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Vets 1018 > practice exams > Flashcards

practice exams Flashcards

1
Q

in aus which body regulates vet practice and deals with the client complaints about vets

A

the relevant state veterinary surgeons board

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2
Q

which of the following professional bodies was first established

(a) The Australian Veterinary Association
(b) The Australasian Veterinary Boards Council
(c) Veterinary Nurses Council of Australia
(d) The Australian and New Zealand Veterinary College

A

AVA

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3
Q

in relation to current status of vet profession in aus
(a) There are approximately 50,000 registered veterinarians
(b) Most registered veterinarians are male
(c) Excluding ‘on call’, most veterinarians work more than 60 hours/week
(d) Most veterinarians are satisfied with their work

A

(d) Most veterinarians are satisfied with their work

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4
Q

nationally recognized qualification for nurses
(a) Diploma in Veterinary Nursing
(b) Bachelor of Veterinary Nursing and Technology
(c) Certificate 4 in Veterinary Nursing
(d) Certificate 3 in Animal Studies

A

(c) Certificate 4 in Veterinary Nursing

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5
Q

which term related to study of the small intestine

A

enterology

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6
Q

what is cardiomyopathy

A

pathology of heart muscle

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7
Q

which breed is dolichocephalic

(a) Boxer
(b) Labrador Retriever
(c) Australian Bulldog
(d) Boston Terrier

A

lab

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8
Q

how do you say 2ml of meloxicam under skin once per day

A

2 mL SC SID

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9
Q

In terms of clinical communication skills, which of the following options reflects “closed-ended enquiry”? ie yes or no
(a) Please walk me through your worries about Pedro
(b) What do you normally feed Viviana?
(c) How would you describe Barry’s stools?
(d) Has Laura vomited since the medications we started last week?

A

Has Laura vomited since the medications we started last week?

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10
Q

The statement below is an example of what clinical communication skill? “Before we talk about the treatment options, I’d like to talk about what we’ve found on exam”

A

signposting (schedule)

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11
Q

Which of the responses to the client comment (below) is the MOST empathic? “Sammy’s incontinence is getting worse; it’s getting so hard for me to keep her and the house clean – she seems to dribble pee every time she sits down”

A

(c) I share your worries – it can be so difficult to manage

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12
Q

What is the legal status of animals in Australia?
(a) They are a special type of property (owners have ‘duty of care’)
(b) They have the same rights as adult humans (18 years or over)
(c) They have the same rights as children (below 18 years of age)
(d) They have no legal status

A

special type of property (owners have duty of care)

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13
Q

on distant inspection; cat with one pupil bigger than other

A

anisocoria

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14
Q

adult Maltese closest to which weight

A

5kg

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15
Q

sinus arrythmia

A

is a normal finding in dogs

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16
Q

adult clydesdale stallion likely weighs closest

A

1000kg

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17
Q

You have been asked to assess the vital signs of a 6-year-old MN Boxer Dog. On examination the dog is BAR. On TPR, the T is 38.6 degrees Celcuis; PR is 120 beats/min and RR is 20 breaths/min. The MM are moist, pink and the CRT is 1 second. Which of the following best reflects the clinical status of the dog?

A

all vital signs are WNL

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18
Q

Laws around the “number of animals that can be kept in a household” are most likely to fall under which legal jurisdiction?
(a) Local government
(b) State or territory government
(c) Federal government
(d) International treaties

A

local government

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19
Q

Which of the following pieces of legislation includes the rules about microchipping of dogs and cats in Queensland?
(a) Biosecurity legislation
(b) Veterinary surgeons’ legislation
(c) Animal management legislation
(d) Animal care and protection legislation

A

animal management legislation

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20
Q

In relation to the QLD Animal Care and Protection legislation, which of the following is most likely to reflect a ‘duty of care’ offence?
(a) A rostered veterinary nurse forgets to feed a hospitalised patient for 2 days
(b) An owner seeks medical care for a dog with an open leg fracture
(c) A person shoots their neighbour’s cat with an air-rifle
(d) A veterinarian humanely euthanises a cockatiel on request from the owners

A

A rostered veterinary nurse forgets to feed a hospitalised patient for 2 days

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21
Q

which cannot be legally kept as pets in QLD

A

rabbits

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22
Q

which can only be dispensed following vet consultation

A

S4

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23
Q

controlled drug

A

S8

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24
Q

The RCVS Code of Professional Conduct is an example of:
(a) Descriptive veterinary ethics
(b) Official veterinary ethics
(c) Administrative veterinary ethics
(d) Normative veterinary ethics

A

Official veterinary ethics

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25
Q

values and priorities that guide an individual’s behaviour in their professional role” is a known as their:

A

professional identity

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26
Q

integration of knowledge, skill and affective domains within authentic clinical context

A

professional competence

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27
Q

In terms of veterinary record-keeping, the “O” of the “SOAP” acronym refers which of the following?

A

objective; physical exam

subjective; history
objective; exam
assessment
plan

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28
Q

Which of the following would be considered an in vivo diagnostic test?
(a) Histopathology of material collected by bunch biopsy
(b) A complete blood count to investigate anaemia
(c) Urine test
(d) Magnetic resonance imaging

A

MRI

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29
Q

The success of the animals’ behavioural attempts to achieve their chosen goals is reflected in whether the associated affects are negative or positive. These outcomes are understood to contribute to animals’ perceptions of their external circumstances, and are collectively referred to as;

A

related affects

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30
Q

TID

A

3x a day every 8 hours

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31
Q

Interpreting the reality of an animal in terms of human experiences and values is known as;

A

anthropomorphism

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32
Q

According to Bowlby’s Attachment Theory, Proximity Maintenance refers to;

A

animals desire to be near an attachment figure

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33
Q

what percentage of pet owners indicated they would be more likely to maintain their pets health, including regular check-ups with their veterinarian?

A

79

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34
Q

Which of the following BEST describes the One Welfare framework?

A

(d) A framework for understanding the interrelationships between animal welfare, human wellbeing, and environmental sustainability

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35
Q

Which of the following is an example of the One Welfare approach in action?
(a) A program to reduce animal stress during transportation
(b) A campaign to promote plant-based diets
(c) A study on the economic benefits of animal welfare improvements
(d) A public health campaign to raise awareness of zoonotic diseases

A

(d) A public health campaign to raise awareness of zoonotic diseases

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36
Q

Why is the One Welfare framework important for addressing global challenges?

A

Because it recognizes the interconnectedness of animal welfare, human wellbeing, and environmental sustainability

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37
Q

In relation to patient care, the goal of a hospital cage for avian and exotics patients is to:

A

Reduce stress while still being easy to clean and disinfect

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38
Q

Neonatal care for avian patients involves:

A

Thermoregulatory, hygiene and nutritional support

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39
Q

If you have found injured wildlife, you should:

A

Make note of your location so you can return the animal as close to it as possible

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40
Q

Which of the following should you NOT do if you find a featherless altricial chick:

A

Feed it to prevent hypoglycaemia

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41
Q

A farmer identifies that one of the lactating dairy cows has a lacerated milk vein. What is the most appropriate action to take IMMEDIATELY

A

Assess for safety and apply pressure

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42
Q

Which of the following are part of the 6 perfusion parameters when evaluating dogs and cats?

A

mentation
CPR
heart rate
Pulse quality
Extremity temp
Mucous membrane colour

Mom cooks homemade pizza every monday

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43
Q

normal CRT for dogs and cats

A

1-2 seconds

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44
Q

how should you cool a dog or cat w signs of heat stroke

A

apply cold running water for 10-15 mins

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45
Q

A client presents a 12-year-old dog because she is “urinating all over the house”. After running some tests, you diagnose urethral sphincter mechanism incompetence (USMI). This condition can be managed with medication. The client explains that the dog is impossible to medicate orally – she won’t take medication in food and bites the owner if her mouth is touched. The owner explains they are a busy single parent. After some thought and many tears, the client requests that you euthanase the dog. However, they ask you to tell their children when they come in that the dog has an untreatable condition. You refuse this request. Your ethical approach is MOST CLOSELY aligned with:

A

deontology

deontology is based on not breaking rules i.e. not lying

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46
Q

While declawing of cats (onychectomy) is performed in some jurisdictions, it is increasingly frowned upon. Which of the following statements in relation to onychectomy is most consistent with a virtue ethics approach?

A

A conscientious, compassionate vet would not declaw a cat

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47
Q

Which of the following statements about utilitarianism is FALSE?
(a) It accepts that each of us have personal relationships, with specific duties and obligations flowing from these
(b) It assumes that the interests of all individuals should be given the same weight as those of others
(c) It holds that a decision or action is good if it leads to a good (or less worse) outcome
(d) It holds that decision makers should take the suffering of people and animals into account

A

(b) It assumes that the interests of all individuals should be given the same weight as those of others

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48
Q

Which of the following sentences about pressure bandage is true?

A

Pressure bandage on the cervical (neck) region should be avoided due to risks of asphyxiation

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49
Q

Which of the following options is NOT one of the Halsted’s principles of surgery?
(a) Gentle tissue handling
(b) Elimination of dead space
(c) Appropriate use of antibiotics
(d) Preservation of blood supply

A

Appropriate use of antibiotics

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50
Q

The components of anaesthesia are:
(a) Sleep, analgesia, muscle relaxation
(b) Muscle paralysis, sedation, sleep
(c) Sleep, relaxation, loss of reflexes
(d) Low heart rate, analgesia, lack of awareness

A

(a) Sleep, analgesia, muscle relaxation

51
Q

When monitoring an anaesthetic, which of the following is LEAST IMPORTANT in terms of establishing physiological stability?

A

(d) Response to noise

52
Q

A client of yours has recently bought a small block of land to run sheep. You have advised a stocking density of 6 -10 sheep per acre. He has 15 acres. How many sheep will you advise him to buy? Give a range consistent with the stocking density recommended.

A

90-150

53
Q

You are setting up an IV drip set prior a surgical procedure on a 20 kg dog. You have been asked to select a giving set. Which drip set is most commonly used for a dog this size?

A

(b) 20 drops per mL

(20 drops per ml is standard, 60 drops per ml is ⅓ of the rate, usually used for small puppies & kittens, 10 drops per mL for larger animals)

54
Q

If you have a needle driver in a tripod grip, which of the following is the most commonly used fingers?

A

Thumb, index and ring

not middle

55
Q

To get a secure square knot when tying off a single continuous suture, it is suggested you:

A

Place multiple “surgeon’s” throws

56
Q

Jane has had a difficult time at work today with some challenging cases, including a surgery which did not go as planned. While the patient is well, she is feeling overwhelmed. Jane decides to call a friend and go for a walk after work. Jane is drawing on which aspect of resilience?

A

contextual

57
Q

Which of the following veterinary imaging modalities utilise gamma rays?

A

Nuclear scintigraphy

58
Q

Which of the following veterinary imaging modalities does not require a special use licence?

A

(d) Ultrasound

59
Q

In order to work following graduation in Australia, new graduate veterinarians must register with which one of the following bodies?

A

(b) The relevant State Veterinary Board

60
Q

In relation to the ‘Codes of Practice’ relevant to veterinarians and animal industries, which of the following is TRUE/CORRECT?

A

Codes of Practice may be either voluntary or compulsory for the target end users

61
Q

Which of the following best summarizes the conventional components of ‘signalment’ information that would be recorded for a small animal patient?

A

Age, gender, neuter status, breed, species

62
Q

The use of active or passive drains after surgery speaks most specifically to which of Halsted’s Principles?

A

Obliteration of dead space

63
Q

On clinical placement you are sitting in on a consultation with a veterinarian. The veterinarian does most of the talking and only engages specifically with the client’s perspective at the end of the consult by asking if they are comfortable with the plan presented. Which of the following communication patterns used by veterinarians in consultations best describes the behaviour you observed?

A

A paternalistic approach

64
Q

You are conducting a ‘puppy care’ consult with a client in South East Queensland and they have asked specifically about what is included in the C5 vaccination that will protect their dog from ‘kennel cough’. Which of the following CORRECTLY answers their question?

A

Parainfluenza and Bordetella bronchiseptica

65
Q

In relation to the ‘Australian and New Zealand College of Veterinary Scientists’, which of the following is TRUE/CORRECT?

A

It coordinates Membership and Fellowship examinations

66
Q

Which of the following is the BEST EXAMPLE of ‘descriptive’ veterinary ethics?

A

The AVMA Veterinary Oath

67
Q

Pericarditis

A

refers to inflammation within the tissue that surrounds the heart

peri= surrounding
itis= inflammation

68
Q

Which of the following BEST reflects the legal status of animals in Australia?

A

Animals are regarded as property

69
Q

Many veterinary practices in Australia have the legal structure of a ‘partnership’. This type of structure involves which of the following?

A

Sharing of net profit and joint liability

70
Q

one of the most significant expenses for veterinary practices

A

Salaries/wages reflect

71
Q

The cat appears to be BAR. On exam you record a temperature of 38.0 degrees Celsius, a HR of 160 beats per minute and a RR of 20 breaths per minute. Based on these findings, which of the following courses of action is MOST warranted?

A

Do nothing, the results for the TPR are within normal limits for a cat

72
Q

You are shadowing a veterinarian on a clinical placement. As she is working up a clinical case, you notice that she has written down a list of conditions/ diseases that she believes might be causing the patient’s illness. In relation to medical record keeping, this list is called the:

A

The differential diagnosis list

73
Q

Which of the following would be classified as an in vitro diagnostic test?

A

Analysing urine collected from a cat with FLUTD

74
Q

The most common method of sterilising instruments in veterinary practices is:

A

(a) Autoclaving

74
Q

Which of the following BEST reflects an example of open-ended enquiry?

A

(c) How do you feel about all of this?

75
Q

In relation to the human-animal bond, the factors which affect human behaviour towards animals include:

A

Psychological factors, sociological factors, anthropomorphism and physical factors

76
Q

Which of the following bodies/ organisations regulate the practice of veterinary science in Australia?

A

The State Veterinary Boards

77
Q

You are working in a veterinary clinic and have just received a call about a dog that has been hit by a car. There is some active bleeding from a wound on the forelimb which is slowly oozing and appears dark. Your advice is:

A

Place a clean bandage over the site and bring the animal in for immediate assessment

78
Q

Which of the following correctly highlights a recent trend noted in the veterinary profession in Australia?

A

A greater focus on companion animal work

79
Q

The role of veterinarians in ‘advocating on behalf of the animal’ speaks directly to which of the following?

A

The ‘fundamental question’ of veterinary ethics

80
Q

Which of the following BEST describes the notion of veterinary ‘professional identity’?

A

(c) How your personal values will influence your behaviour as a professional

81
Q

Veterinary nurses are integral members of the veterinary healthcare team in Australia. In relation to veterinary nurses, which of the following is TRUE/CORRECT?

A

(d) Veterinary Nurse training is largely vocational

82
Q

Haemostasis during veterinary surgery is very important. Haemostasis can be achieved by which of the following techniques?
(a) Ligation of bleeding vessels
(b) Electrocautery
(c) Applying pressure
(d) All of the above

A

all of above

83
Q

Within the context of a veterinary-client consultation, the phrase “I can appreciate this is a bit overwhelming for you” is an example of:

A

empathetic statement

84
Q

In relation to first responder/ first aid for wildlife, which of the following is TRUE/CORRECT?

A

Gloves should be worn when handling frogs to protect them from chemicals or other irritants that may be present on our skin

85
Q

For veterinarians, ‘professional competence’ is BEST articulated by which of the following statements?

A

Integration of knowledge, skill and affective domains within authentic clinical contexts

86
Q

NAD

A

no abnormalities detected

87
Q

In the context of first aid, an owner telephones the vet clinic concerned that their dog is suffering heatstroke. It is the middle of summer in South East Queensland. Your advice is:

A

Cool the dog with tap water for 10-15 minutes and use a fan also if possible then bring to the vet for assessment

88
Q

PUPD

A

refers to an excessive urination and water consumption

89
Q

In relation to the evolution of our understanding of animal welfare, which of the following is TRUE/CORRECT?
(a) The ‘Five Freedoms’ has largely replaced the ‘Five Domains’ framework
(b) The ‘Five Freedoms’ framework better accounts for animal ‘agency’ when compared to the ‘Five Domains’
(c) Neither the ‘Five Freedoms’ nor ‘Five Domains’ frameworks acknowledge animal sentience
(d) The ‘Five Freedoms’ framework informs the legal notion of ‘Duty of Care’

A

The ‘Five Freedoms’ framework informs the legal notion of ‘Duty of Care’

90
Q

Which of the following pieces of legislation regulates the practice of veterinary science in Queensland and underpins the activities of the Veterinary Surgeons Board?

A

Veterinary Surgeons Act 1936

91
Q

Veterinary boards generally require that veterinarians be “of good character” to be registered. Which ethical approach or framework does this align BEST with?

A

Virtue ethics

92
Q

A veterinarian has asked you to determine CRT, as part of your physical examination of a patient. Which of the following BEST describes how this part of the examination would be performed?

A

Press one of your fingers onto the gums and then release, counting the number of seconds it takes for the colour to return

93
Q

Which ethical framework or approach provides the LEAST protection of minorities?

A

Utilitarianism/consequentialism

makes decisions based on majority

94
Q

Which of the following BEST describes the legal term ‘duty of care’?

A

The responsibilities of anyone caring for animals to provide for the animal’s basic needs

95
Q

In relation to current practice management technology used in veterinary practices, which of the following is TRUE/CORRECT?

