Geriatrics Flashcards

1
Q

Aging effects on GI system & effect on pharmacokinetics

A

Increased or no change to stomach pH (less acid)
Decrease GI blood flow
Slowed gastric emptying
Slowed GI transit

-Decreases absorption of drugs/nutrients that need acidic environment
-Prolonged absorption rate

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2
Q

Aging effects on skin & effect on pharmacokinetics

A

Thinning of dermis
Loss of SC fat

Decrease or no change to drug reservoir formation with patches

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3
Q

Aging effects on body composition & effect on PK

A

Decrease total body water, lean body mass, and serum albumin
Increase body fat and alpha1-acid glycoprotein

-Increased Vd of lipid soluble
-Decreased Vd of water soluble
-Increased free fraction of highly protein bound drugs

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4
Q

Aging effects on liver & effect on PK

A

Decreased liver mass, blood flow to liver, and CYP enzyme activity

Decreased first pass extraction & metabolism
Increased half-life (depending on Vd)
Decreased clearance of drug with high first pass metabolism
Decreased phase I (oxidative) metabolism
No change in phase II metabolism

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5
Q

Aging effects on kidney & effect on PK

A

Decreased GFR, renal blood flow, tubular secretion, and renal mass

Decreased renal elimination
Increased half life of renally eliminated drugs, metabolites

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6
Q

Absorption key points for geriatrics

A

-Hypochlohydria/achlohydria: decrease absorption of iron, b12, antifungals, calcium

-Slowed gastric emptying: increase risk of ulcer from NSAIDs, bisphosphonates, potassium

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7
Q

P-glycoprotein effect on distribution in geriatrics

A

P-gp is an efflux transporter present on many organs

Decreases activity with aging

This leads to higher drug concentrations in affected areas, like opioids in the brain

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8
Q

Benzos less affected by age-related metabolism changes

A

Lorazepam
Oxazepam
Temazepam

Why? Solely depend on phase II metabolism, which is unaffected in aging.

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9
Q

Drugs requiring actual body weight for CrCl

A

Dabigatran
Dofetilide
Rivaroxaban

Otherwise, use IBW

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10
Q

Pharmacodynamic effects on CNS with aging
Effects from anticholinergic, BZD/opioid, antipsychotics, TCA/alpha

A

Increased permeability of BBB

Anticholinergics: confusion, agitation, hallucination
BZD & opioid: somnolence, confusion, agitation
Antipsychotics & metoclopramide: EPS, TD
TCA, alpha-blocker, alpha-agonist: orthostatic hypotension, drowsiness, confusion

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11
Q

Pharmacodynamic effects on cardiovasculature

A

Increased catecholamine concentration = down-regulation of B1 receptors

= blunted effect of BB
= Increased sensitivity to QT prolongers (antipsychotics, FQs, azithromycin)

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12
Q

Meds that may cause withdrawal/rebound in geriatrics

A

Antihypertensives
Antidepressants
Anxiolytics
Pain meds

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13
Q

BEERS criteria

A

Explicit tool for inappropriate med use. Does not require clinical judgment for interpretation

Evidence-based list of drugs to avoid, drugs to avoid in certain diseases or conditions, and drugs to use with caution

Ex: anticholinergics, BZDs, sedative-hypnotics, select opioids, hypoglycemics, NSAIDs, PPIs, select anticoagulants, aspirin (primary prevention)

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14
Q

STOPP/START

A

Explicit tool for inappropriate med use. Does not require clinical judgment for interpretation

Screening tool to look at older person’s prescriptions

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15
Q

Medication Appropriateness Index

A

Implicit tool for inappropriate med use. Patient centered, requires clinical judgment

10 questions to ask about each med, with indication, effectiveness, and correct dosage being most important

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16
Q

Choosing Wisely criteria

A

10 things to question in older adults. These are the 7 that are drug related

  1. Antipsychotics in pts w/ dementia should be avoided
  2. Target A1c is >=7.5%
  3. Avoid BZDs or sedative-hyponotics
  4. Do not initiate antimicrobials for asymptomatic bacteriuria
  5. Assess benefit-risk of cholinesterase inhibitors
  6. Appetite stimulants are not helpful for anorexia or cachexia
  7. DUR is necessary for every new prescription
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17
Q

Fall etiologies and risk factors

A

Etiologies
-psychoactive meds
-polypharmacy
-orthostatic hypotension
-hypoglycemia
-hyponatremia
-MI
-UTI

Risk factors
-Vit D deficiency
-poor balance
-muscle weakness
-poor vision
-environment

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18
Q

Delirium etiologies and risk factors

A

Etiologies:
-psychoactive meds
-polypharmacy
-hypoglycemia
-hyponatremia
-MI
-infection

Risk factors
-dementia
-stroke
-B12 deficiency
-poor hearing
-lack of sleep
-constipation
-pain
-thyroid disorder

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19
Q

Hospitalization hazards for geriatrics

A

Immobilization = increased falls, fractures

Sensory deprivation (isolation, unable to wear glasses, hearing aids) = delirium

NPO or prescribed diets = dehydration, decreased plasma volume, malnutrition, aspiration pna

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20
Q

Dementia types that do not respond to CI

A

Vascular dementia (also does not respond to memantine)

Frontotemporal dementia

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21
Q

Avoid typical antipsychotics in these dementia types

A

Lewy body dementia
Dementia of advanced parkinsons disease

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22
Q

Reversible causes of memory impairment

A

Vitamin B12 deficiency (<300)
Hypothyroid
Depression
Normal pressure hydrocephalus (need surgical placement of shunt)
Meds (own card)

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23
Q

Meds that may cause memory impairment

A

Anticholinergics
Antiseizure
BZDs
Muscle relaxants
Opioids
TCAs

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24
Q

Dementia assessment tools

A

Cognitive:
Mini-Mental State Exam
SLUMS
Montreal Cognitive Assessment
Mini-Cog

Functional:
Reisberg Functional Assessment Staging

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25
Q

Mild-Moderate AD treatment

A

CI (donepezil, rivastigmine, galantamine)

No agent preferred

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26
Q

Moderate-Severe AD treatment

A

NMDA receptor antagonist (memantine)
CI (donepezil, rivastigmine, galantamine)

Combination or monotherapy

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27
Q

cholinesterase inhibitor side effects

A

GI: N/V, diarrhea (**highest w/ rivastigmine)

CNS: HA, insomnia, dizziness

Cardiac: bradycardia, orthostatic hypotension ,syncope (BEERS for pts w/ syncope)

Long-term risks: falls, hip fracture ,pacemaker

Renal dosing required for galantamine

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28
Q

Cholinesterase inhibitor approved for dementia with parkinsons disease

A

rivastigmine

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29
Q

Memantine ADR

A

CNS: headache, dizziness, confusion, agitation, hallucinations

GI: diarrhea, vomiting

Usually well tolerated

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30
Q

Aducanumab

A

Disease modifying immunotherapy.
Anti-amyloid MAB

1mg/kg q4 week then 10mg/kg q4 week. Use ABW.

Serious ADR: ARIA-H (micro-hemorrhage), ARIA-E (brain edema, HA), seizure

Have MRI within 1 year of initiation and repeat with signs/symptoms of ARIA

ARIA = Amyloid-Related Imaging Abnormalities

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31
Q

Lecanemab

A

Disease-modifying immunotherapy. Anti-amyloid MAB

10mg/kg q2w using ABW

MRI before initiation and 5th, 7th, 14th infusion. Additional if experience s/s of ARIA

Serious ADR: ARIA-H, ARIA-E, anaphylaxis, decreased lymphocytes

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32
Q

MMSE 20-24

A

Mild dementia

Cognitive loss: short-term memory loss, word-finding problems

Functional loss: loss of IADLs, gets lost easy

33
Q

MMSE 10-19

A

Moderate dementia

Cognitive loss: disorientation to time/place, inability to engage in activities & conversation

Functional loss: Assistance with ADLs (bathing, toileting, dressing)

33
Q

MMSE <10

A

Severe dementia

Cognitive loss: loss of speech, ambulation, control of bladder & bowel

Functional loss: Around the clock care

33
Q

PRNs vs Scheduled meds in dementia

A

Scheduled preferred because they may not be able to communicate issues (pain, constipation, sleep)

34
Q

FDA approved treatment for agitation caused by dementia (of AD)

A

Brexpiprazole

Still has BBW of increased risk of death

35
Q

First line treatment for behavioral/psychological symptoms of dementia

A

Nonpharmacologic

Figure out what need is unmet

36
Q

Preferred agent for paranoia w/ parkinsonian symptoms

A

Quetiapine (less dopaminergic)
Pimavanserin

37
Q

DRIP

A

Causes of transient incontinence

D= drugs, delirium
R= retention, restricted mobility
I= impactation, infection, inflammation
P= polyuria, prostatitis

38
Q

Aging effects on bladder

A

Decreased bladder elasticity & capacity
More frequent voiding
Decline in bladder outlet & urethral resistance (women)
Decrease in flow rate with enlarged prostate (men)

39
Q

Urge incontinence

A

Loss of moderate amount of urine
Increased need to void
Common w/ AD, PD, MS, stroke

Induced by cholinergic agents (bethanechol, cholinesterase inhibitors)
(acetylcholine mediates bladder contractions)

40
Q

Stress incontinence

A

Loss of small amount of urine with increased abdominal pressure (sneezing, coughing)
More common in postmenopausal women

Induced by alpha-blockers (prazosin) due to decreased urethral sphincter tone
(alpha stimulation tightens the sphincter)

41
Q

Overflow incontinence

A

Loss of urine b/c of excessive bladder volume caused by obstruction
Likely incomplete emptying

Induced by anticholinergics, CCBs, opioids. Decrease detrusor muscle contractions
(acetylcholine mediates bladder contraction, if blocked won’t be able to contract = incomplete emptying)

42
Q

Functional incontinence

A

Inability to reach toilet due to mobility constraints

Induced by sedating drugs (cause confusion) or diuretics (increased need to void)

43
Q

Antimuscarinic agents

A

Oxybutynin, tolterodine, fesoterodine, trospium, solifenacin, darifenacin

Use for urge incontinence

BEERS

Prefer LA

44
Q

B3 agonist

A

MIrabegron, vibegron

For urge incontinence

Less anticholinergic effects than antimuscarinics, but can be used in combo wth antimuscarinics

Avoid in HTN

45
Q

Botox A for incontinence

A

inject into Intradetrusor

Use for urge incontinence

Prevents simulation of detrusor muscle. Stimulation relaxes the detrusor muscle

Have to self-cath

46
Q

Stress incontinence pharm treatments

A

Alpha agonists (pseudoephedrine, phenylephrine) (efficacy limited)
Topical estrogen
Duloxetine (not FDA labeled for stress incontinence)

47
Q

Overflow incontinence pharm treatments

A

Alpha blockers (afluzosin, tamsulosin, silodosin preferred)

5alpha reductased inhibitors (finasteride, dutasteride)
-Slows progression and reduces size of prostate

Bethanecol

Tadalafil 5mg daily

48
Q

Meds that can exacerbate BPH

A

Alpha agonists
Anticholinergics
Diuretics
Testosterone (mild prostate growth)

49
Q

BPH candidates for treatment based on AUASI

A

score 8-19 (moderate disease)

50
Q

Alpha blockers for BPH

A

Terazosin
Doxazosin
Alfuzosin
Tamsulosin
Silodosin

Tera/doxa (nonspecific alpha blockers) lower BP more than the others

Lower AUASI score by 4-6 points

CYP3A4 metabolism

If planned cataract surgery, start after

Take at bedtime

51
Q

Combination therapy for BPH

A

May be used if larger prostate size, LUTS, elevated PSA, or erectile dysfunction

Finasteride + doxazosin
Dutasteride + tamsulosin (FDA approved)

51
Q

5 alpha reductase inhibitors for BPH

A

Finasteride
Dutasteride

Prevent conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone = actually shrink prostate

At least 6 months of therapy needed for benefit

Need baseline PSA concentration

Lower PSA, but long-term therapy puts at risk of high-grade tumors in prostate

Avoid if pregnant

52
Q

Tadalafil for BPH

A

only FDA approved pde5 inhibitor

Avoid with alpha blockers due to decreased BP risks

53
Q

Osteoarthritis first line

A

NSAIDS - prefer topical

If chronic, change to COX2 inhibitor
or Add PPI

Preferred with cardiac disease = naproxen

*if on aspirin for cardiac disease, take aspirin 30 min before any NSAID

54
Q

Topical agents for OA

A

Diclofenac gel
Capsaicin

55
Q

Other agents for OA

A

Methylprednisolone or triamcinolone IA inj
APAP (if NSAID contraindicated)
Duloxetine
Glucosamine
Tramadol

56
Q

Osteoarthritis vs Rheumatoid arthritis

A

OA affects larger joints like hip, knee
RA affects smaller joints of hands, wrists, feet

57
Q

First line therapy for RA with high disease activity

A

Nonbiologic DMARDs

DOC: methotrexate (weekly)
Alterative DOC: leflunomide (daily)
Second line: hydroxychloroquine (BID) or sulfasalazine (BID)

58
Q

First line therapy for RA with low disease activity

A

Nonbiologic DMARDs

DOC: Hydroxychloroquine (low adverse effect profile)
Alt: Sulfasalazine > methotrexate or leflunomide

Pregnancy DOC = sulfasalazine

59
Q

Nonbiologic DMARD side effects

A

MTX, leflunomide: myelosuppression, liver dysfunction, pulmonary fibrosis, teratogenic

Hydroxychloroquine: Ocular toxicity

Sulfasalazine: GI adverse effects limit use

60
Q

When to start a nonbiologic DMARD

A

within 3 months of diagnosis of RA

61
Q

Biologic DMARDs

A

Use for severe RA in combination with methotrexate

TNF blockers, non-TNF blockers, biologic kinase inhibitors

Most common: etanercept, infliximab, abatacept, rituximab

62
Q

TNF blockers for RA

A

Etanercept (SC weekly)
Infliximab (IV @ 0, 2, 6 wk then q8w)
Adalimumab (SC q2w)
Certolizumab (SC every other week)
Golimumab (SC monthly)

Monitor infection
Check baseline PPD (purified protein derivative)

Avoid in heart failure

63
Q

non-TNF biologics

A

Abatacept (monthly)
Anakinra (SC daily)
Rituximab (IV given 2 weeks apart)
Sarilumab (SC every other week)
Tocilizumab (q4w IV)

Monitor infection

64
Q

Janus Kinase inhibitors

A

Baricitinib (PO daily)
Tofacitinib (PO BID)
Upadacitinib (PO daily)

Class BBW: increased risk of serious cardiac-related events (MI, stroke, cancer, blood clot, death)

Avoid in those who smoke or have smoked, with CV risk factors, and known malignancy

65
Q

Glucocorticoids in RA

A

No longer recommended
If have to use, short term (<3 months) preferred

66
Q

NSAIDs in RA

A

Does not inhibit disease progression

67
Q

Immunosuppression with RA treatment

A

Prior to therapy:
-Screen for tuberculosis and viral hepatitis
-Give all immunizations, especially live. Wait 2 weeks before starting therapy

During therapy:
-avoid live vaccines

If hx of hep B or C and treated, consider as pt has never had hepatitis
If untreated hep B or C, prefer DMARD to TNF blocker

68
Q

Diagnosis of gout

A

Ideal = aspiration of joint to visualize birefringement of urate crystals
Unlikely to occur, so use clinical judgment

Get serum uric acid level 2 weeks after flare, if >6.8 then gout likely (uric acid low during flare)

69
Q

Meds that can predispose gout

A

Thiazide and loops
Niacin
Calcineurin inhibitors (cyclosporine, tacrolimus)
low dose aspirin
Xanthine oxidase inhibitors (during induction)

70
Q

Colchicine

A

Start within 36 hours of gouty attack

1.2mg x1 ,then 0.6mg 1 hour later; then 0.6mg BID until flare resolves

Use with Pgp inhibitors or strong CYP3A4 inhibitors is CONTRAINDICATED in RENAL or HEPATIC impairment! Fatal toxicity has occurred*

Reduce dose if normal renal/hepatic function but strong 3A4, Pgp inhibitors

No dose adjustments necessary until on dialysis (0.6mg x1)

71
Q

NSAIDs FDA approved for gout

A

Naproxen 750mg then 250mg q8h
Indomethacin 50mg TID
Sulindac 200mg BID

If NSAIDs contraindicated or not tolerated, can consider celecoxib (day 1: 800mg, then 400mg, day 2 on: 400mg BID)

72
Q

Glucocorticoids for gout

A

Prednisone 0.5mg/kg/day x5-10 days (taper option available)
Medrol dose pack
Intra-articular injection if two large joints

Can use PO steroids, NSAIDs, or colchicine in combination with intra-articular injection

73
Q

Xanthine oxidase inhibitors

A

First line for urate-lowering therapy, even if CKD stage 3 or higher

Allopurinol
Initial dose: 100mg/day
Initial dose if CKD4: 50mg/day
Titrate to target serum uric acid level (<6)
*Max doses can be as high as 800mg (normal renal fxn) or >300mg (even in CKD)

If unable to tolerate or refractory, change to febuxostat 40mg daily

*Febuxostat has BBW for increased risk of CV deathu

ALWAYS INITIATE CONCOMITANT PROPHYLACTIC THERAPY

74
Q

Allopurinol hypersensitivity syndrome

A

SJS, TEN
Eosinophilia, rash, vasculitis, major end-organ disease

Highest risk during first few months

Risk factors: thiazide diuretics or renal impairment

HLA-B*5801 testing recommended for African Americans or Southeast Asian populations

75
Q

Alternative ULT for gout

A

Probenecid 500mg 1-2x daily with dose titration

Pegloticase (NOT first line in any case. D/C other agents and start if SU not reached and continual gout flares)

76
Q

Why anti-inflammatory ppx when starting ULT?

A

Increased risk of gout attacks during ULT initiation
-Rapid decrease in urate concentration = remodeling of articular urate crystal deposits

Add on colchicine, NSAIDs, or prednisone and continue as prophylaxis for 3-6 months, continuing beyond if evidence of gout disease activity (tophi, flare, chronic gouty arthritis)

Colchicine: 0.6mg 1-2x daily
Naproxen: 250mg BID
Indomethacin: 25mg BID
Prednisone: <10mg/day