Practice Exams Flashcards

(93 cards)

1
Q

The process associated with DNA polymerase is:

A) Mitosis
B) Transcription
C) Translation
D) Meiosis II
E) All of the above
A

A) Mitosis

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2
Q

Molecule required for meiosis I and mitosis:

A) DNA polymerase
B) DNA template
C) Helicase
D) Free Nucleotides
E) All of the above
A

E) All of the above

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3
Q

This molecule is NOT required to make a polypeptide:

A) rRNA
B) Helicase
C) mRNA
D) tRNA
E) all are required to make a polypeptide
A

B) Helicase

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4
Q

You need this molecule to make microRNA:

A) DNA polymerase
B) RNA polymerase
C) Ribosomes
D) tRNA
E) mRNA
A

B) RNA polymerase

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5
Q

RNA polymerase is not required for which of the following:

A) microRNA
B) tRNA
C) DNA
D) mRNA
E) all require RNA polymerase
A

C) DNA

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6
Q

The process regulated by microRNA is:

A) translation
B) transcription
C) Transpiration
D) meiosis II
E) all of the above
A

A) translation

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7
Q

Which of the following is needed to perform PCR (may be more than one)?

A) Free Nucleotides
B) DNA polymerase 40s
C) DNA polymerase
D) RNA polymerase I
E) TFIIB
A

A) Free nucleotides

C) DNA polymerase

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8
Q

The process interrupted by siRNA is:

A) mitosis
B) transcription
C) translation
D) meiosis II
E) all of the above
A

C) translation

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9
Q

The process associated with RNA polymerase is:

A) meiosis
B) transcription
C) translation
D) meiosis II
E) transpiration
A

B) transcription

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10
Q

The process associated with ribosomes is:

A) meiosis I
B) mRNA editing
C) translation
D) meiosis II
E) All of the above
A

C) translation

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11
Q

What could cause all transcription to stop in a prokaryote?

A) The sole RNA polymerase gene has mutated
B) Uracil DNA is not available
C) The nucleus is closed
D) 
All of the above
A

A) The sole RNA polymerase gene has mutated

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12
Q

Commonly used name for a PCR machine:

A) DNA Doubler
B) Mullis-Microwave
C) Taq cycler
D) Thermal Cycler

A

D) Thermal Cycler

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13
Q

Which process does not require complementary base pairing?

A) DNA replication
B) siRNA regulation
C) Transcription
D) Translation
E) All require complementary base pairing
A

E) All require complementary base pairing

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14
Q

You have detected a 10-fold decrease in siRNA production in human cancer cells vs a control.
What could this mean?

A) Overall DNA production has increased in the cancer subject
B) A group of cellular control genes are being silenced
C) A specific cellular control gene is no longer being silenced
D) The cellular mechanisms controlling rRNA production may have been damaged
E) DNA polymerase is being controlled by the siRNA

A

C) A specific cellular control gene is no longer being silenced

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15
Q

You have performed an extraction of a eukaryote cells’ RNA - you discover that there are no mRNA molecules - what is the most likely cause of this?

A) All of the rRNA genes have become mutated
B) All of the siRNA genes have become mutated
C) The RNA polymerase I genes have been inactivated
D) The RNA polymerase II genes have been inactivated
E) The RNA polymerase III genes have been inactivated

A

D) The RNA polymerase II genes have been inactivated

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16
Q

You have performed a test on a patient and found that the mRNA of a suspect gene in the pathway has a normal transcription level; Which of the following could be the cause of the disease?

A) siRNA is reducing suspect gene polypeptide production
B) microRNA is reducing suspect gene polypeptide production
C) The suspect gene mRNA encodes a defective poplypeptide
D) Either A or B
E) All of the above

A

E) All of the above

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17
Q

Incorporation of amino acids into a growing polypeptide has stopped, which one of the following molecules is most likely lacking in the cell?

A) siRNA
B) ribosome
C) DNA polymerase
D) charged tRNA
E) rRNA
A

D) charged tRNA

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18
Q

Which of these Hardy-Weinberg assumptions has changed the most in Humans over the past 300 years?

A) Mitigation
B) Natural Selection
C) Genetic Drag
D) Mutation
E) All have changed extensively
A

B) Natural Selection

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19
Q

Which of the following represents the best possible (not likely to be random)
“e” value from a BLAST result?

A) 0.15
B) 6.1
C) 100.0
D) 7e-150
E) 6e-24
A

D) 7e-150

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20
Q

You notice a missing chromosome in a patients karyotype - which of these conditions is caused by monosomy?

A) Patau Syndrome
B) Edwards Syndrome
C) Huntingtons Disease
D) Parkinsons Disease
E) None of the Above
A

E) None of the Above

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21
Q

In the scientific method, once you have proposed a testable hypothesis, what is the next step?

A) Perform the experiment, collecting data
B) Reformulate hypothesis; re-test as necessary
C) Propose a testable hypothesis (solution)
D) Design a controlled experiment
E) Interpret the data, compare to expected results

A

D) Design a controlled experiment

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22
Q

In a diploid cell, mitosis leads to:

A) Four haploid gametes
B) four daughter cells
C) two daughter cells
D) One diploid daughter cell and two haploid gametes
E) Three haploid gametes
A

C) two daughter cells

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23
Q

You have read a report that indicates your genome of interest has a 40% G/C content. What is the percent of the genome that is Guanine?

A) 60%
B) 20%
C) 35%
D) 30%
E) 40%
A

B) 20%

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24
Q

The temperature required to separate two complementary strands of the same DNA molecule is affected by which of the following factors?

A) The direction of the strand
B) The A/C content of the strand
C) The availability of DNA helicase
D) The G/C content of the strand
E) The availability of DNA Polymerase
A

D) The G/C content of the strand

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25
You wish to study a previously undiscovered organism. Which data would give you a quick overview of what the organism transcribes to compare with other, known organisms? ``` A) rRNA sequencing B) tRNA sequencing C) cDNA sequencing D) Sanger DNA genomic sequencing E) All of the above ```
C) cDNA sequencing
26
The following is an mRNA sequence. What was the CODING sequence? 5’- AUCCAAAACGUUGA - 3’ ``` A) 5’- ATCCAAAACGTTGA - 3’ B) 5’- TACCTTTTGCAACT - 3’ C) 3’- TACCTTTTGCAACT - 5’ D) 5’- AGTTGCAAAAGGTA - 3’ E) The sequence is not listed in A-D ```
A) 5’- ATCCAAAACGTTGA - 3’
27
In this micro-array experiment, red labeling was used for cells resistant to ebola and green for susceptible to ebola. Using x-y coordinates, answer the following, being careful to give answers that you are SURE of: Which genes are up-regulated in the susceptible cells after exposure to ebola (the answer may not include all genes up- or down-regulated)? ``` A) a2, j3, f6 B) a6, b1, g2 C) 3, I5, k6 D) k3, e2, c5 E) None of the above ```
B) a6, b1, g2
28
Given the following DNA coding sequence 5’ - CGATGATGCCTCATTGT - 3’, what is the resulting polypeptide in single letter annotation (beginning from the start codon only)? ``` A) 5'-RSFLI... -3' B) 5'-MIPHC...-3' C) 5'-GCTACTAAGGAGTAACA-3' D) 5'-MMPHC...-3' E) None of the above ```
D) 5'-MMPHC...-3'
29
Which of the following are required for a population to be in genetic equilibrium? ``` A) No Mutation B) Survival of the fastest C) No Natural Selection D) Mitigation E) Sufficient Population size (aka no genetic drift) F) Random Mating G) Artificial Selection H) No Migration ```
``` A) No Mutation C) No Natural Selection E) Sufficient Population size (aka no genetic drift) F) Random Mating H) No Migration ```
30
``` You are studying a new organism. You notice that there are more unique polypeptides than genes - what could be the reason for this? A) Codon Bias B) microRNA C) siRNA D) Alternative splicing E) All of the above ```
D) Alternative splicing
31
What would SUPPORT the findings of Zhang et als.' BMC paper above? A) Discovering that the authors perform both laparotomy and laparoscopy surgeries B) Discovering that the project was paid for by a company that supplies laparoscopic surgery kits C) A second paper that uses the third version the CMA program (CMA-3) showing the same general trend D) Finding out that the authors are from America E) None of the above
C) A second paper that uses the third version the CMA program (CMA-3) showing the same general trend
32
Which of the following is more closely related to mRNA? ``` A) ribosomal RNA B) Expressed Sequence Tag C) consensus DNA D) Amino Acids E) None of the above ```
B) Expressed Sequence Tag
33
Cancer is caused by uncontrolled cell growth, which core concept of Genetics is vital to understanding what causes this condition? ``` A) The Central Dogma B) Transmission Genetics C) The Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium D) Mendelian Genetics E) All of the above ```
A) The Central Dogma
34
You have a child. This child's fingers are longer than you or your spouse/other biological parent. What is the likely reason? ``` A) Heterosis B) complete dominance C) Massive Mendelian Inheritance D) Smart chromosome Trisomy E) None of the Above ```
A) Heterosis
35
You are treating a family that has Huntingtons disease. You obtain sequence from the HTT gene for each affected family member and notice that the younger members of the family are presenting the disease earlier than their older relatives. What repeat-based phenomenon could explain this? ``` A) Mono-genic inheritance B) Anticipation C) Defective (Recessive) allele D) An induced transcription factor E) Trisomy ```
B) Anticipation
36
More males are affected by a disease with this inheritance pattern: ``` A) Autosomal Dominant B) X-Linked Recessive C) X-Linked Dominant D) Homozygous Lethal E) None of the above ```
B) X-Linked Recessive
37
Assuming HOMOZYGOUS PARENTS - Which of the following suspects could be brothers or sisters to the victim? BE VERY CAREFUL! Use the following autosomal SSR marker data generated between several suspects, a victim and the crime scene to answer the question. ``` A) Suspect 3 and Suspect 6 B) Suspect 6 C) Suspect 7 and Suspect 5 D) All could be brothers or sisters E) None can be related ```
B) Suspect 6
38
Mendel crossed homozygous parents with smooth (SS) and wrinkled (ss) seed to make heterozygous smooth F1 seed. These F1 seed were then selfed. What is the chance that a wrinkled F2 seed will breed true (produce only one phenotype) when selfed? ``` A) 75% B) 100% C) 25% D) 66% E) 0% ```
B) 100%
39
Mendel crossed homozygous parents with smooth (SS) and wrinkled (ss) seed to make heterozygous smooth F1 seed. These F1 seed were then selfed. What is the chance that an F1 seed chosen at random will be wrinkled? ``` A) 75% B) 25% C) 33% D) 66% E) 0% ```
E) 0%
40
What type of inheritance is indicated in this pedigree (ALL CARRIERS ARE SHOWN)? ``` A) Autosomal recessive B) Mitochondrial C) X-linked Recessive D) Autosomal Dominant E) None of the Above ```
D) Autosomal Dominant
41
What type of inheritance is indicated in this Punnett square? ``` A) Heterosis B) Incomplete Dominance C) Y-linked D) Autosomal Recessive E) None of the Above ```
A) Heterosis
42
Which of the following individuals MUST be carriers of a rare autosomal recessive disease? ``` A) II-1 B) II-2 C) II-3 D) III-1 E) III-2 F) III-4 G) III-5 H) III-7 ```
B) II-2 C) II-3 G) III-5 H) III-7
43
True or False? | This pedigree represents possible Mitochondrial Inheritance.
False (not possible)
44
True or False? | This pedigree represents autosomal recessive inheritance. (any possible carriers are NOT shown).
True
45
True or False? | This pedigree represents possible Autosomal Dominant Inheritance
True (possible)
46
True or False? | This pedigree represents possible Mitochondrial Inheritance?
True (possible)
47
True or False? | This pedigree represents possible Single Nucleotide Polymorphism (SNP) Inheritance.
True (possible)
48
True or False? | This pedigree represents possible Single Nucleotide Polymorphism (SNP) Inheritance
False (not possible)
49
True or False? | This pedigree represents possible Single Nucleotide Polymorphism (SNP) Inheritance
False (not possible)
50
True or False? | This pedigree represents possible Simple Sequence Repeat (SSR) Inheritance
True (possible)
51
True or False? | This pedigree represents possible Simple Sequence Repeat (SSR) Inheritance
False (not possible)
52
True or False? | This pedigree represents possible Autosomal Recessive Inheritance (Carriers Shown)
False (not possible)
53
True or False? | This pedigree represents possible Mitochondrial Inheritance
False (not possible)
54
True or False? | This pedigree represents possible Autosomal Recessive Inheritance (Carriers Shown)
True (possible)
55
True or False? | This pedigree represents possible Autosomal Recessive Inheritance (Carriers Shown)
False (not possible)
56
True or False? | This pedigree represents possible X-Linked Dominant Inheritance
False (not possible)
57
True or False? | This pedigree represents possible Autosomal Recessive Inheritance (Carriers Shown
True (possible)
58
True or False? | This pedigree represents possible Autosomal Dominant Inheritance
True (possible)
59
True or False? | This pedigree represents possible Autosomal Recessive Inheritance (Carriers Shown)
False (not possible)
60
True or False? | This pedigree represents possible Autosomal Recessive Inheritance (Carriers Shown)
False (not possible)
61
True or False? | This pedigree represents possible Autosomal Recessive Inheritance (Carriers Shown)
True (possible)
62
Tay Sachs is an autosomal recessive disease leading to nerve cell damage and early childhood death. 1 in 250 humans are carriers; There is NO BENEFIT to being a carrier for this disease. Since there is no benefit, list the Hardy Weinberg assumptions in order of likely reasons that this disease is so widespread AND describe why you picked this order.
flkgpgjhiaknslkhncwh ioetsl i
63
Disease A is autosomal dominant. A total of 36% of the study population of 100 people are affected. How many heterozygous affected individuals are in the study population (6 pts)? ANSWER WITH A NUMBER.
32.0
64
The panels indicate the effects of genetic drift on the heterozygosity of a single gene (starting at 50% each allele) through 50 generations of random mating. Indicate the largest population to the smallest based on maintained heterozygosity. Image by By Professor marginalia ​[CC BY-SA 3.0 (https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0) or GFDL ``` A) 1,2,3 B) 2,1,3 C) 3,1,2 D) 2,3,1 E) Unable to determine ```
B) 2,1,3
65
A long-term study of Finches has been conducted on an island. After 192 generations, their progeny have separated into two distinct populations that are no longer able to create successful offspring between them and survive on different food sources. Why? ``` A) Founder Effect B) Natural selection C) Heritability D) Macro-evolution E) Environmental influence ```
D) Macro-evolution
66
A somatic cell mutation that results in under-expression of multiple genes ``` A) Chromosomal addition B) Sex Chromosome Y-linked inversion C) Autosomal dominant reversion D) Sex Chromosome X-linked accumulation E) Chromosome deletion ```
E) Chromosome deletion
67
A de-novo (new) gamete-cell mutation has which of the following characteristics? A) All offspring are affected B) One parent must be a carrier C) Both parents must be carriers D) The condition cannot be transmitted to progeny E) The condition must be transmitted to male progeny
D) The condition cannot be transmitted to progeny
68
Once a spontaneous dominant mutation has occurred in the progeny of a cross, it will become phenotypically evident at what time? A) When the affected individual mates with a sibling B) When the affected individual mates with a cousin C) When the affected individual mates with another affected individual D) Immediately E) Never
D) Immediately
69
Which of the following are required for a population to be in genetic equilibrium? ``` A) No Mutation B) Survival of the Fittest C) No Natural Selection D) No Migration E) Random Mating ```
A) No Mutation C) No Natural Selection D) No Migration E) Random Mating
70
The portion of a phenotype that is caused by the environment is considered to be... ``` A) Heritable B) Transmittable C) Migrational D) Central E) None of the above ```
E) None of the above
71
Worldwide, gene ABCD has an “R” amino acid in its polypeptide at position 64. The mutations p.R64T (53% of Asians), p.R64G (51% Europeans) mean which of the following could be relevant/true? A) At least two different population based wild types B) A substantial number of individuals with a mutation C) Migration-based wild types D) Founder-based mutation selection E) All of the above
E) All of the above
72
Identical twins were separated at birth. 27 years later, they found each other and were surprised that both of them were 5’ 8” tall. This is an example of: ``` A) Environmental influence B) Natural selection C) Heritability D) Mutation selection E) Reproductive success ```
C) Heritability
73
Disease A is autosomal recessive. A total of 36% of the study population of 100 people are affected. How many homozygous unaffected individuals are in the study population? ``` A) 16 B) 24 C) 36 D) 48 E) 60 ```
A) 16
74
Disease A is autosomal recessive. A total of 36% of the study population of 100 people are affected. How many carriers are in the study population? ``` A) 12 B) 24 C) 36 D) 48 E) 60 ```
D) 48
75
You are a carrier for a disease. You wish to remove any possibility that the disease allele will be transmitted to the next generation. Which of these can accomplish this? ``` A) IVF+PGD B) Not having any children C) IVF only D) PCR E) Mating with an unaffected individual ```
E) Mating with an unaffected individual
76
The mutation p.Leu231Thr indicates what? A) The coding sequence at DNA bp 231 has been changed to a Threonine in a sequence B) The amino sequence at DNA bp 231 has been changed to a Threonine in a sequence C) The amino acid at position 231 has been changed to a Leucine in a polypeptide D) The amino acid at position 231 has been changed to a Threonine in a polypeptide
D) The amino acid at position 231 has been changed to a Threonine in a polypeptide
77
Which of the following can cause mutation in Humans? ``` A) Ionizing Radiation B) Microwaves C) Mutagenic Chemicals D) Transposable elements E) Spider bites ```
A) Ionizing Radiation C) Mutagenic Chemicals D) Transposable elements
78
What is true of the “serial founder" effect? A) All people of African descent are founders B) All people from Europe are from a completely different gene pool C) At each new founding event, genetic polymorphism is reduced in the new population D) At each founding event, genetic polymorphism is increased in the new population
C) At each new founding event, genetic polymorphism is reduced in the new population
79
Which of the following sequences would result from the annotation c.72dupTA​[3]? THINK CAREFULLY! ``` A) 5’ …AUCACUAUAUACAGAUA..3’ B) 5’ …ATCACTATACAGATA..3’ C) 3’ …ATCACTATACAGATA..5’ D) 5’ …ATCACTAATAATAACAGATA..3’ E) 5’ …ATCACTAUATTACAGAUA..3’ ```
A) 5’ …AUCACUAUAUACAGAUA..3’
80
Mendel crossed homozygous parents with smooth (SS) and wrinkled (ss) seed to make heterozygous smooth F1 seed. These F1 seed were then selfed. What is the chance that an F1 seed chosen at random will be wrinkled? ``` A) 75% B) 25% C) 33% D) 66% E) 0% ```
E) 0%
81
The process associated with DNA polymerase is: ``` A) mitosis B) transcription C) translation D) meiosis II E) All of the above ```
A) mitosis
82
This molecule is NOT required to make a polypeptide ``` A) rRNA B) Helicase C) mRNA D) tRNA E) All are required to make a polypeptide ```
B) Helicase
83
RNA polymerase is not required for which of the following ``` A) microRNA B) tRNA C) DNA D) mRNA E) All require RNA polymerase ```
C) DNA
84
Which of the following is needed to perform PCR (may be more than one)? ``` A) Free nucleotides B) DNA polymerase 40s C) DNA polymerase D) RNA polymerase I E) TFIIB ```
A) Free nucleotides | C) DNA polymerase
85
The process associated with ribosomes is: ``` A) meiosis I B) mRNA editing C) translation D) meiosis II E) All of the above ```
C) translation
86
Which process does not require complementary base pairing? ``` A) DNA Replication B) siRNA regulation C) Transcription D) Translation E) All require complementary base pairing ```
E) All require complementary base pairing
87
Which of the following represents the best possible (not likely to be random) “e” value from a BLAST result? ``` A) 0.15 B) 6.1 C) 100.0 D) 7e-150 E) 6e-24 ```
D) 7e-150
88
True or False? This pedigree represents autosomal recessive inheritance. (any possible carriers are NOT shown)
True
89
True or False? This pedigree represents possible Autosomal Recessive Inheritance (Carriers Shown)
False
90
True or False? This pedigree represents possible Single Nucleotide Polymorphism (SNP) Inheritance
False
91
True or False? This pedigree represents possible Simple Sequence Repeat (SSR) Inheritance
False
92
True or False? This pedigree represents possible Autosomal Recessive Inheritance (Carriers Shown)
True
93
More males are affected by a disease with this inheritance pattern ``` A) Autosomal Dominant B) X-Linked Recessive C) X-Linked Dominant D) Homozygous Lethal E) None of the above ```
B) X-Linked Recessive