A

Digital practice management systems can help with scheduling of appointments and a range of other administrative functions

96
Q

There are two main modes of thinking employed by clinicians when performing clinical reasoning – Type 1 and Type 2. Which of the following is MORE LIKELY to be linked to Type 2 reasoning when compared to Type 1?

A

Type 1; instinct and experience
Type 2; evidence based research

so type 2 is often slower

97
Q

The main reason alcohol is used as one of the solutions to aseptically prepare the skin of the patient for surgery in veterinary practice is because it is:

A

A defatting agent

97
Q

In the context of a veterinary-client consultation, the following phrase is an example of what skill? “Do you mind if I ask you a few questions about what you have noticed at home in relation to Sophie’s teeth? After that, I’d like to pop her up here on the exam table and give her a full exam.”

A

Sign-posting

98
Q

In relation to the human-animal bond, proximity seeking, Separation distress, Secure base and Safe haven are the four (4) behavioural systems of which theory developed by Bowlby?

A

Attachment Theory

99
Q

In relation to ‘continuing professional development’ (CPD), which of the following is TRUE/CORRECT?

A

Keeping current in terms of your knowledge and skills will be largely self-directed

100
Q

auscultation

A

using stethoscope to listen to heart/ lungs/ etc sounds

101
Q

skin tent test gives rough estimate of

A

hydration status

102
Q

In relation to general health examinations in animals, which of the following is FALSE?
a) CRT measures the moisture of mucous membranes
b) Pale MM may indicate anaemia or shock
c) Significant red blood cell destruction within the circulatory system can lead to icterus (jaundice)
d) Both (a) and (c) above

A

a

103
Q

In relation to the general physical exam of a dog, gingivitis:

A

Is often linked to dental disease

104
Q

schedule 2 drug

A

pharmacy medicine

105
Q

The Australian Veterinary Association:
a) Registers veterinarians so they can practice in each state or territory
b) Performs accreditation of Veterinary Schools in Australia
c) Was formed approximately 100 years ago
d) Conducts Membership and Fellowship Specialist Examinations

A

c) was formed in 1921

106
Q

who accredits vet schools

A

AVBC; australasian vet boards council

107
Q

In relation to the notion of ‘professionalism’, which of the following is TRUE ?
a) Professions are guided by a ‘Code of Ethics’
b) Professionals feel a sense of ‘social responsibility’
c) Professionals are accountable to the communities they serve
d) All of the above

A

d

108
Q

In relation to the clinical examination of a dog, ‘sinus arrhythmia’:

A

Is when the heart rate is closely linked to the breathing pattern

109
Q

‘Normative veterinary ethics’:

A

Relates to the case-by-case ethical decision-making of veterinarians as they go about their workplace activities

110
Q

In relation to veterinary ethics, which of the following is TRUE ?

A

The AVA’s Code of Professional Conduct has been recently updated and reflects the values of the Australian Veterinary Association

111
Q

In Queensland, enforcement of the Animal Care and Protection Act 2001 is the responsibility of:

A

RSPCA inspectors, Biosecurity Queensland inspectors and the Queensland Police Service

112
Q

In relation to the work-up of medical cases, which of the following is TRUE?

A

Differential diagnoses can be ranked in order of likelihood, based on the clues at hand

113
Q

Which of the following is a published framework to assist clinicians with the consultation process?

A

The 4-Habits Model

114
Q

controlled drug

A

S8; must be kept in a safe

115
Q

A member of the public calls your clinic for advice to help an adult Mastif dog, that was found injured by the roadside. The dog is starting to rouse and has begun snarling and snapping at people, although it cannot get up. Which of the following would you advise as the FIRST step?

A

Use a make-shift muzzle made from cloth or a dog lead to help restrain the dog to prevent injury to rescuers

116
Q

6 perfusions

A

Mucous membrane
CRT
Heart rate
Pulse quality
Extremity temps
Mentation

117
Q

Which of the following suture patterns is referred to as an “inverting” pattern?

A

cushing

118
Q

Veterinary boards generally require that veterinarians be “of good character” to be registered. Which ethical approach or framework does this align best with?

A

Virtue ethics

119
Q

Which ethical approach or framework requires an accurate prediction of outcomes?

A

Utilitarianism/consequentialism

119
Q

Ethical awareness or sensitivity refers to:

A

Recognising ethical issues and the values and viewpoints of others

120
Q

Animals general have three (3) perceptions of people. These are:

A

Positive, Negative, Neutral

Vets 1018 (27 decks)

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