practice exam grab bag

Question 1

Which vaccine is currently in use for Brucella vaccination in cows?

1) Sc27
2) Strain 19
3) Rb51
4) Rb107

Answer 1

3) Rb51

ps. brucella is reportable

Question 2

What is the most common dermatophyte infecting the cat?

1) Microsporum gypseum
2) Microsporum canis
3) Microsporum nanum
4) Trichophyton mentagrophytes
5) Microsporum felis

Answer 2

2)Microsporum canis

Question 3

T/F : Johne’s Disease is acid fast and causes chronic wasting, diarrhea and submandibular edema.

Answer 3

true

Question 4

how does hypovitaminosis A manifests in bids?

Answer 4

manifest as squamous metaplasia of the oral mucous membranes or glands. Glands may be entirely converted to squamous epithelium with keratin material and can look like abscesses or pustules but are essentially keratin cysts. They should be differentiated from lesions of pox, Candida, and Trichomonas. Lesions of the conjunctiva, nasolacrimal duct, upper GI tract, and upper respiratory tract can occur. Presenting signs may include severe dyspnea or respiratory signs.

Question 5

what is the most common ocular tumor of the dog?

Answer 5

meibomian gland adenoma. This is the most common ocular tumor of the dog and is usually benign.

Question 6

T/F (horse question)
Cases of osselets that are caught before the development of osteoarthritis often respond completely to medical management

Answer 6

true

Question 7

At the end-point of warfarin therapy in an animal with a pulmonary thromboembolism you want a _______ time of 1.5-2times normal

Answer 7

prothrombin

Question 8

The maximum safe rate of potassium infusion is ____mEq/kg/hr.

Answer 8

0.5 mEq/kg/hr

Question 9

Type II Ostertagiasis necropsy findings of a cow

Answer 9

thickened mucosal folds in the abomasum (with less shiny mucous than normal), and thousands of larvae are detected when you digest and stain the abomasal mucosa.

Question 10

A 3-month old Holstein female calf has severe unilateral corneal ulceration, opacity and melting, along with mild conjunctivitis and marked neovascularization. The calf also exhibits photophobia, blepharospasm, and lacrimation. What is the most likely cause of this?

Answer 10

Infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis (IBK).The most common bacteria causing this is Moraxella bovis, although other organisms including Neisseria species and Moraxella ovis can also induce similar lesions in cattle.

Question 11

what is the first sign noticed with apocrine gland anal sac adenocarcinoma in dogs

Answer 11

polyuria and polydipsia. This frequently occurs with these tumors before any other clinical sign due to hypercalcemia associated with PTH-rP production by the tumor.

Question 12

T/F

Chlamydophila felis causes severe chemosis in cats

Answer 12

true

Question 13

What is the main goal in treating spinal cord trauma?

Answer 13

To prevent ischemia of the cord

Question 14

What is the treatment of choice for perianal fistulas?

Answer 14

Immunosuppressive drugs. Perianal fistulas are an immune mediated disease, and medical management with immunosuppressive therapy, perhaps with cyclosporine, is now the initial treatment of choice. However, a combination of surgery and immunosuppressive therapy is not uncommon. German shepherds are predisposed to development of perianal fistulas.

Question 15

what does xanthochromia mean ?

Answer 15

xanthochromia is the yellow discoloration indicating the presence of bilirubin in the cerebrospinal fluid

Question 16

what causes weight loss and large, pale, voluminous droppings often referred to as having a “popcorn” appearance in birds ?

Answer 16

Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency in birds may occur due to congenital pancreatic atrophy or due to end-stage chronic pancreatic disease. This is treated by identifying and eliminating underlying causes and converting the bird to a formulated diet supplemented with pancreatic enzymes.

Question 17

Which of the following is caused by Toxocara canis (roundworm ) when ingested by humans?

Answer 17

Visceral larva migrans

Question 18

woody or wooden tongue in cows

• what is it
• how do we treat it
• clinical signs

Answer 18

-causes weight loss and animal does not eat well
The infection is introduced by breaks in the mucosa, allowing the normal rumen inhabitant, