peripheral intravenous
catheter. Which nutritional regimen is best for this
patient?
A. Insert a central intravenous catheter and initiate parenteral nutrition (PN) containing 60 g
of amino acids (AAs), 250 mL of 20% lipid
emulsion, 300 g of dextrose, standard electrolytes, multivitamins, and trace elements
in a volume of 2000 mL administered over
24 hours.
B. Insert a central intravenous catheter and initiate PN containing 40 g of AAs, 250 mL of
20% lipid emulsion, 200 g of dextrose, standard electrolytes, multivitamins, and trace
elements in a total volume of 2000 mL administered over 24 hours.
C. Insert a nasogastric (NG) or nasoduodenal
feeding tube and infuse an isotonic formula
(1 kcal/mL) starting at 25 mL/hour and
advance to a goal rate of 65 mL/hour.
D. Insert a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy
feeding tube and infuse an isotonic formula
(1 kcal/mL) starting at 25 mL/hour and
advance to a goal rate of 100 mL/hour.

A

Fluids, Electrolytes, Nutrition

C

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97
Q

A 70-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with
peritonitis caused by severe inflammatory bowel
disease. The patient has received adequate fluid
resuscitation, and he is prescribed appropriate
antibiotics. After several days of the patient being
unable to tolerate oral or enteral nutrition, the physician consults the pharmacist to recommend a PN
formula to be administered through a central line.
The patient is hemodynamically stable, with normal electrolyte concentrations. Weight is 55 kg,
BUN/SCr is 20/1.1 mg/dL, and WBC is 17 × 103
cells/mm3
. Assuming that appropriate electrolytes,
multivitamins, and trace elements are included,
which PN formula, when administered over 24
hours, will best provide this patient adequate calories, AAs, and lipids?
A. AAs 10% 700 mL, dextrose 30% 325 mL,
lipid 20% 500 mL.
B. AAs 10% 450 mL, dextrose 70% 400 mL,
lipid 20% 250 mL.
C. AAs 10% 800 mL, dextrose 70% 350 mL,
lipid 20% 250 mL
D. AAs 15% 900 mL, dextrose 50% 500 mL,
lipid 20% 250 mL.

A

Fluids, Electrolytes, Nutrition

C

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98
Q

A 59-year-old man has been admitted to the hospital after several days of vomiting and diarrhea.
In the emergency department, he had several
runs of nonsustained ventricular tachycardia. His
plasma potassium on admission is 2.8 mEq/L.
After 100 mEq of potassium chloride is infused
over 24 hours, his repeated K+
is 3.2 mEq/L, and he
continues to have runs of ventricular tachycardia.
Other laboratory values include Na+
143 mEq/L,
magnesium 1.4 mg/dL, phosphorus 3 mg/dL, Ca2+
9 mg/dL, and ionized Ca2+ 1.1 mmol/L. Which
treatment would be best to give next?
A. Administer potassium chloride 20 mEq intravenously over 1 hour each for 4 doses and
recheck K+
.
B. Administer magnesium sulfate as a 2 g slow
intravenous infusion over 2 hours.
C. Administer potassium phosphate 15 mmol
intravenously over 4 hours.
D. Administer calcium gluconate 2 g intravenously over 5 minutes.

A

Fluids, Electrolytes, Nutrition

B

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99
Q

Which nutritional strategy can best prevent
gut mucosal atrophy and subsequent bacterial
translocation?
A. PN enriched with glutamine.
B. PN enriched with branched-chain AAs.
C. Enteral nutrition (EN).
D. Zinc supplementation.

A

Fluids, Electrolytes, Nutrition

C

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100
Q

A female patient (weight 80 kg) in the intensive care
unit has developed acute kidney injury caused by
sepsis, and she requires intermittent hemodialysis
daily to maintain her BUN/SCr ratio at 49:2.5 mg/
dL. Currently, she is receiving appropriate antibiotics and is hemodynamically stable. She has also
been receiving PN providing 72 g of AAs per day.
What is the best recommendation for this patient’s
protein intake?
A. Reduce AAs to 40 g/day.
B. Reduce AAs to 64 g/day.
C. Increase AAs to 96 g/day.
D. Increase AAs to 160 g/day

A

Fluids, Electrolytes, Nutrition

C

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101
Q

A 65-year-old man (weight 80 kg) with a 3-day history of a body temperature of 102°F (38.9°C), lethargy, and
productive cough is hospitalized for community-acquired pneumonia. His medical history includes uncontrolled
hypertension and coronary artery disease. His vital signs include heart rate 104 beats/minute, blood pressure
112/68 mm Hg, and body temperature 101.4°F (38.6°C). His urine output is 10 mL/hour, K+ is 4 mEq/L, BUN is 46
mg/dL, SCr is 1.7 mg/dL, and WBC is 10.4 × 103
cells/mm3
. Other laboratory values are normal.

Which is most appropriate at this time?
A. Furosemide 40 mg intravenously.
B. Albumin 25% 100 mL intravenously over 60 minutes.
C. Lactated Ringer solution 1000 mL intravenously over 60 minutes.
D. D5
W/0.45% sodium chloride plus potassium chloride 20 mEq/L to infuse at 110 mL/hour

A

Fluids, Electrolytes, Nutrition

C

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102
Q

A 65-year-old man (weight 80 kg) with a 3-day history of a body temperature of 102°F (38.9°C), lethargy, and
productive cough is hospitalized for community-acquired pneumonia. His medical history includes uncontrolled
hypertension and coronary artery disease. His vital signs include heart rate 104 beats/minute, blood pressure
112/68 mm Hg, and body temperature 101.4°F (38.6°C). His urine output is 10 mL/hour, K+ is 4 mEq/L, BUN is 46
mg/dL, SCr is 1.7 mg/dL, and WBC is 10.4 × 103
cells/mm3
. Other laboratory values are normal.

After 2 days of appropriate antibiotic treatment, the patient has a WBC of 9 × 103
cells/mm3
, and he is afebrile.
His blood pressure is 135/85 mm Hg, and his urine output is 45 mL/hour. His albumin is 3.2 g/dL, BUN is
14 mg/dL, K+ is 3.9 mEq/L, and SCr is 1.4 mg/dL. All other laboratory values are normal. His appetite is still
poor, and he is not taking adequate fluids. He has peripheral intravenous access. Which option is most appropriate to initiate?
A. Peripheral PN to infuse at 110 mL/hour.
B. Albumin 5% 500 mL intravenously over 60 minutes.
C. D5
W/0.45% sodium chloride plus potassium chloride 20 mEq/L to infuse at 110 mL/hour.
D. Lactated Ringer solution to infuse at 75 mL/hour.

A

Fluids, Electrolytes, Nutrition

C

103
Q

A 72-year-old woman (weight 60 kg) with a history of hypertension has developed hyponatremia after starting
hydrochlorothiazide 3 weeks earlier. She experiences dizziness, fatigue, and nausea. Herserum sodium is 116 mEq/L.
Her blood pressure is 86/50 mm Hg, and heart rate is 122 beats/minute.

In addition to discontinuing hydrochlorothiazide, which initial treatment regimen is best?
A. Administer 0.9% sodium chloride infused at 100 mL/hour.
B. Administer 0.9% sodium chloride 500-mL bolus.
C. Administer 3% sodium chloride infused at 60 mL/hour.
D. Administer 23.4% sodium chloride 30-mL bolus as needed

A

Fluids, Electrolytes, Nutrition

B

104
Q

A 72-year-old woman (weight 60 kg) with a history of hypertension has developed hyponatremia after starting
hydrochlorothiazide 3 weeks earlier. She experiences dizziness, fatigue, and nausea. Herserum sodium is 116 mEq/L.
Her blood pressure is 86/50 mm Hg, and heart rate is 122 beats/minute.

Which is the best treatment goal for the first 24 hours in correcting the patient’s serum sodium from her initial
value of 116 mEq/L?
A. Increase Na+ concentration to 140 mEq/L.
B. Increase Na+ concentration to 132 mEq/L.
C. Increase Na+ concentration to 126 mEq/L.
D. Maintain serum sodium of 116–120 mEq/L.

A

Fluids, Electrolytes, Nutrition

C

105
Q

A 72-year-old woman (weight 60 kg) with a history of hypertension has developed hyponatremia after starting
hydrochlorothiazide 3 weeks earlier. She experiences dizziness, fatigue, and nausea. Herserum sodium is 116 mEq/L.
Her blood pressure is 86/50 mm Hg, and heart rate is 122 beats/minute.

One day later, the patient has somewhat improved. Her blood pressure is 122/80 mm Hg, and heart rate is
80 beats/minute. Her serum sodium is 120 mEq/L, and K+ is 3.2 mEq/L; she still feels tired. She is eating a
regular diet. Her ECG is normal. Which is the best recommendation?
A. D5
W/0.9% sodium chloride plus potassium chloride 40 mEq/L to infuse at 100 mL/hour.
B. 0.9% sodium chloride infused at 100 mL/hour.
C. 3% sodium chloride infused at 60 mL/hour.
D. Potassium chloride 20 mEq by mouth every 6 hours for 4 doses.

A

Fluids, Electrolytes, Nutrition

D

106
Q

A 74-year-old woman (weight 50 kg) has been receiving isotonic tube feedings at 60 mL/hour for the past
8 days through her gastrostomy feeding tube. She recently had an ischemic stroke; she is responsive but is not
able to communicate. Her serum sodium was 142 mg/dL on the day the isotonic formula was initiated, and it
has risen steadily to 149, 156, and 159 mg/dL on days 3, 4, and 8, respectively, after the start of the tube feedings. What is the best treatment for her hypernatremia?
A. Administer sterile water intravenously at 80 mL/hour.
B. Administer D5
W intravenously at 80 mL/hour.
C. Administer D5
W/0.225% sodium chloride intravenously at 80 mL/hour.
D. Administer water by enteral feeding tube 200 mL every 6 hours

A

Fluids, Electrolytes, Nutrition

D

107
Q

A 61-year-old man comes to the emergency department with shortness of breath and bilateral lower leg edema.
Pertinent vital signs and laboratory values include heart rate 30 beats/minute, blood pressure 102/57 mm Hg,
K+ 7.9 mEq/L, Na+ 139 mEq/L, glucose 278 mg/dL, Ca2+ 8.8 mg/dL, digoxin 2.2 ng/mL, BUN 49 mg/dL, and
SCr 2.4 mg/dL. His medical history includes heart failure, atrial fibrillation, coronary artery disease, peripheral arterial disease, and diabetes. The patient has peripheral intravenous access and an external pacemaker.
Which treatment is most appropriate for lowering this patient’s potassium?
A. Calcium gluconate 10 mL intravenously over 2 minutes.
B. Insulin 10 units intravenously.
C. Sodium bicarbonate 50 mEq intravenously over 10 minutes.
D. Albuterol 10 mg nebulized over 10 minutes.

A

Fluids, Electrolytes, Nutrition

B

108
Q

A 72-year-old woman (weight 65 kg) is switched from a standard enteral formula to a concentrated tube feeding designed for patients with kidney disease, because of hyperkalemia. The patient’s baseline and current
SCr is 1.7 mg/dL, and her urine output is about 50 mL/hour. The tube feeding is infusing at a goal rate of
35 mL/hour through an NG feeding tube providing 2 kcal/mL, Na+
41 mEq/L, and 717 mL/L of water. The
patient’s serum sodium was 140 mEq/L when the tube feeding was initiated a few days ago, and her Na+
is now
145 mEq/L. What is the best approach for preventing hypernatremia in this patient?
A. Change to an EN formula with a lower concentration of Na+
.
B. Administer intravenous D5
W at 45 mL/hour.
C. Administer 200 mL of water through a feeding tube every 4 hours.
D. Reduce the tube feeding to 30 mL/hour.

A

Fluids, Electrolytes, Nutrition

C

109
Q

A 43-year-old male trauma patient (height 75 inches, weight 100 kg) was recently extubated and is receiving
PN. His PN formula contains 35 kcal/kg, protein 1.2 g/kg, and dextrose infusing at 4.4 mg/kg/minute, and 25%
of total calories as lipid. He has gradually developed symptoms of hypercapnia and has developed a respiratory acidosis. The medical team is considering strategies to correct this to avoid reintubation. Which change
to the PN formula could best correct this situation?
A. Change PN to EN and maintain current caloric goals.
B. Reduce dextrose amount in PN to 3 mg/kg/minute and increase lipid to maintain current caloric goal.
C. Change electrolytes to the acetate salt in the PN to correct the acid-base imbalance.
D. Reduce the calories to 25 kcal/kg to prevent overfeeding.

A

Fluids, Electrolytes, Nutrition

D

110
Q

A patient (weight 70 kg) receives propofol at 45 mcg/kg/minute. Propofol is available at a concentration of
10 mg/mL and is mixed in a 10% lipid emulsion. Assuming the patient is receiving this infusion rate for
24 hours, which best approximates the total calories provided by the propofol infusion in a 24-hour period?
A. 200 kcal.
B. 250 kcal.
C. 300 kcal.
D. 500 kcal.

A

Fluids, Electrolytes, Nutrition

D

111
Q

A patient (weight 65 kg) is receiving PN after abdominal surgery. The PN contains about 1600 kcal, including 100 g of protein, 500 kcal as lipid, and 200 g of dextrose. The following additives are also included in
a 24-hour infusion of PN: sodium chloride 50 mEq, sodium acetate 100 mEq, potassium acetate 60 mEq,
sodium phosphate 30 mmol, magnesium sulfate 12 mEq, calcium gluconate 10 mEq/day, multivitamins
10 mL, and trace elements 3 mL. The patient has an NG tube in place that is suctioning 400–500 mL/day,
which is being replaced with an infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride. After 48 hours of PN, the patient has the
following laboratory values: Na+ 140 mEq/L, K+ 3.8 mEq/L, Cl– 93 mEq/L, serum bicarbonate 35 mEq/L, pH
7.5, PCO2 47 mm Hg, and bicarbonate 36 mEq/L. Which adjustment to the PN formula is best at this time?
A. Increase lipids to provide 750 kcal and reduce dextrose to 130 g.
B. Increase sodium acetate to 150 mEq/day and discontinue sodium chloride.
C. Increase sodium chloride to 150 mEq/day and discontinue sodium acetate.
D. Add sodium bicarbonate 50 mEq to PN

A

Fluids, Electrolytes, Nutrition

C

112
Q

A 75-year-old woman (weight 50 kg) is receiving PN after an extensive bowel resection. She is expected to require
about 1 week of PN. She is receiving the following macronutrients in her formula: 70% dextrose 300 mL, 20%
lipid 150 mL, and 10% AA 750 mL.

. If these macronutrients are infused over 24 hours, which choice most closely approximates the total calories
this patient is receiving daily?
A. 20 kcal/kg.
B. 26 kcal/kg.
C. 30 kcal/kg.
D. 35 kcal/kg

A

Fluids, Electrolytes, Nutrition

B

113
Q

A 75-year-old woman (weight 50 kg) is receiving PN after an extensive bowel resection. She is expected to require
about 1 week of PN. She is receiving the following macronutrients in her formula: 70% dextrose 300 mL, 20%
lipid 150 mL, and 10% AA 750 mL.

The patient has received the PN formula for 3 days. Her blood glucose concentrations have ranged from
220 to 280 mg/dL. She has orders for the following sliding scale of regular insulin: blood glucose 200–250
mg/dL, give 2 units; blood glucose 251–300 mg/dL, give 4 units; and blood glucose 301–350 mg/dL, give
6 units. She has been receiving 14–16 units of insulin daily through the sliding-scale orders. Her medical
history is significant for hypertension, diabetes, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, and colon cancer.
Treatment was recently initiated with methylprednisolone 60 mg intravenously every 6 hours for a chronic
obstructive pulmonary disease exacerbation. Today, the dose will be reduced to 40 mg intravenously every
8 hours. What is the best recommendation for better control of this patient’s blood glucose?
A. Add insulin glargine 10–20 units/day to PN.
B. Change 70% dextrose in PN to D5
W.
C. Increase the sliding-scale insulin to 4 units for blood glucose 200–250 mg/dL, 8 units for blood glucose
251–300 mg/dL, and 12 units for blood glucose 301–350 mg/dL.
D. Add neutral protamine Hagedorn insulin (NPH) 5 units subcutaneously every 12 hours.

A

Fluids, Electrolytes, Nutrition

D

114
Q

A 36-year-old presents with a 16-year history of
schizophrenia and alcohol use disorder. Medication
was recently changed from haloperidol to aripiprazole because of gynecomastia and sexual dysfunction. Today, the patient is pacing in your office and
seems anxious and agitated. The patient has not
been sleeping well and feels uncomfortable in their
skin. Which medication would be most appropriate
to help relieve this patient’s symptoms?
A. Benztropine.
B. Dantrolene.
C. Lorazepam.
D. Propranolol.

A

Psychiatry & Mental Health

D

115
Q

A 52-year-old (current BMI 35 kg/m2
) with schizophrenia presents for a routine follow-up. Abnormal,
uncontrollable repetitive chewing-type movements
in their jaw exist. These movements are bothersome and interfere with eating ability. The patient
stays home because of shame about being seen in
public. Medication history includes perphenazine
for the past 8 years with good control of symptoms.
The patient is able to live independently and care
for themselves. Therapeutic trials of aripiprazole,
ziprasidone, and haloperidol have yielded subtherapeutic results. A 22.7-kg (50 lb) weight gain and
development of type 2 diabetes occurred while taking olanzapine. The diabetes resolved off olanzapine. Which would be the best treatment?
A. Add benztropine.
B. Add lorazepam.
C. Change to quetiapine.
D. Add valbenazine.

A

Psychiatry & Mental Health

D

116
Q

A 67-year-old is admitted for new-onset tonicclonic seizures. Medical history is negative for
seizure disorders but positive for prediabetes and
schizophrenia. The patient has long-term, stable
schizophrenia controlled with clozapine 900 mg
daily. Additional medications include diphenhydramine 50 mg at bedtime, metformin 1000 mg twice
daily, and bupropion extended release (ER) 300
mg daily (for 2 months). Social history is negative
for alcohol and illicit drug use but positive for a
25 pack-year tobacco history, which was stopped
2 weeks ago. Which medication is most likely
responsible for the seizures?
A. Bupropion.
B. Clozapine.
C. Diphenhydramine.
D. Metformin.

A

Psychiatry & Mental Health

B

117
Q

A 25-year-old presents to your practice with a
depressed mood that has worsened during the past
few weeks. The patient finds it difficult to get out of
bed in the morning. When not sleeping, the patient
is eating. Weight has increased by 4.5 kg (10 lb) in
the past month. They are worried about their job
and do not feel that they are “pulling [their] weight,”
even though they recently received a glowing evaluation. They have passive thoughts of harming
themselves but no definite plan. Medical history
includes anxiety, gastroesophageal reflux disease,
and hypothyroidism thyrotropin within normal
limits). Current medications include levothyroxine
100 mcg daily, lansoprazole 30 mg every morning,
and alprazolam 0.5 mg three times daily for anxiety. Which medication would best treat the current
symptoms?
A. Desipramine.
B. Fluoxetine.
C. Mirtazapine.
D. Paroxetine.

A

Psychiatry & Mental Health

B

118
Q

A 56-year-old presents with a medical history significant for recurrent major depression and type 2
diabetes with newly diagnosed neuropathy, obesity,
and coronary artery disease. Current medications
include citalopram 40 mg daily, carvedilol 25 mg
twice daily, lisinopril 40 mg daily, and metformin
1000 mg twice daily. The patient is tearful during
the appointment and continues to have symptoms
of depression despite initial improvement with citalopram. The patient wants to change antidepressants. Which would be most beneficial?
A. Bupropion.
B. Duloxetine.
C. Nortriptyline.
D. Sertraline.

A

Psychiatry & Mental Health

B

119
Q

A 45-year-old presents with agitation and diaphoresis and an oral temperature of 38.5°C (101.3°F).
Their right eyelid began twitching about an hour
ago, and it will not stop. Cold symptoms developed 2 days ago, and the patient began taking
dextromethorphan and pseudoephedrine aroundthe-clock. Medical history includes depression,
hypertension, and dyslipidemia. Current medications include cetirizine 10 mg at bedtime, paroxetine 40 mg at bedtime, diltiazem extended release
(XR) 240 mg daily, and rosuvastatin 10 mg daily.
Which combination of medications is most likely
contributing to the current symptoms?
A. Cetirizine and paroxetine.
B. Dextromethorphan and pseudoephedrine.
C. Diltiazem and pseudoephedrine.
D. Paroxetine and dextromethorphan

A

Psychiatry & Mental Health

D

120
Q

A 31-year-old presents with a 5-year history of type
I bipolar disorder, which is treated with lithium
300 mg twice daily. The patient has been adherent to treatment. A lithium serum concentration,
obtained yesterday before the morning lithium
dose, is 1.0 mEq/L. There have been no manic
symptoms for the past few years. Current admission is for a suicide attempt using acetaminophen.
For the past few weeks, they have lost interest in
their job and isolated themselves from other people. Which medication would best help the acute
symptoms?
A. Aripiprazole.
B. Lamotrigine.
C. Quetiapine.
D. Venlafaxine

A

Psychiatry & Mental Health

C

121
Q

A 28-year-old woman (height 61 inches, weight
74.8 kg, up from 68 kg 2 months ago) presents with
a history of type I bipolar disorder. She has taken
lithium 450 mg twice daily for the past 6 months.
Her last lithium serum concentration (3 months
ago) was 0.7 mEq/L. She presents today for an
annual examination. Her laboratory test results
include sodium 138 mEq/L, potassium 4.7 mEq/L,
serum creatinine 0.9 mg/dL, glucose 124 mg/dL,
and thyrotropin 24 mIU/mL. Additional medications include olanzapine 10 mg at bedtime (for 1
year), ethinyl estradiol/drospirenone daily, and a
multivitamin. Which laboratory finding is most
closely associated with her current medication
regimen?
A. Glucose.
B. Serum creatinine.
C. Sodium.
D. Thyrotropin.

A

Psychiatry & Mental Health

D

122
Q

A 43-year-old presents with right upper quadrant
abdominal pain with rebound tenderness, nausea,
and vomiting. Medical history is significant for rapid-cycling bipolar disorder, hypertension, obesity,
and asthma. Current medications include divalproex sodium 500 mg twice daily, lamotrigine 150
mg twice daily, aripiprazole 30 mg daily, ramipril
10 mg daily, albuterol hydrofluoroalkane (HFA) 2
puffs every 6 hours, and fluticasone/salmeterol dry
powder inhaler 250/50 mcg twice daily. A prednisone taper was initiated 3 days ago for an asthma
exacerbation. Laboratory test results include
sodium 141 mEq/L, potassium 3.3 mEq/L, chloride
95 mEq/L, carbon dioxide 26 mmol/L, serum creatinine 1.0 mg/dL, glucose 72 mg/dL, total cholesterol 165 mg/dL, triglycerides 188 mg/dL, aspartate
aminotransferase (AST) 27 U/L, alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 21 U/L, amylase 456 U/L, lipase
387 U/L, and valproic acid trough concentration
56 mg/dL. Which medication is most likely to be
impacted with her current medication regimen?
A. Aripiprazole.
B. Divalproex sodium.
C. Lamotrigine.
D. Prednisone.

A

Psychiatry & Mental Health

B

123
Q

A 20-year-old presents to the emergency department after experiencing trembling, sweating,
chest pain, and shortness of breath accompanied
by intense fear. A myocardial infarction has been
ruled out. The patient is diagnosed with panic disorder. In addition to a medication for acute symptoms, which medication would provide the best
long-term control?
A. Alprazolam.
B. Buspirone.
C. Hydroxyzine.
D. Paroxetine.

A

Psychiatry & Mental Health

D

124
Q

A 55-year-old woman presents with uncontrolled
generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Concomitant
medical conditions include a history of breast
cancer, dyslipidemia, osteoarthritis, vasomotor
symptoms, and osteopenia. She takes tamoxifen,
simvastatin, ibuprofen, lorazepam, and alendronate. Her physician would like her to have better
control of her anxiety symptoms. He would also
like to taper off lorazepam. Her GAD has not been
controlled with escitalopram, sertraline, or duloxetine. Which agent would be best?
A. Bupropion.
B. Fluoxetine.
C. Pregabalin.
D. Venlafaxine.

A

Psychiatry & Mental Health

C

125
Q

A 74-year-old has difficulty getting to sleep. Once
asleep, rest is comfortable throughout the night.
The patient has struggled with keeping a consistent bedtime for the past few months. There are
no identifiable contributing factors. Concomitant
medical conditions include hypertension, arthritis,
and mild cognitive impairment. Diphenhydramine
helped for only a few nights and “made me loopy.”
They would like a medication with the least risk of
hangover effect. Which medication is best?
A. Eszopiclone.
B. Ramelteon.
C. Suvorexant.
D. Zolpidem

A

Psychiatry & Mental Health

B

126
Q

A 23-year-old has a history of heroin addiction and
has successfully been maintained on methadone
40 mg daily for 1 year. The patient would like an
option that does not require a visit to a daily opioid treatment program to get their methadone dose.
The patient is taking no other medications or substances of abuse. Which treatment regimen is most
appropriate?
A. Initiate supervised buprenorphine/naloxone.
B. Change to buprenorphine × 2 days; then take
buprenorphine/naloxone.
C. Change to naltrexone.
D. Taper to methadone 30 mg; then change to
buprenorphine.

A

Psychiatry & Mental Health

D

127
Q

A 55-year-old has a 30-year history of alcohol dependence. Daily intake is 1 pint of vodka.
Several quit attempts have been unsuccessful.
They recently reconciled with their estranged son
and want to be sober so that they can be present
in their son’s life. Medical history includes heroin
use, depression, and posttraumatic stress disorder
(PTSD). Concomitant medications include methadone maintenance (which they wish to continue)
and sertraline (currently nonadherent). Liver function test results include AST 143 U/L, ALT 74 U/L,
albumin 4.0 g/dL, alkaline phosphatase 75 U/L,
total bilirubin 0.3 mg/dL, prothrombin time 15.1
seconds, international normalized ratio (INR) 0.9,
platelet count 370,000/mm3
, and creatinine clearance 40 mL/minute/1.73 m2
. After alcohol detoxification, which maintenance treatment is most
appropriate?
A. Acamprosate 333 mg three times daily.
B. Chlordiazepoxide 25 mg four times daily.
C. Disulfiram 500 mg daily.
D. Naltrexone 50 mg daily.

A

Psychiatry & Mental Health

A

128
Q

A 44-year-old is preparing to be discharged from
the hospital after a myocardial infarction. They
have a 25 pack-year history of smoking cigarettes
and currently smokes 1½ packs/day. Two unsuccessful quit attempts exist, including quitting
“cold turkey” the first time about 5 years ago.
Smoking resumed 6 months later after a job loss.
Another attempt occurred 6 months ago using
the 2-mg strength of nicotine gum. Seven pieces
were chewed daily in an effort to save money. The
patient has just been given a diagnosis of depression. Which regimen would be best?
A. Bupropion sustained release (SR).
B. Nicotine gum.
C. Nicotine patch.
D. Varenicline

A

Psychiatry & Mental Health

A

129
Q

A 25-year-old (BMI 35 kg/m2
) has recently diagnosed schizophrenia. The patient often hears voices telling them
they are “stupid and worthless” and should “just jump off the roof of their apartment building.” The patient’s parents became very concerned about isolative behavior and brought the patient to the hospital. The patient was given
haloperidol in the psychiatry unit and now presents with neck stiffness and in oculogyric crisis. Until now, they
have not taken medications because they thought they could control their symptoms on their own with vitamins,
though they have difficulty remembering to take these. The patient has an additional history of marijuana and
alcohol use disorders. A blood alcohol concentration is 0, and a urine drug screen is negative.

Which is most appropriate for this patient’s symptoms at this time?
A. Benztropine.
B. Dantrolene.
C. Lorazepam.
D. Propranolol.

A

Psychiatry & Mental Health

A

130
Q

A 25-year-old (BMI 35 kg/m2
) has recently diagnosed schizophrenia. The patient often hears voices telling them
they are “stupid and worthless” and should “just jump off the roof of their apartment building.” The patient’s parents became very concerned about isolative behavior and brought the patient to the hospital. The patient was given
haloperidol in the psychiatry unit and now presents with neck stiffness and in oculogyric crisis. Until now, they
have not taken medications because they thought they could control their symptoms on their own with vitamins,
though they have difficulty remembering to take these. The patient has an additional history of marijuana and
alcohol use disorders. A blood alcohol concentration is 0, and a urine drug screen is negative.

Aripiprazole is initiated. Which is the best rationale for this selection, given patient-specific factors?
A. Aripiprazole has no risk of causing extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS).
B. Aripiprazole is available in a long-acting injection (LAI) to increase adherence.
C. Aripiprazole would eliminate this patient’s negative symptoms.
D. Aripiprazole is effective against substance use disorders.

A

Psychiatry & Mental Health

B

131
Q

A 25-year-old (BMI 35 kg/m2
) has recently diagnosed schizophrenia. The patient often hears voices telling them
they are “stupid and worthless” and should “just jump off the roof of their apartment building.” The patient’s parents became very concerned about isolative behavior and brought the patient to the hospital. The patient was given
haloperidol in the psychiatry unit and now presents with neck stiffness and in oculogyric crisis. Until now, they
have not taken medications because they thought they could control their symptoms on their own with vitamins,
though they have difficulty remembering to take these. The patient has an additional history of marijuana and
alcohol use disorders. A blood alcohol concentration is 0, and a urine drug screen is negative.

Which is the best example of an adverse effect of aripiprazole that would be of concern when initiated in this
patient?
A. Sedation.
B. Anticholinergic effects.
C. Akathisia.
D. Corrected QT (QTc) prolongation.

A

Psychiatry & Mental Health

C

132
Q

A 25-year-old (BMI 35 kg/m2
) has recently diagnosed schizophrenia. The patient often hears voices telling them
they are “stupid and worthless” and should “just jump off the roof of their apartment building.” The patient’s parents became very concerned about isolative behavior and brought the patient to the hospital. The patient was given
haloperidol in the psychiatry unit and now presents with neck stiffness and in oculogyric crisis. Until now, they
have not taken medications because they thought they could control their symptoms on their own with vitamins,
though they have difficulty remembering to take these. The patient has an additional history of marijuana and
alcohol use disorders. A blood alcohol concentration is 0, and a urine drug screen is negative.

One year later, they no longer respond to aripiprazole, and you decide to change their medication. They are
only interested in oral medications. Given this patient’s history, which agent is most appropriate at this time?
A. Clozapine.
B. Fluphenazine.
C. Olanzapine.
D. Ziprasidone.

A

Psychiatry & Mental Health

D

133
Q

A 45-year-old has a medical history significant for sleep apnea, hypertension, type 2 diabetes, chronic pain,
and bulimia. The current clinic visit is for an assessment of depressive symptoms and a medication evaluation.
Endorsed symptoms include sad mood, poor appetite (lost 6.8 kg [15 lb]), poor concentration, and feelings of
hopelessness and worthlessness for the past 3 weeks. The patient has also stopped going to book club because of
lack of motivation to get out of the house, and there are frequent nocturnal awakenings. The patient denies suicidal
or homicidal ideation. The patient also denies any use of alcohol, tobacco, or illicit drugs. Current medications
include hydrochlorothiazide, metformin, hydrocodone/acetaminophen, and aspirin. Current BMI is 20 kg/m2, and
blood pressure today is 152/94 mm Hg. The patient reports adherence to current medications.

Which selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) would most likely interact with the current medications?
A. Citalopram.
B. Fluvoxamine.
C. Paroxetine.
D. Sertraline

A

Psychiatry & Mental Health

C

134
Q

A 45-year-old has a medical history significant for sleep apnea, hypertension, type 2 diabetes, chronic pain,
and bulimia. The current clinic visit is for an assessment of depressive symptoms and a medication evaluation.
Endorsed symptoms include sad mood, poor appetite (lost 6.8 kg [15 lb]), poor concentration, and feelings of
hopelessness and worthlessness for the past 3 weeks. The patient has also stopped going to book club because of
lack of motivation to get out of the house, and there are frequent nocturnal awakenings. The patient denies suicidal
or homicidal ideation. The patient also denies any use of alcohol, tobacco, or illicit drugs. Current medications
include hydrochlorothiazide, metformin, hydrocodone/acetaminophen, and aspirin. Current BMI is 20 kg/m2, and
blood pressure today is 152/94 mm Hg. The patient reports adherence to current medications.

Which antidepressant would be most appropriate for the depressive symptoms?
A. Bupropion.
B. Fluoxetine.
C. Mirtazapine.
D. Venlafaxine.

A

Psychiatry & Mental Health

C

135
Q

A 45-year-old has a medical history significant for sleep apnea, hypertension, type 2 diabetes, chronic pain,
and bulimia. The current clinic visit is for an assessment of depressive symptoms and a medication evaluation.
Endorsed symptoms include sad mood, poor appetite (lost 6.8 kg [15 lb]), poor concentration, and feelings of
hopelessness and worthlessness for the past 3 weeks. The patient has also stopped going to book club because of
lack of motivation to get out of the house, and there are frequent nocturnal awakenings. The patient denies suicidal
or homicidal ideation. The patient also denies any use of alcohol, tobacco, or illicit drugs. Current medications
include hydrochlorothiazide, metformin, hydrocodone/acetaminophen, and aspirin. Current BMI is 20 kg/m2, and
blood pressure today is 152/94 mm Hg. The patient reports adherence to current medications.

It has been 4 weeks since the initial visit with you, and the patient has been treated with citalopram 20 mg/
day in the morning. Sad mood persists, but insomnia, concentration, and appetite have improved. Persistent
symptoms include feelings of hopelessness and worthlessness, lack of motivation, and anhedonia. No adverse
effects exist. At this point, which is the best recommendation to optimize therapy?
A. Continue citalopram 20 mg/day.
B. Increase citalopram to 40 mg/day.
C. Add aripiprazole.
D. Change to a different SSRI.

A

Psychiatry & Mental Health

B

136
Q

A 45-year-old has a medical history significant for sleep apnea, hypertension, type 2 diabetes, chronic pain,
and bulimia. The current clinic visit is for an assessment of depressive symptoms and a medication evaluation.
Endorsed symptoms include sad mood, poor appetite (lost 6.8 kg [15 lb]), poor concentration, and feelings of
hopelessness and worthlessness for the past 3 weeks. The patient has also stopped going to book club because of
lack of motivation to get out of the house, and there are frequent nocturnal awakenings. The patient denies suicidal
or homicidal ideation. The patient also denies any use of alcohol, tobacco, or illicit drugs. Current medications
include hydrochlorothiazide, metformin, hydrocodone/acetaminophen, and aspirin. Current BMI is 20 kg/m2, and
blood pressure today is 152/94 mm Hg. The patient reports adherence to current medications.

Six months later, depression symptoms have resolved, but citalopram is causing anorgasmia, which is unacceptable to the patient. Which is the most appropriate recommendation at this time?
A. Discontinue citalopram.
B. Add bupropion to citalopram.
C. Change to a different SSRI.
D. Change to vortioxetine.

A

Psychiatry & Mental Health

D

137
Q

A 26-year-old with a history of type I bipolar disorder presents to the inpatient unit. Their spouse found them withdrawing their life savings from the bank. The patient states that they are the perfect candidate for the presidency. The
patient has not slept in the past 48 hours and is hyperverbal. The patient is placed on an involuntary mental health
hold for control of manic symptoms. There is a history of nonadherence to medications and the patient currently
takes none. The last hospitalization was 2 months ago, when the patient had significant depressive symptoms and
suicidal ideation. The patient has three or four hospitalizations per year. Previous medication trials include olanzapine and lamotrigine. The patient has also been given a diagnosis of hepatitis C with AST 175 U/L and ALT 186 U/L.

Which mood stabilizer is most appropriate for this patient at this time?
A. Carbamazepine.
B. Divalproex sodium.
C. Lamotrigine.
D. Lithium

A

Psychiatry & Mental Health

D

138
Q

A 26-year-old with a history of type I bipolar disorder presents to the inpatient unit. Their spouse found them withdrawing their life savings from the bank. The patient states that they are the perfect candidate for the presidency. The
patient has not slept in the past 48 hours and is hyperverbal. The patient is placed on an involuntary mental health
hold for control of manic symptoms. There is a history of nonadherence to medications and the patient currently
takes none. The last hospitalization was 2 months ago, when the patient had significant depressive symptoms and
suicidal ideation. The patient has three or four hospitalizations per year. Previous medication trials include olanzapine and lamotrigine. The patient has also been given a diagnosis of hepatitis C with AST 175 U/L and ALT 186 U/L.

Which treatment-emergent adverse effect would be of most concern and would require immediate evaluation
if lithium were prescribed?
A. Hypothyroidism.
B. Coarse tremor.
C. Severe acne.
D. Weight gain.

A

Psychiatry & Mental Health

B

139
Q

A 26-year-old with a history of type I bipolar disorder presents to the inpatient unit. Their spouse found them withdrawing their life savings from the bank. The patient states that they are the perfect candidate for the presidency. The
patient has not slept in the past 48 hours and is hyperverbal. The patient is placed on an involuntary mental health
hold for control of manic symptoms. There is a history of nonadherence to medications and the patient currently
takes none. The last hospitalization was 2 months ago, when the patient had significant depressive symptoms and
suicidal ideation. The patient has three or four hospitalizations per year. Previous medication trials include olanzapine and lamotrigine. The patient has also been given a diagnosis of hepatitis C with AST 175 U/L and ALT 186 U/L.

Three months later, the patient’s condition has been stable on lithium 900 mg/day. Today, during a clinic visit,
they are confused and slurring their words. The current lithium serum concentration is 1.9 mEq/L. Current
medications include amlodipine for hypertension, atorvastatin for dyslipidemia, and zolpidem for sleep. They
began running a week ago. They have been replacing fluids using an oral rehydrating solution (Gatorade) and
taking ibuprofen around-the-clock for pain. Which most likely contributed to this patient’s current clinical
situation?
A. Amlodipine.
B. Gatorade.
C. Ibuprofen.
D. Zolpidem

A

Psychiatry & Mental Health

C

140
Q

A 36-year-old woman (BMI 20 kg/m2
) with type I bipolar disorder presents to your clinic tearful, with a
2-week history of depressed mood, anhedonia, insomnia, feelings of worthlessness, and loss of appetite. She
has passive thoughts of suicide, but no concrete plan. She currently takes lithium, with a trough serum concentration of 1.1 mEq/L. Which medication would be best to treat her current episode?
A. Divalproex sodium.
B. Lamotrigine.
C. Quetiapine.
D. Venlafaxine.

A

Psychiatry & Mental Health

C

141
Q

A recent Iraq war veteran has responded to treatment with paroxetine for major depression for the past
3 weeks. Clinical presentation today includes experiencing nightmares, “feeling on edge all the time,” and
having flashbacks of time in the war. After evaluation, the patient is diagnosed with posttraumatic stress
disorder (PTSD). There is no history of substance dependence and no significant medical history. Which recommendation is most appropriate for this patient at this time?
A. Continue paroxetine because it treats both PTSD and major depression.
B. Discontinue paroxetine and initiate sertraline, which treats both PTSD and major depression.
C. Continue paroxetine and add lorazepam for the anxiety symptoms.
D. Discontinue paroxetine and initiate buspirone for the anxiety symptoms.

A

Psychiatry & Mental Health

A

142
Q

A 48-year-old has newly diagnosed generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). The patient cannot sleep at night and
reports frequent headaches treated with ibuprofen. Family history is positive for depression (mother) and
anxiety (sister). Which medication would be best for long-term symptom resolution?
A. Alprazolam.
B. Buspirone.
C. Paroxetine.
D. Pregabalin.

A

Psychiatry & Mental Health

C

143
Q

A 27-year-old with panic disorder is having difficulty functioning at work. The first panic attack occurred
while getting a cup of coffee. It felt like a heart attack and was evaluated at the local emergency department,
where physical causes were ruled out. There have been several subsequent episodes. Place and time of repeat
episodes are unpredictable. Absenteeism from work is high, and job security is thus a concern. The medical
history is otherwise unremarkable. Which medication would most quickly allow the patient to return to work?
A. Alprazolam.
B. Buspirone.
C. Paroxetine.
D. Venlafaxine

A

Psychiatry & Mental Health

A

144
Q

A 21-year-old has newly diagnosed obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). They cannot hold a job because
they are consumed by their obsessions and compulsions. They are convinced that their obsessions are reality.
Which medication is most appropriate to initiate?
A. Bupropion.
B. Desipramine.
C. Fluoxetine.
D. Mirtazapine.

A

Psychiatry & Mental Health

C

145
Q

A 38-year-old kindergarten teacher presents to the clinic today with noticeable dark circles under the eyes. They have
difficulty with sleep, mainly with staying asleep. It takes about 20 minutes to fall asleep, but after about 5 hours,
they wake up and cannot fall asleep again for several hours. This pattern has negatively affected job performance,
and they feel tired all the time. They once took diphenhydramine for sleep but had to miss work because of extreme
drowsiness in the morning. They wonder whether they could take any other medications. Other medical problems
include hypothyroidism (levothyroxine 125 mcg at bedtime), hypertension (hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg in the morning), chronic back pain (ibuprofen 800 mg three times daily), and MDD (citalopram 20 mg in the morning).

Which agent is most likely contributing to insomnia?
A. Citalopram.
B. Hydrochlorothiazide.
C. Ibuprofen.
D. Levothyroxine.

A

Psychiatry & Mental Health

D

146
Q

A 38-year-old kindergarten teacher presents to the clinic today with noticeable dark circles under the eyes. They have
difficulty with sleep, mainly with staying asleep. It takes about 20 minutes to fall asleep, but after about 5 hours,
they wake up and cannot fall asleep again for several hours. This pattern has negatively affected job performance,
and they feel tired all the time. They once took diphenhydramine for sleep but had to miss work because of extreme
drowsiness in the morning. They wonder whether they could take any other medications. Other medical problems
include hypothyroidism (levothyroxine 125 mcg at bedtime), hypertension (hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg in the morning), chronic back pain (ibuprofen 800 mg three times daily), and MDD (citalopram 20 mg in the morning).

Which medication used for insomnia is most appropriate to recommend for this patient after adjusting the medication in question 17?
A. Trazodone.
B. Temazepam.
C. Zaleplon.
D. Zolpidem.

A

Psychiatry & Mental Health

D

147
Q

A 38-year-old kindergarten teacher presents to the clinic today with noticeable dark circles under the eyes. They have
difficulty with sleep, mainly with staying asleep. It takes about 20 minutes to fall asleep, but after about 5 hours,
they wake up and cannot fall asleep again for several hours. This pattern has negatively affected job performance,
and they feel tired all the time. They once took diphenhydramine for sleep but had to miss work because of extreme
drowsiness in the morning. They wonder whether they could take any other medications. Other medical problems
include hypothyroidism (levothyroxine 125 mcg at bedtime), hypertension (hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg in the morning), chronic back pain (ibuprofen 800 mg three times daily), and MDD (citalopram 20 mg in the morning).

Which adverse effect of zolpidem would carry the greatest potential for harm in this patient?
A. Orthostasis.
B. Disorientation.
C. Abnormal behaviors while asleep.
D. Seizures with high doses of the drug

A

Psychiatry & Mental Health

C

148
Q

A 50-year-old patient with a 25-year history of alcohol dependence was found unconscious after a drinking binge.
The patient was first admitted to the medical unit for alcohol withdrawal symptoms before being transferred to the
substance dependence unit. The last drink was 6 hours ago, and fluids have been initiated. The patient has had three
alcohol withdrawal seizures in the past and an episode of delirium tremens. Significant hepatitis is also present, and
liver function tests show AST 275 U/L and ALT 130 U/L. Additional laboratory test values include albumin 4.2 g/
dL, alkaline phosphatase 152 IU/L, and g-glutamyl transferase 470 units/L.

Which symptom are you most likely to observe in the medical unit in this patient on admission?
A. Alcohol craving.
B. Delirium tremens.
C. Increased heart rate.
D. Seizures.

A

Psychiatry & Mental Health

C

149
Q

A 50-year-old patient with a 25-year history of alcohol dependence was found unconscious after a drinking binge.
The patient was first admitted to the medical unit for alcohol withdrawal symptoms before being transferred to the
substance dependence unit. The last drink was 6 hours ago, and fluids have been initiated. The patient has had three
alcohol withdrawal seizures in the past and an episode of delirium tremens. Significant hepatitis is also present, and
liver function tests show AST 275 U/L and ALT 130 U/L. Additional laboratory test values include albumin 4.2 g/
dL, alkaline phosphatase 152 IU/L, and g-glutamyl transferase 470 units/L.

Which agent is best for this patient’s alcohol withdrawal symptoms?
A. Chlordiazepoxide.
B. Clonazepam.
C. Diazepam.
D. Lorazepam

A

Psychiatry & Mental Health

D

150
Q

A 50-year-old patient with a 25-year history of alcohol dependence was found unconscious after a drinking binge.
The patient was first admitted to the medical unit for alcohol withdrawal symptoms before being transferred to the
substance dependence unit. The last drink was 6 hours ago, and fluids have been initiated. The patient has had three
alcohol withdrawal seizures in the past and an episode of delirium tremens. Significant hepatitis is also present, and
liver function tests show AST 275 U/L and ALT 130 U/L. Additional laboratory test values include albumin 4.2 g/
dL, alkaline phosphatase 152 IU/L, and g-glutamyl transferase 470 units/L.

Which medication is best for this patient’s alcohol dependence?
A. Acamprosate.
B. Diazepam.
C. Disulfiram.
D. Naltrexone.

A

Psychiatry & Mental Health

A

151
Q

A 34-year-old wants to stop using oxycodone. They have been buying it off the street and are using 160 mg
daily. The patient has no interest in methadone maintenance but wants to enroll in an outpatient program. The
last oxycodone dose was 24 hours ago. The patient is having some anxiety and muscle aches. Treatment will
start in the clinic. Which is best to initiate in this patient?
A. Buprenorphine 2 mg.
B. Buprenorphine 4 mg.
C. Buprenorphine/naloxone 2 mg/1 mg.
D. Buprenorphine/naloxone 4 mg/1 mg

A

Psychiatry & Mental Health

D

152
Q

E.S. is a 25-year-old electrician. He has had several episodes of memory lapses. His wife reports
lip smacking and chewing movements during these
spells. An electroencephalogram (EEG) reveals
focal epileptiform spike waves. Which medication
would be best for E.S.?
A. Ethosuximide.
B. Levetiracetam.
C. Phenobarbital.
D. Clobazam

A

Neurology

B

153
Q

B.V. is a 48-year-old woman brought to your ED for
the treatment of status epilepticus. Her blood glucose is 50 mg/dL on fingerstick. Which medication
would be the best next treatment for B.V.?
A. Lorazepam.
B. Dextrose.
C. Thiamine.
D. Diazepam

A

Neurology

C

154
Q

J.H. is a 42-year-old man with focal-onset seizures
with loss of awareness for which he was prescribed
levetiracetam. He comes to the clinic with concerns of agitation. He says his wife is also concerned because he is very irritable and, at times,
depressed. Which best assesses J.H.’s condition?
A. Discontinue levetiracetam; he is having
adverse effects.
B. Increase the levetiracetam dose; he is having
focal seizures.
C. Continue levetiracetam; it is controlling his
seizures.
D. Obtain a levetiracetam serum concentration;
he is probably supratherapeutic.

A

Neurology

A

155
Q

T.O. is a 68-year-old man who suddenly lost consciousness at home. His partner calls 911, and emergency medical technicians arrive within 10 minutes. According
to the medical record, he experienced slurred speech
and right arm weakness about 30 minutes before losing
consciousness. He is treated for hypertension

Which test would be best before initiating pharmacotherapy for T.O.?
A. Cerebral angiogram.
B. CT scan of head.
C. Coagulation panel.
D. Echocardiogram.

A

Neurology

B

156
Q

T.O. is a 68-year-old man who suddenly lost consciousness at home. His partner calls 911, and emergency medical technicians arrive within 10 minutes. According
to the medical record, he experienced slurred speech
and right arm weakness about 30 minutes before losing
consciousness. He is treated for hypertension.

T.O. is diagnosed with a major ischemic stroke and
treated with alteplase. He regains consciousness
and is transferred to rehabilitation. Which treatment would be best for 3 months to prevent another
stroke?
A. Aspirin and clopidogrel.
B. Aspirin and dipyridamole.
C. Apixaban.
D. Warfarin.

A

Neurology

A

157
Q

P.P. is a 75-year-old woman who was diagnosed with
Parkinson disease 8 years ago. During this visit to the
clinic, she notes that her movements are slower and she
feels stiffer. She has also experienced a worsening gait
with two or three falls in the past 6 months. Her writing
has also become small and illegible. She takes carbidopa/levodopa 25/100 mg 2 tablets four times daily.

Which of P.P.’s symptoms would best be controlled
by pharmacotherapy?
A. Gait disturbances.
B. Falls.
C. Handwriting.
D. Rigidity

A

Neurology

D

158
Q

P.P. is a 75-year-old woman who was diagnosed with
Parkinson disease 8 years ago. During this visit to the
clinic, she notes that her movements are slower and she
feels stiffer. She has also experienced a worsening gait
with two or three falls in the past 6 months. Her writing
has also become small and illegible. She takes carbidopa/levodopa 25/100 mg 2 tablets four times daily.

P.P. notes that her symptoms seem worse before
her next dose of carbidopa/levodopa. Which agent
would best be added at this visit?
A. Istradefylline.
B. Entacapone.
C. Apomorphine.
D. Quetiapine.

A

Neurology

B

158
Q

W.S. is a 70-year-old man with newly diagnosed
Parkinson disease who is initiated on carbidopa/
levodopa. His symptoms are well controlled, but
he has concerns of nausea and vomiting. Which
intervention would be best to reduce his nausea
and vomiting?
A. Initiate promethazine.
B. Initiate metoclopramide.
C. Decrease carbidopa/levodopa.
D. Initiate trimethobenzamide.

A

Neurology

D

159
Q

R.M. is a 42-year-old man with headaches, which he
describes as a tight band around his head. The headaches occur three or four times a week.

Which medication would be the best acute treatment for R.M. to use for his headaches?
A. Naproxen.
B. Sumatriptan.
C. Dihydroergotamine.
D. Lithium

A

Neurology

A

159
Q

R.M. is a 42-year-old man with headaches, which he
describes as a tight band around his head. The headaches occur three or four times a week.

R.M is requesting a preventive medication to help
reduce his headache frequency. Which agent would
be best to recommend?
A. Amitriptyline.
B. Valproate.
C. Topiramate.
D. Frovatriptan.

A

Neurology

A

160
Q

L.M. is a 43-year-old man diagnosed with relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis (MS) 2 years ago. He
has taken glatiramer acetate since then. However, his
exacerbations have not discernibly decreased. He has
spasticity in his legs, which has caused several falls
in the past month, and fatigue that worsens as the day
progresses

Which medication would be best for L.M.’s
spasticity?
A. Diazepam.
B. Baclofen.
C. Carisoprodol.
D. Metaxalone

A

Neurology

B

160
Q

L.M. is a 43-year-old man diagnosed with relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis (MS) 2 years ago. He
has taken glatiramer acetate since then. However, his
exacerbations have not discernibly decreased. He has
spasticity in his legs, which has caused several falls
in the past month, and fatigue that worsens as the day
progresses

Which medication would be best for L.M.’s fatigue?
A. Propranolol.
B. Lamotrigine.
C. Amantadine.
D. Ropinirole

A

Neurology

C

160
Q

L.M. is a 43-year-old man diagnosed with relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis (MS) 2 years ago. He
has taken glatiramer acetate since then. However, his
exacerbations have not discernibly decreased. He has
spasticity in his legs, which has caused several falls
in the past month, and fatigue that worsens as the day
progresses

Which medication would be best for L.M.’s MS?
A. Cyclophosphamide.
B. Methylprednisolone.
C. Azathioprine.
D. Fingolimod.

A

Neurology

D

161
Q

B.T. is a 62-year-old man with obesity (weight 122 kg)
who comes to the clinic with concerns of burning in
the soles of his feet. These symptoms began about 3
months ago. They are worse at night and keep him from
sleeping. On examination, he has decreased sensation in both feet up to the ankles bilaterally and good
strength throughout his feet and legs. His ankle reflexes
are decreased. He has hypertension treated with lisinopril 10 mg/day

Which most likely caused B.T.’s pain and decreased
sensation?
A. Diabetic neuropathy.
B. Chronic inflammatory demyelinating
polyneuropathy.
C. Entrapped nerve.
D. Genetic neuropathy.

A

Neurology

A

161
Q

B.T. is a 62-year-old man with obesity (weight 122 kg)
who comes to the clinic with concerns of burning in
the soles of his feet. These symptoms began about 3
months ago. They are worse at night and keep him from
sleeping. On examination, he has decreased sensation in both feet up to the ankles bilaterally and good
strength throughout his feet and legs. His ankle reflexes
are decreased. He has hypertension treated with lisinopril 10 mg/day

Which treatment would be best for B.T.’s symptoms?
A. Carbamazepine 600 mg at bedtime.
B. Lidocaine 5% patch applied to soles of feet at
bedtime and removed in the morning.
C. Acetaminophen 325 mg every 4 hours as
needed.
D. Valproate 250 mg twice daily.

A

Neurology

B

162
Q

T.M. is a 23-year-old woman with newly diagnosed generalized motor myoclonic-type seizures. She is in good
health and takes oral contraceptives

Which is the best medication for T.M.’s seizures?
A. Valproate.
B. Phenytoin.
C. Phenobarbital.
D. Levetiracetam.

A

Neurology

D

162
Q

T.M. is a 23-year-old woman with newly diagnosed generalized motor myoclonic-type seizures. She is in good
health and takes oral contraceptives

T.M. is concerned about the impact of levetiracetam on her oral contraceptives. Which response is best?
A. Levetiracetam does not alter the effectiveness of your oral contraceptives.
B. You should use alternative forms of birth control because levetiracetam decreases oral contraceptive
effectiveness.
C. You may have breakthrough bleeding, but the effectiveness of the oral contraceptive is not changed.
D. Oral contraceptives decrease the effectiveness of levetiracetam, so you need another form of birth control

A

Neurology

A

163
Q

T.M. is a 23-year-old woman with newly diagnosed generalized motor myoclonic-type seizures. She is in good
health and takes oral contraceptives

Three months later, T.M.’s seizures are reduced in frequency, but continue despite medication adherence and
maximized dosing. Which would be the best alternative?
A. Lamotrigine.
B. Rufinamide.
C. Cannabidiol.
D. Valproate.

A

Neurology

A

164
Q

J.G. is a 34-year-old patient who presents to the ED in status epilepticus. All of her laboratory values are normal. Which medication is best to use first?
A. Valproate.
B. Lorazepam.
C. Phenytoin.
D. Phenobarbital.

A

Neurology

B

165
Q

S.R. is a 37-year-old patient who began taking phenytoin 100 mg 3 capsules orally at bedtime 6 months ago. He
has had several seizures since then, the most recent of which occurred 7 days ago. At that time, his phenytoin
serum concentration was 8 mcg/mL. The treating physician increased his phenytoin dose to 100 mg 3 capsules
orally twice daily. Today, which best represents his expected serum concentration?
A. 10 mcg/mL.
B. 14 mcg/mL.
C. 16 mcg/mL.
D. 24 mcg/mL.

A

Neurology

D

165
Q

S.S. is a 7-year-old girl. Her teacher contacts the girl’s parents because of concern about the girl’s “daydreaming” in class. After an evaluation, S.S. is diagnosed with generalized nonmotor (absence) seizures. Which
agent is best to treat this type of epilepsy?
A. Phenytoin.
B. Valproate.
C. Carbamazepine.
D. Ethosuximide.

A

Neurology

D

166
Q

M.G. has been prescribed levetiracetam. On which adverse effect is it best to counsel M.G.?
A. Hepatoxicity.
B. Renal stones.
C. Depression.
D. Word-finding difficulties.

A

Neurology

C

167
Q

J.B. is a 25-year-old man with a history of seizure disorder. He has been treated with carbamazepine for 1 year,
and his current carbamazepine concentration is 12 mcg/mL. Which adverse effect is J.B. most likely to have
with carbamazepine at this concentration?
A. Hepatotoxicity.
B. Acne.
C. Gingival hyperplasia.
D. Diplopia.

A

Neurology

D

168
Q

G.Z., a 26-year-old woman, presents with a 6-month history of “spells.” The spells are all the same, and all begin
with a feeling in the abdomen that is difficult for her to describe. This feeling rises toward the head. The patient
believes that she will then lose awareness. After a neurologic workup, she is diagnosed with focal seizures
evolving to a bilateral, convulsive seizure. The neurologist is considering initiating either carbamazepine or
oxcarbazepine.

Which is the most accurate comparison of carbamazepine and oxcarbazepine?
A. Oxcarbazepine causes more liver enzyme induction than carbamazepine.
B. Oxcarbazepine does not cause rash.
C. Oxcarbazepine does not cause hyponatremia.
D. Oxcarbazepine does not form an epoxide intermediate in its metabolism.

A

Neurology

D

169
Q

G.Z., a 26-year-old woman, presents with a 6-month history of “spells.” The spells are all the same, and all begin
with a feeling in the abdomen that is difficult for her to describe. This feeling rises toward the head. The patient
believes that she will then lose awareness. After a neurologic workup, she is diagnosed with focal seizures
evolving to a bilateral, convulsive seizure. The neurologist is considering initiating either carbamazepine or
oxcarbazepine.

When you see G.Z. 6 months later for a follow-up, she tells you she is about 6 weeks pregnant. She has had
no seizures since starting oxcarbazepine. Which strategy is best for G.Z.?
A. Discontinue her seizure medication immediately.
B. Change her seizure medication to topiramate.
C. Continue her seizure medication.
D. Change her seizure medication to lamotrigine

A

Neurology

C

169
Q

L.R. is a 78-year-old woman who presents to the ED for symptoms of right-sided paralysis. She states these symptoms began about 6 hours ago and have not improved. She also has hypertension, breast cancer, diabetes, minimal
cognitive impairment, and osteoarthritis. L.R. is diagnosed with a minor stroke by the neurology team.

Which best describes whether L.R. is a candidate for tissue plasminogen activator (Alteplase) for the treatment
of stroke?
A. Yes.
B. No, because of advanced age.
C. No, her stroke symptoms began too long ago.
D. No, her breast cancer is a contraindication for tissue plasminogen activator

A

Neurology

C

169
Q

L.R. is a 78-year-old woman who presents to the ED for symptoms of right-sided paralysis. She states these symptoms began about 6 hours ago and have not improved. She also has hypertension, breast cancer, diabetes, minimal
cognitive impairment, and osteoarthritis. L.R. is diagnosed with a minor stroke by the neurology team.

Which is the most accurate list of L.R.’s risk factors for stroke?
A. Breast cancer, age, osteoarthritis.
B. Sex, diabetes, osteoarthritis.
C. Minimal cognitive impairment, diabetes, age, sex.
D. Age, diabetes, hypertension.

A

Neurology

D

170
Q

L.R. is a 78-year-old woman who presents to the ED for symptoms of right-sided paralysis. She states these symptoms began about 6 hours ago and have not improved. She also has hypertension, breast cancer, diabetes, minimal
cognitive impairment, and osteoarthritis. L.R. is diagnosed with a minor stroke by the neurology team.

L.R. previously took no home medications. Which is the best treatment at this time for her?
A. Metformin and aspirin.
B. Celecoxib and clopidogrel.
C. Aspirin and clopidogrel.
D. Warfarin

A

Neurology

C

171
Q

L.R. is a 78-year-old woman who presents to the ED for symptoms of right-sided paralysis. She states these symptoms began about 6 hours ago and have not improved. She also has hypertension, breast cancer, diabetes, minimal
cognitive impairment, and osteoarthritis. L.R. is diagnosed with a minor stroke by the neurology team..

L.R. presents to her community pharmacy to pick up her medication refills (lisinopril, aspirin, clopidogrel,
atorvastatin) 2 months after her discharge from the hospital. Which best assesses her dual antiplatelet therapy
(DAPT)?
A. Appropriate, continue for 90 days after stroke.
B. Appropriate, continue as chronic therapy.
C. Inappropriate, single antiplatelet therapy should be initiated for 90 days.
D. Inappropriate, single antiplatelet therapy should be initiated indefinitely

A

Neurology

D

172
Q

L.T. takes carbidopa/levodopa 25 mg/100 mg orally four times daily and trihexyphenidyl 2 mg orally three times daily
for Parkinson disease. L.T.’s wife reports that his movements are very slow and that he is having trouble walking

Given these symptoms, which change seems most reasonable?
A. Increase carbidopa/levodopa, discontinue trihexyphenidyl.
B. Continue carbidopa/levodopa, increase trihexyphenidyl.
C. Decrease carbidopa/levodopa, continue trihexyphenidyl.
D. Decrease carbidopa/levodopa, increase trihexyphenidyl

A

Neurology

A

172
Q

L.S. is a 42-year-old woman with a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes, renal failure, and mitral
valve replacement. She presents to the anticoagulation clinic for her initial visit. Which best reflects her target
INR?
A. 1.5.
B. 2.0.
C. 2.5.
D. 3.0.

A

Neurology

D

173
Q

L.T. takes carbidopa/levodopa 25 mg/100 mg orally four times daily and trihexyphenidyl 2 mg orally three times daily
for Parkinson disease. L.T.’s wife reports that his movements are very slow and that he is having trouble walking

Six months later, L.T. returns to the clinic concerned that his carbidopa/levodopa dose is wearing off before
his next dose is due, because his tremor and slow movements are worse before the next dose of carbidopa/
levodopa. Which recommendation is best?
A. Increase the carbidopa/levodopa dose.
B. Decrease the carbidopa/levodopa dose.
C. Increase the dosing interval.
D. Decrease the dosing interval.

A

Neurology

D

174
Q

P.J. is a 57-year-old man with an 8-year history of Parkinson disease. His current medications include carbidopa/levodopa 50 mg/200 mg orally four times daily, entacapone 200 mg orally four times daily, and amantadine 100 mg three times daily. He presents to the clinic with concerns of reddish orange urine. He fears he has
blood in his urine. Which most likely caused this condition?
A. Carbidopa/levodopa.
B. Entacapone.
C. Amantadine.
D. Hemorrhagic cystitis.

A

Neurology

B

175
Q

L.L. is a 47-year-old man with Parkinson disease. He takes carbidopa/levodopa 50 mg/200 mg orally four
times daily. His wife states that he cannot sit still during the day. He is constantly moving, and she fears his
disease is worsening. Which is the best therapy for L.L.?
A. Add ropinirole.
B. Add selegiline.
C. Increase the carbidopa/levodopa dose.
D. Decrease the carbidopa/levodopa dose

A

Neurology

D

176
Q

. C.A. is a 70-year-old man with tremors in his right hand that have progressively worsened for the past 6
months. He has difficulty walking. He also has backaches and no longer plays golf. In addition, he is losing his
sense of taste. His wife notes that he is moving more slowly and that his handwriting has deteriorated. He is
diagnosed with Parkinson disease. Which is the best treatment for C.A.?
A. Trihexyphenidyl.
B. Apomorphine.
C. Carbidopa/levodopa.
D. Istradefylline.

A

Neurology

C

176
Q

D.S. is a 49-year-old male computer programmer who describes piercing right-eye pain and lacrimation several times a day for 2–3 days in a row. He will have no episodes for 2–3 weeks but will then have recurrent
episodes. In the office, he receives oxygen by nasal cannula during an episode, and his pain is relieved. Which
medication would be best for prophylaxis of his headaches?
A. Atenolol.
B. Valproate.
C. Nortriptyline.
D. Lithium

A

Neurology

D

177
Q

M.R., a 29-year-old woman, has throbbing right-sided headaches. She experiences nausea, phonophobia, and
photophobia with these headaches but no aura. She usually has headaches twice a month. She has hypertension and morbid obesity. She takes hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg/day orally for hypertension, which is the only
medication she is taking. Which medication is best for prophylaxis of her headaches?
A. Propranolol.
B. Indomethacin.
C. Topiramate.
D. Sumatriptan

A

Neurology

A

177
Q

S.R. is a 54-year-old businessman with squeezing, band-like headaches that occur three or four times weekly.
He rates the pain of these headaches as 7/10 and finds acetaminophen, aspirin, ibuprofen, naproxen, ketoprofen, and piroxicam only partly effective. He wants to take a prophylactic drug to prevent his headache disorder.
Which medication would be best for prophylaxis of his headaches?
A. Propranolol.
B. Topiramate.
C. Amitriptyline.
D. Rizatriptan.

A

Neurology

C

178
Q

M.K. is a 44-year-old woman with right-sided headaches of moderate intensity that are accompanied by severe
nausea and vomiting. Which medication would be best for M.K.’s migraine headaches?
A. Almotriptan.
B. Naratriptan.
C. Promethazine.
D. Sumatriptan.

A

Neurology

D

179
Q

T.C. is a 30-year-old woman with migraine headaches. Sumatriptan 100 mg provides immediate relief.
However, about 2 hours later, her headache symptoms return. Which would be best for her?
A. Rizatriptan 5 mg.
B. Frovatriptan 2.5 mg.
C. Naproxen 250 mg.
D. Topiramate 25 mg.

A

Neurology

B

179
Q

S.F. is a 36-year-old woman with a history of MS. This morning, her left arm became progressively weaker over
about 3 hours. She was previously healthy except for a broken radius when she was 13 years old and a case of optic
neuritis when she was 25. Her current medications include metoprolol 100 mg orally twice daily and fluoxetine 10
mg orally daily.

Which would be best for treating S.F.’s exacerbation?
A. Interferon beta-1a.
B. Glatiramer acetate.
C. Methylprednisolone.
D. Fingolimod.

A

Neurology

C

180
Q

S.F. is a 36-year-old woman with a history of MS. This morning, her left arm became progressively weaker over
about 3 hours. She was previously healthy except for a broken radius when she was 13 years old and a case of optic
neuritis when she was 25. Her current medications include metoprolol 100 mg orally twice daily and fluoxetine 10
mg orally daily.

Which would be best for S.F. to prevent further exacerbations?
A. Methylprednisolone.
B. Baclofen.
C. Glatiramer acetate.
D. No treatment

A

Neurology

C

181
Q

S.F. is a 36-year-old woman with a history of MS. This morning, her left arm became progressively weaker over
about 3 hours. She was previously healthy except for a broken radius when she was 13 years old and a case of optic
neuritis when she was 25. Her current medications include metoprolol 100 mg orally twice daily and fluoxetine 10
mg orally daily.

S.F. elects to start fingolimod. Which would be best to monitor every 6 months while she is taking fingolimod?
A. ECG.
B. Sodium.
C. Pulmonary function tests.
D. Renal function tests.

A

Neurology

A

181
Q

B.B. is a 33-year-old woman with recently diagnosed MS. Her neurologist wants you to discuss with her the
potential medications to prevent exacerbations. During the discussion, you find that she and her husband are
planning to have a child in the next few years and that she is frightened of needles. Which would be best for
B.B.?
A. Glatiramer acetate.
B. Mitoxantrone.
C. Teriflunomide.
D. Dimethyl fumarate

A

Neurology

D

182
Q

S.B. is a 55-year-old man referred to a neurologist for numbness, burning, and tingling in his feet that have progressively worsened over the past year. On neurologic examination, he has decreased sensations bilaterally to the
mid-calf. He takes no medications except for nonprescription analgesics as needed for pain. His BMI is 32 kg/m2
.

Which laboratory test would best determine the cause of S.B.’s neuropathy?
A. Potassium.
B. A1C.
C. Serum creatinine.
D. WBC

A

Neurology

B

183
Q

S.B. is a 55-year-old man referred to a neurologist for numbness, burning, and tingling in his feet that have progressively worsened over the past year. On neurologic examination, he has decreased sensations bilaterally to the
mid-calf. He takes no medications except for nonprescription analgesics as needed for pain. His BMI is 32 kg/m2

Which therapy would be best for S.B.?
A. Naproxen.
B. Tramadol.
C. Nortriptyline.
D. Prednisone.
.

A

Neurology

C

184
Q

A meta-analysis of treatments for neuropathic pain included data from 26 clinical trials (MedGenMed
2007;9:36). The results of the review included the following data.
Treatment No. Needed to Treat
Tricyclic antidepressants 2.1
SNRIs 5.1
SSRIs 7
Given these data, which would be most effective for neuropathic pain?
A. Duloxetine.
B. Sertraline.
C. Amitriptyline.
D. Venlafaxine

A

Neurology

C

185
Q

A 66-year-old Hispanic man (weight 123.8 kg;
body mass index [BMI] 42 kg/m2
) with a history
of dyslipidemia and hypertension received a diagnosis of type 2 diabetes (T2D). After 1 month of
exercise and dietary changes and no diabetes medications, his hemoglobin A1C (A1C) and fasting
glucose concentration today are 11.5% and 362
mg/dL, respectively. Which set of drugs is best to
initiate?
A. Metformin and glipizide.
B. Glipizide and insulin glulisine.
C. Pioglitazone and acarbose.
D. Insulin detemir and glulisine.

A

Endocrine & Metabolic Disorders

D

185
Q

A patient weighing 65 kg with symptoms of hyperglycemia and a fasting glucose concentration of
298 mg/dL is given a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes
(T1D). The patient’s physician asks for a recommendation of an appropriate starting dose of basal
insulin and estimates the total daily insulin (TDI)
needs of 0.4 unit/kg/day. Which recommendation
is most appropriate?
A. 13 units of insulin detemir.
B. 13 units of insulin aspart.
C. 26 units of insulin glargine.
D. 26 units of insulin glulisine.

A

Endocrine & Metabolic Disorders

A

185
Q

A patient with T2D has a blood pressure reading
of 152/84 mm Hg, a serum creatinine (SCr) of
1.8 mg/dL, and two recent random urine albumin/
creatinine concentrations of 420 and 395 mg/g.
Which class of drugs (barring any contraindications) is best to initiate in this patient?
A. Thiazide diuretic.
B. Dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker.
C. Angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB).
D. Non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker.

A

Endocrine & Metabolic Disorders

C

185
Q

Which medication is most appropriate for a patient
with a diagnosis of Cushing syndrome who has had
inadequate symptom relief after surgical resection
for a pituitary adenoma?
A. Ketoconazole.
B. Spironolactone.
C. Hydrocortisone.
D. Bromocriptine.

A

Endocrine & Metabolic Disorders

A

185
Q

Regarding propylthiouracil and methimazole in
the treatment of hyperthyroidism, which statement
is most appropriate?

A. Propylthiouracil is clinically superior to
methimazole in efficacy.
B. Propylthiouracil may be associated with
greater liver toxicity than methimazole.
C. Both agents are equally efficacious in the
treatment of Hashimoto disease.
D. Both medications should be administered
three times daily.

A

Endocrine & Metabolic Disorders

B

185
Q

A physician asks for a recommendation of initial
therapy for a patient with T2D. The physician
states that metformin is no longer an option for this
patient. An A1C obtained today is 9.4% (personal
goal 7%), and the patient’s estimated glomerular
filtration rate (eGFR) is 29 mL/minute/1.73 m2
.
Which agent would be the best recommendation?
A. Canagliflozin.
B. Alogliptin.
C. Insulin glargine.
D. Exenatide.

A

Endocrine & Metabolic Disorders

C

186
Q

A woman with T2D has an A1C of 8.6%. She is
receiving insulin glargine (60 units once daily at
bedtime) and insulin aspart (8 units before breakfast, 7 units before lunch, and 12 units before dinner). She is consistent in her carbohydrate intake
at each meal. Her morning fasting plasma glucose
(FPG) and premeal blood glucose (BG) readings
have consistently averaged 112 mg/dL. Her bedtime readings are averaging 185–200 mg/dL.
Which is the best insulin adjustment to improve
her overall glycemic control?
A. Increase prebreakfast aspart to 10 units.
B. Increase predinner aspart to 14 units.
C. Increase bedtime glargine to 65 units.
D. Increase prelunch aspart to 9 units.

A

Endocrine & Metabolic Disorders

B

187
Q

A 76-year-old woman (weight 47 kg) recently given
a diagnosis of Hashimoto disease presents with
mild symptoms of lethargy, weight gain, and intolerance to cold. Her thyroid-stimulating hormone
(TSH) is 12.2 mIU/L and free thyroxine (T4
) is
below normal limits. She has a history of hypertension and underwent a coronary artery bypass
surgery 2 years ago. Which would be the most
appropriate initial treatment for this patient?
A. Levothyroxine 25 mcg once daily.
B. Levothyroxine 75 mcg once daily.
C. Liothyronine 25 mcg once daily.
D. Liothyronine 75 mcg once daily.

A

Endocrine & Metabolic Disorders

A

188
Q

A 53-year-old woman with a history of Graves disease had ablative therapy 3 years ago, after which
she had significant symptom relief and became
euthyroid. Her thyroid laboratory values today
include TSH 0.12 mIU/L and free T4
3.8 g/dL. She
states that many of her previous symptoms have
returned but are mild. Which would be the most
appropriate treatment for her condition?
A. Methimazole.
B. Lugol’s solution.
C. Propylthiouracil.
D. Metoprolol.

A

Endocrine & Metabolic Disorders

A

189
Q

A 65-year-old man with T2D has received metformin 1000 mg twice daily for the past 2 years.
His A1C today is 7.8%. His morning FPG readings
are consistently at goal. His after-meal glucose
readings average 190–200 mg/dL. Which would be
most appropriate for this patient?
A. Increase metformin to 1000 mg three times
daily.
B. Add insulin glargine 10 units once daily.
C. Change from metformin to insulin glargine
10 units once daily.
D. Add saxagliptin 5 mg once daily

A

Endocrine & Metabolic Disorders

D

189
Q

A 34-year-old woman has a BMI of 33 kg/m2
.
With dietary changes, she has lost 0.9 kg (2 lb) in
6 months. She exercises regularly but cannot do
more because she has two jobs and young children.

Her medical history is significant for depression,
T2D, and substance abuse. Her current medications include metformin 1000 mg twice daily, insulin glargine 24 units once daily, and sertraline 100
mg once daily. Her A1C is well controlled, but she
occasionally has hypoglycemic episodes. She is
most concerned about weight loss. Which would be
the best recommendation to help her lose weight?
A. Continue her diet and exercise routine; additional intervention is unwarranted.
B. Initiate liraglutide 3 mg once daily.
C. Initiate phentermine/topiramate 3.75/23 mg
once daily.
D. Initiate orlistat 120 mg three times daily with
meals.

A

Endocrine & Metabolic Disorders

D

190
Q

A 53-year-old Hispanic woman has a BMI of 44
kg/m2
and a history of gestational diabetes. Her
mother and sister both have T2D. Two weeks ago,
her A1C was 7.4%. Her fasting glucose concentration today is 178 mg/dL. She is asymptomatic.
Which is the best course of action?
A. Diagnose T2D and begin treatment.
B. Diagnose T1D and begin treatment.
C. Obtain another A1C today.
D. Obtain another glucose concentration another
day

A

Endocrine & Metabolic Disorders

A

191
Q

A 42-year-old man has a history of T2D. His current therapy includes metformin 1000 mg twice
daily and glyburide 10 mg twice daily. Today, his
A1C is 6.9% (personal goal is less than 7%), blood
pressure is 126/78 mm Hg, and fasting lipid panel
is as follows: total cholesterol 212 mg/dL, lowdensity lipoprotein cholesterol (LDL) 98 mg/dL,
high-density lipoprotein cholesterol (HDL) 45
mg/dL, and triglycerides (TG) 145 mg/dL. Which
would be most appropriate for this patient?
A. Add insulin detemir 10 units once daily.
B. Add lisinopril 10 mg once daily.
C. Add atorvastatin 10 mg once daily.
D. Add fenofibrate 145 mg once daily

A

Endocrine & Metabolic Disorders

C

191
Q

A 63-year-old woman has Hashimoto disease. Her thyroid laboratory values today include TSH 10.6 mIU/L
(normal 0.5–4.5 mIU/L) and free T4
0.5 ng/dL (normal 0.8–1.9 ng/dL). She feels consistently rundown and
has dry skin that does not respond to the use of hand creams. Which is the best drug for initial treatment of
her condition?
A. Levothyroxine.
B. Liothyronine.
C. Desiccated thyroid.
D. Methimazole.

A

Endocrine & Metabolic Disorders

A

191
Q

A 43-year-old non-pregnant woman has received a diagnosis of Graves disease. She is reluctant to try ablative
therapy and wants to try oral pharmacotherapy first. Her thyroid laboratory values today include TSH 0.22
mIU/L (normal 0.5–4.5 mIU/L) and free T4
3.2 ng/dL (normal 0.8–1.9 ng/dL). She is anxious and always feels
warm when others say it is too cold. Which is best for initial treatment of her condition?
A. Lugol’s solution.
B. Propylthiouracil.
C. Atenolol.
D. Methimazole.

A

Endocrine & Metabolic Disorders

D

192
Q

A 28-year-old woman presents with acne, facial hair growth, and irregular menses that have lasted for 6–7
months. Her medical history includes hypertension and depression. Her pituitary and thyroid tests results
have been negative. Her current medications include amlodipine and fluoxetine. Her prolactin concentration today is 112 ng/mL (normal 15–25 ng/mL). Which is the most likely cause of her elevated prolactin
concentration?
A. Amlodipine.
B. Prolactin-secreting adenoma.
C. Pregnancy.
D. Fluoxetine

A

Endocrine & Metabolic Disorders

D

193
Q

A 44-year-old man has consistently high blood pressure (172/98 mm Hg today), despite his documented
adherence to two maximal-dose blood pressure medications. He has frequent headaches, increased thirst, and
fatigue. His urine free cortisol is 45 mcg/24 hours (normal range 20–90) and plasma aldosterone/renin ratio
is 125 (normal is less than 25). Which most likely caused this patient’s uncontrolled hypertension?
A. Cushing syndrome.
B. Addison disease.
C. Hyperprolactinemia.
D. Hyperaldosteronism.

A

Endocrine & Metabolic Disorders

D

194
Q

A patient takes the maximal daily dose of phentermine/topiramate for the treatment of obesity. The patient’s
baseline BMI is 36 kg/m2
and weight is 115.7 kg (255 lb). Which best represents the minimum weight loss
required to consider continuing treatment with this agent after 3 months of therapy?
A. 3.2 kg (7 lb).
B. 5.9 kg (13 lb).
C. 7.7 kg (17 lb).
D. 11.8 kg (26 lb)

A

Endocrine & Metabolic Disorders

B

194
Q

A 64-year-old African American woman has had a 12-kg (27 lb) weight increase during the past year, primarily because of inactivity and a poor diet. Her BMI is 44 kg/m2
. Her mother and sister both have T2D. Her
fasting glucose concentration today is 212 mg/dL. Which is the best course of action?
A. Diagnose T2D and begin treatment.
B. Diagnose T1D and begin treatment.
C. Obtain another glucose concentration today.
D. Obtain an A1C today in addition to the glucose concentration.

A

Endocrine & Metabolic Disorders

D

195
Q

A 56-year-old man with T2D takes metformin 1000 mg twice daily. He has no other chronic diseases or history of cardiovascular disease. His current vital signs and laboratory results are as follows: blood pressure
148/78 mm Hg, heart rate 74 beats/minute, and A1C 6.9%. Which agent, if added to the current regimen, has
the most potential to reduce both microvascular and macrovascular complications in this patient?
A. Insulin glargine.
B. Lisinopril.
C. Glyburide.
D. Niacin.

A

Endocrine & Metabolic Disorders

B

196
Q

. A 21-year-old patient (weight 80 kg) is given a diagnosis of T1D after the discovery of elevated glucose concentrations (average 326 mg/dL), and the patient has signs and symptoms of hyperglycemia. Which is the
most appropriate initial dose of rapid-acting insulin before breakfast for this patient? (Assume a TDI regimen
of 0.5 unit/kg/day.)
A. 2 units.
B. 4 units.
C. 7 units.
D. 14 units

A

Endocrine & Metabolic Disorders

C

197
Q

A 55-year-old man with T2D for 6 months has been receiving metformin 1000 mg twice daily since his diagnosis. His A1C today is 8.2%. His morning fasting blood glucose (FBG) readings are consistently at goal. His
after-meal glucose readings average 210–230 mg/dL. The patient states that he is worried about his weight and
does not want to add a medication that might increase it. Which would be most appropriate for this patient?
A. Glyburide.
B. Liraglutide.
C. Pioglitazone.
D. Insulin glargine.

A

Endocrine & Metabolic Disorders

B

198
Q

A 66-year-old man has had T2D for 4 years. His A1C today is 7.7%. He has altered his diet and states that he
has been exercising regularly for months. He takes metformin 1000 mg twice daily. Which would best help
optimize his glycemic control?
A. Continue current medications and counsel to improve his diet and exercise.
B. Discontinue metformin and initiate exenatide 5 mcg twice daily.
C. Add bromocriptine 0.8 mg at bedtime.
D. Add sitagliptin 100 mg once daily to his metformin therapy

A

Endocrine & Metabolic Disorders

D

199
Q

A 66-year-old man is given a diagnosis today of T2D. Two weeks ago, his A1C was 7.5% and SCr was 1.8
mg/dL (eGFR 25 mL/minute/1.73 m2
). He has a history of hypertension, dyslipidemia, and heart failure with
reduced ejection fraction (New York Heart Association class III, ejection fraction 33%). He has 2+ pitting
edema bilaterally. In addition to improvements in diet and exercise, which is best to initiate?
A. Linagliptin.
B. Pioglitazone.
C. Exenatide.
D. Metformin.

A

Endocrine & Metabolic Disorders

A

200
Q

A patient with newly diagnosed T2D is screened for diabetic nephropathy. The following laboratory values
are obtained today: blood pressure 129/78 mm Hg, heart rate 78 beats/minute, urine albumin/creatinine 27
mg/g, and estimated CrCl 94 mL/minute/1.73 m2
. Which would be the most appropriate treatment strategy?
A. No change in therapy is warranted.
B. Add an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor.
C. Add a thiazide-like diuretic.
D. Reduce daily protein intake.

A

Endocrine & Metabolic Disorders

A

201
Q

A 75-year-old man (height 73 inches, weight 92.5
kg; baseline serum creatinine [SCr] 0.9 mg/dL)
presents to your institution with abdominal pain
and dizziness. He has a brief history of gastroenteritis and has had nothing to eat or drink for
24 hours. His blood pressure reading while sitting
is 120/80 mm Hg, which decreases to 90/60 mm
Hg when standing. His heart rate is 90 beats/minute. His basic metabolic panel shows sodium (Na)
135 mEq/L, chloride (Cl) 108 mEq/L, potassium
(K) 4.7 mEq/L, carbon dioxide (CO2
) 26 mEq/L,
blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 40 mg/dL, SCr 1.5 mg/
dL, and glucose 188 mg/dL. He has no known drug
allergies. Which initial treatment of this patient’s
acute kidney injury (AKI) is best?
A. Administer furosemide 40 mg intravenously ×
1 dose.
B. Insert Foley catheter to check for residual urine.
C. Administer fluid bolus (500 mL of normal
saline solution).
D. Administer insulin lispro 3 units subcutaneously

A

Nephrology

C

202
Q

A 44-year-old man is admitted with gram-negative bacteremia. He receives 4 days of parenteral
beta-lactam and aminoglycoside therapy and
develops acute tubular necrosis (ATN). Antibiotic
therapy is adjusted on the basis of culture and sensitivity results. Which laboratory value is most
consistent with this presentation?
A. BUN/SCr ratio greater than 20:1.
B. Urinalysis with no casts visible.
C. Fractional excretion of sodium (FENa) more
than 2%.
D. Urinary sodium less than 20 mEq/L.

A

Nephrology

C

202
Q

Which of the following pharmacokinetic parameters describes a drug that will be most effectively
removed by hemodialysis?
A. Serum protein binding 90% and volume of
distribution of 2.5 L/kg
B. Serum protein binding 30% and volume of
distribution of 2.5 L/kg
C. Serum protein binding 90% and volume of
distribution of 0.3 L/kg
D. Serum protein binding 30% and volume of
distribution of 0.3 L/kg

A

Nephrology

D

203
Q

A 59-year-old patient who has had CKD category
G5D (Stage G5 on dialysis) for 10 years has hypertension, coronary artery disease, mild heart failure
with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF), and type
2 diabetes. Medications are as follows: epoetin
10,000 units intravenously three times/week at
dialysis, renal multivitamin once daily, atorvastatin 20 mg/day, insulin, and calcium acetate 1334
mg three times daily with meals. Laboratory values are as follows: hemoglobin (Hgb) 9.2 g/dL,
parathyroid hormone (PTH) 300 pg/mL, Na 140
mEq/L, K 4.9 mEq/L, SCr 7.0 mg/dL, calcium
9 mg/dL, albumin 3.5 g/dL, and phosphorus
4.8 mg/dL. His serum ferritin concentration is
80 ng/mL and transferrin saturation (TSAT) is
14%. Mean corpuscular volume, mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration, and white blood cell
count (WBC) are all normal. He is afebrile. Which
is best for managing this patient’s anemia?
A. Increase epoetin.
B. Add oral iron.
C. Add intravenous iron.
D. Maintain current regimen; patient is at goal.

A

Nephrology

C

203
Q

A 60-year-old patient (weight 72 kg) with a history of diabetes and hypertension is in the intensive care unit after having a myocardial infarction
about 1 week ago with secondary heart failure.
He now has pneumonia. He has been hypotensive
for the past 5 days. Before his admission 1 week
ago, his SCr was 1.0 mg/dL. His urinary output has
steadily been declining for the past 3 days, despite
adequate hydration, with 700 mL of urinary output
in the past 24 hours. His medications include intravenous dobutamine, nitroglycerin, and cefazolin.
Yesterday, his BUN and SCr were 32 and 3.1 mg/dL,
respectively; today, they are 41 and 3.9 mg/dL. His
urinary osmolality is 290 mOsm/kg. His urinary
sodium is 45 mEq/L, and there are tubular cellular
casts in his urine. Which type of AKI is this patient
most likely experiencing?
A. Prerenal azotemia.
B. ATN.
C. Acute interstitial nephritis (AIN).
D. Hemodynamic/functional-mediated AKI.

A

Nephrology

B

204
Q

A 45-year-old man (weight 59 kg, height 70 inches)
has a long history of cancer. His SCr is 0.5 mg/dL.
Carboplatin will be initiated, for which an accurate
estimate of kidney function is critical. Which group
of parameters is best to use when estimating kidney
function using the Cockcroft-Gault equation?
A. Actual body weight and measured SCr.
B. Actual body weight and SCr rounded to 1 mg/
dL.
C. Ideal body weight and measured SCr.
D. Ideal body weight and SCr rounded to 1 mg/dL.

A

Nephrology

A

205
Q

You are evaluating a study comparing epoetin and
darbepoetin with respect to their efficacy on mean
Hgb concentrations. Both drugs are initiated at the
recommended dose, and the Hgb concentration is
checked at 4 weeks. Fifty patients are in each group.
The mean Hgb in the epoetin group is 12.1 g/dL and
is 12.2 g/dL in the darbepoetin group. Which statistical test is best for this comparison?
A. Paired t-test.
B. Independent (unpaired) t-test.
C. Analysis of variance.
D. Chi-square test.

A

Nephrology

B

206
Q

A pharmacoeconomic study compared the use of
erythropoiesis-stimulating agents with various
Hgb concentrations. The primary outcome of this
study was cost per quality-adjusted life-year gained.
Which best describes this economic evaluation?
A. Cost-minimization.
B. Cost-effectiveness.
C. Cost-benefit.
D. Cost-utility

A

Nephrology

D

207
Q

A 58-year-old woman is being evaluated for AKI.
Laboratory test results include serum sodium 134
mEq/L, BUN 35 mg/dL, SCr 1.8 mg/dL, urinary
sodium 24 mEq/L, and urinary creatinine 14.3 mg/
dL. Which is the best estimate of this patient’s FENa?
A. 0.8%.
B. 1.25%.
C. 2.3%.
D. 4.4%.

A

Nephrology

C

208
Q

A 55-year-old man has a history of hypertension.
His eGFR is 48 mL/minute/1.73 m2
and urinary
albumin/creatinine ratio (ACR) is 28 mg/g. Which
best depicts what this patient’s goal blood pressure should be less than, according to the Kidney
Disease: Improving Global Outcomes (KDIGO)
guidelines?
A. 130/80 mm Hg.
B. 140/90 mm Hg.
C. 120/80 mm Hg.
D. 130/90 mm Hg.

A

Nephrology

B

208
Q

A 66-year-old man has an eGFR of 55 mL/minute/
1.73 m2
. His ACR is 100 mg/g. His Hgb is currently 13.2 g/dL, with normal red blood cell indices
without treatment. Which best reflects the recommended minimum frequency of Hgb monitoring in
this patient?
A. Monthly.
B. Every 3 months.
C. Every 6 months.
D. Every 12 months.

A

Nephrology

D

209
Q

A 68-year-old patient has diabetes, hypertension,
and an eGFR of 40 mL/minute/1.73 m2
. Medications
include a renal multivitamin once daily, simvastatin, lisinopril, and hydrochlorothiazide. Laboratory
values are as follows: Hgb 11.2 g/dL, immunoassay
for PTH 200 pg/mL, Na 138 mEq/L, K 4.9 mEq/L,
calcium 8.6 mg/dL, albumin 3.5 g/dL, phosphorus
5.8 mg/dL, and 25-hydroxyvitamin D 45 ng/mL.
Which is best to prevent CKD–mineral and bone
disorder (MBD) in this patient?
A. Ergocalciferol.
B. Sevelamer carbonate.
C. Calcitriol.
D. Cinacalcet.

A

Nephrology

B

210
Q

A 48-year-old African American man (weight 70 kg) with a history of type 2 diabetes, hypertension, and osteoarthritis is admitted to the intensive care unit after an acute myocardial infarction. He was initially hypotensive, requiring
3 L of intravenous fluid. His blood pressure is now 100/65 mm Hg. Medications before admission include nicotine
patch, metformin 500 mg orally twice daily, lisinopril 20 mg/day, acetaminophen 650 mg every 6 hours for joint pain,
and aspirin 81 mg/daily. Before admission, his kidney function was normal (SCr 1.0 mg/dL); however, during the
past 24 hours, his kidney function has declined (BUN 20 mg/dL, SCr 2.1 mg/dL). Serum sodium is 140 mEq/L and
serum potassium is 4.4 mEq/L. Urinary volume has been 300 mL over the past 12 hours through urinary catheter.
His urine shows muddy casts. His urinary sodium is 45 mEq/L and urinary creatinine is 20 mg/dL. He has edema
and pulmonary congestion.

Which is the best assessment of this patient’s AKI?
A. KDIGO stage 1 AKI.
B. KDIGO stage 2 AKI.
C. KDIGO stage 3 AKI.
D. Too early to assess for AKI.

A

Nephrology

B

211
Q

A 48-year-old African American man (weight 70 kg) with a history of type 2 diabetes, hypertension, and osteoarthritis is admitted to the intensive care unit after an acute myocardial infarction. He was initially hypotensive, requiring
3 L of intravenous fluid. His blood pressure is now 100/65 mm Hg. Medications before admission include nicotine
patch, metformin 500 mg orally twice daily, lisinopril 20 mg/day, acetaminophen 650 mg every 6 hours for joint pain,
and aspirin 81 mg/daily. Before admission, his kidney function was normal (SCr 1.0 mg/dL); however, during the
past 24 hours, his kidney function has declined (BUN 20 mg/dL, SCr 2.1 mg/dL). Serum sodium is 140 mEq/L and
serum potassium is 4.4 mEq/L. Urinary volume has been 300 mL over the past 12 hours through urinary catheter.
His urine shows muddy casts. His urinary sodium is 45 mEq/L and urinary creatinine is 20 mg/dL. He has edema
and pulmonary congestion.

Which best depicts this patient’s FENa?
A. 0.32%.
B. 0.67%
C. 1.5%.
D. 3.4%.

A

Nephrology

D

212
Q

A 48-year-old African American man (weight 70 kg) with a history of type 2 diabetes, hypertension, and osteoarthritis is admitted to the intensive care unit after an acute myocardial infarction. He was initially hypotensive, requiring
3 L of intravenous fluid. His blood pressure is now 100/65 mm Hg. Medications before admission include nicotine
patch, metformin 500 mg orally twice daily, lisinopril 20 mg/day, acetaminophen 650 mg every 6 hours for joint pain,
and aspirin 81 mg/daily. Before admission, his kidney function was normal (SCr 1.0 mg/dL); however, during the
past 24 hours, his kidney function has declined (BUN 20 mg/dL, SCr 2.1 mg/dL). Serum sodium is 140 mEq/L and
serum potassium is 4.4 mEq/L. Urinary volume has been 300 mL over the past 12 hours through urinary catheter.
His urine shows muddy casts. His urinary sodium is 45 mEq/L and urinary creatinine is 20 mg/dL. He has edema
and pulmonary congestion.

Which is the best classification of this patient’s AKI?
A. Prerenal azotemia.
B. Intrinsic renal disease.
C. Postrenal obstruction.
D. Functional AKI.

A

Nephrology

B

213
Q

A 48-year-old African American man (weight 70 kg) with a history of type 2 diabetes, hypertension, and osteoarthritis is admitted to the intensive care unit after an acute myocardial infarction. He was initially hypotensive, requiring
3 L of intravenous fluid. His blood pressure is now 100/65 mm Hg. Medications before admission include nicotine
patch, metformin 500 mg orally twice daily, lisinopril 20 mg/day, acetaminophen 650 mg every 6 hours for joint pain,
and aspirin 81 mg/daily. Before admission, his kidney function was normal (SCr 1.0 mg/dL); however, during the
past 24 hours, his kidney function has declined (BUN 20 mg/dL, SCr 2.1 mg/dL). Serum sodium is 140 mEq/L and
serum potassium is 4.4 mEq/L. Urinary volume has been 300 mL over the past 12 hours through urinary catheter.
His urine shows muddy casts. His urinary sodium is 45 mEq/L and urinary creatinine is 20 mg/dL. He has edema
and pulmonary congestion.

Which medication should be discontinued because of its risk for worsening kidney function in this patient?
A. Lisinopril.
B. Metformin.
C. Acetaminophen.
D. Aspirin.

A

Nephrology

A

214
Q

A 48-year-old African American man (weight 70 kg) with a history of type 2 diabetes, hypertension, and osteoarthritis is admitted to the intensive care unit after an acute myocardial infarction. He was initially hypotensive, requiring
3 L of intravenous fluid. His blood pressure is now 100/65 mm Hg. Medications before admission include nicotine
patch, metformin 500 mg orally twice daily, lisinopril 20 mg/day, acetaminophen 650 mg every 6 hours for joint pain,
and aspirin 81 mg/daily. Before admission, his kidney function was normal (SCr 1.0 mg/dL); however, during the
past 24 hours, his kidney function has declined (BUN 20 mg/dL, SCr 2.1 mg/dL). Serum sodium is 140 mEq/L and
serum potassium is 4.4 mEq/L. Urinary volume has been 300 mL over the past 12 hours through urinary catheter.
His urine shows muddy casts. His urinary sodium is 45 mEq/L and urinary creatinine is 20 mg/dL. He has edema
and pulmonary congestion.

Which is most appropriate to add at this time?
A. Intravenous 0.9% sodium chloride.
B. Hydrochlorothiazide.
C. Furosemide.
D. Fluid restriction

A

Nephrology

C

215
Q

A 67-year-old man is referred for intermittent chest pain. His medical history is significant for CKD KDIGO
category G3a, type 2 diabetes, and hypertension. Medications include enalapril, hydrochlorothiazide, and
pioglitazone. Laboratory values include SCr 1.8 mg/dL, glucose 189 mg/dL, Hgb 12 g/dL, and hematocrit
(Hct) 36%. His physical examination is normal. The treatment plan is elective cardiac catheterization. Which
is best for hydration?
A. 0.9% sodium chloride.
B. 0.45% sodium chloride.
C. 5% dextrose/0.45% sodium chloride.
D. Oral hydration with water.

A

Nephrology

A

216
Q

After the administration of radiocontrast, which best represents the optimal time to reevaluate renal function
to assess for the development of contrast-associated nephropathy?
A. 6 hours.
B. 24 hours.
C. 4 days.
D. 7 days

A

Nephrology

B

217
Q

A 55-year-old man has a history of hypertension and newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes. He denies alcohol use but
does smoke cigarettes (1 pack/day). His medications include atenolol 50 mg/day and a multivitamin. At your pharmacy, his blood pressure is 149/92 mm Hg. His ACR is 400 mg/g. A recent SCr is 1.9 mg/dL, which is consistent
with a value measured 3 months earlier. His eGFR is 50 mL/minute/1.73 m2
.

Which category best reflects his kidney disease, according to the KDIGO criteria?
A. G2.
B. G3a.
C. G3b.
D. G4

A

Nephrology

B

218
Q

A 55-year-old man has a history of hypertension and newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes. He denies alcohol use but
does smoke cigarettes (1 pack/day). His medications include atenolol 50 mg/day and a multivitamin. At your pharmacy, his blood pressure is 149/92 mm Hg. His ACR is 400 mg/g. A recent SCr is 1.9 mg/dL, which is consistent
with a value measured 3 months earlier. His eGFR is 50 mL/minute/1.73 m2
.
Using the KDIGO categorization, which best assesses this patient’s albuminuria?
A. Category A1.
B. Category A2.
C. Category A3.
D. Nephrotic-range proteinuria.

A

Nephrology

C

219
Q

A 55-year-old man has a history of hypertension and newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes. He denies alcohol use but
does smoke cigarettes (1 pack/day). His medications include atenolol 50 mg/day and a multivitamin. At your pharmacy, his blood pressure is 149/92 mm Hg. His ACR is 400 mg/g. A recent SCr is 1.9 mg/dL, which is consistent
with a value measured 3 months earlier. His eGFR is 50 mL/minute/1.73 m2
.

Assuming that nonpharmacologic approaches have been optimized, which is best to limit the progression of
his kidney disease?
A. Add nifedipine.
B. Add diltiazem.
C. Add enalapril.
D. Increase atenolol

A

Nephrology

C

220
Q

A 55-year-old man has a history of hypertension and newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes. He denies alcohol use but
does smoke cigarettes (1 pack/day). His medications include atenolol 50 mg/day and a multivitamin. At your pharmacy, his blood pressure is 149/92 mm Hg. His ACR is 400 mg/g. A recent SCr is 1.9 mg/dL, which is consistent
with a value measured 3 months earlier. His eGFR is 50 mL/minute/1.73 m2
.

Enalapril is added to this patient’s regimen. Two weeks later, he returns for a follow-up. His blood pressure is
139/89 mm Hg. A repeat SCr is 2.3 mg/dL, and serum potassium is 5.2 mEq/L. Which is the best recommendation for this patient?
A. Add chlorthalidone 50 mg/day. Monitor blood pressure, SCr, and K+
in 2 weeks.
B. Change enalapril to diltiazem extended release. Monitor blood pressure, SCr, and K+
in 2 weeks.
C. Change enalapril to valsartan. Monitor blood pressure, SCr, and K+
in 2 weeks.
D. Increase atenolol. Monitor blood pressure, SCr, and K+
in 2 weeks.

A

Nephrology

A

221
Q

A study compared use of an ARB alone and in combination with an ACEI in patients with CKD. Acute kidney
injury occurred in 80 of 724 patients (11%) receiving monotherapy and 130 of 724 patients (18%) receiving
combination therapy. Given this information, which most accurately depicts the number of patients needed to
harm?
A. 7.
B. 14.
C. 50.
D. 105.

A

Nephrology

B

222
Q

A 70-year-old man is being assessed for HD access. He has a history of diabetes and hypertension but is otherwise healthy. Which HD access modality is best to use in this patient?
A. Subclavian catheter.
B. Tenckhoff catheter.
C. Arteriovenous graft.
D. Arteriovenous fistula

A

Nephrology

D

223
Q

A patient undergoing long-term HD has intradialytic hypotension. After nonpharmacologic approaches have
been optimized, which medication is best to manage his low blood pressure?
A. Levocarnitine.
B. Sodium chloride tablets.
C. Fludrocortisone.
D. Midodrine.

A

Nephrology

D

224
Q

A patient with CKD on peritoneal dialysis presents with fever and abdominal pain. She also notes that her peritoneal dialysate has become cloudy. Laboratory evaluation of dialysate reveals many white blood cells, primarily neutrophils. Gram stain and culture of the fluid are ordered. According to the 2022 International Society
for Peritoneal Dialysis Peritonitis Recommendations, which is the best empiric therapy for this patient?
A. Intravenous metronidazole plus gentamicin.
B. Intravenous clindamycin plus vancomycin.
C. Cefazolin plus ceftazidime instilled intraperitoneally.
D. Vancomycin instilled intraperitoneally

A

Nephrology

C

225
Q

A 60-year-old patient on HD has had ESRD for 10 years. His HD access is a left arteriovenous fistula. He has a
history of hypertension, coronary artery disease, mild HFrEF, type 2 diabetes, and a seizure disorder. Medications
are as follows: epoetin alfa 14,000 units intravenously three times/week at dialysis, a renal multivitamin once daily,
atorvastatin 20 mg/day, insulin, calcium acetate 2 tablets three times daily with meals, phenytoin 300 mg/day, and
intravenous iron 100 mg/month. Laboratory values are as follows: Hgb 10.2 g/dL, PTH 800 pg/mL, Na 140 mEq/L,
K 4.9 mEq/L, SCr 7.0 mg/dL, calcium 9.5 mg/dL, albumin 2.5 g/dL, and phosphorus 7.8 mg/dL. Serum ferritin is
550 ng/mL, and TSAT is 32%. The red blood cell count indices are normal. His WBC is normal, and he is afebrile

Which is most likely contributing to this patient’s relative epoetin resistance?
A. Hyperparathyroidism.
B. Iron deficiency.
C. Phenytoin therapy.
D. Infection

A

Nephrology

A

226
Q

A 60-year-old patient on HD has had ESRD for 10 years. His HD access is a left arteriovenous fistula. He has a
history of hypertension, coronary artery disease, mild HFrEF, type 2 diabetes, and a seizure disorder. Medications
are as follows: epoetin alfa 14,000 units intravenously three times/week at dialysis, a renal multivitamin once daily,
atorvastatin 20 mg/day, insulin, calcium acetate 2 tablets three times daily with meals, phenytoin 300 mg/day, and
intravenous iron 100 mg/month. Laboratory values are as follows: Hgb 10.2 g/dL, PTH 800 pg/mL, Na 140 mEq/L,
K 4.9 mEq/L, SCr 7.0 mg/dL, calcium 9.5 mg/dL, albumin 2.5 g/dL, and phosphorus 7.8 mg/dL. Serum ferritin is
550 ng/mL, and TSAT is 32%. The red blood cell count indices are normal. His WBC is normal, and he is afebrile

In addition to diet modification and emphasizing adherence, which is best fo r managing this patient’s
hyperparathyroidism?
A. Increase calcium acetate.
B. Change calcium acetate to sevelamer and add cinacalcet.
C. Hold calcium acetate and add intravenous vitamin D analog.
D. Add intravenous vitamin D analog.

A

Nephrology

B

227
Q

A 40-year-old patient on dialysis with a history of grand mal seizures takes phenytoin 300 mg/day. His albumin concentration is 3.0 g/dL. His total phenytoin concentration is 5.0 mcg/mL. Which best interprets the
phenytoin concentrations?
A. Subtherapeutic; a dose increase is needed.
B. Therapeutic; no dosage adjustment is needed.
C. Toxic; a dose reduction is needed.
D. Not interpretable.

A

Nephrology

B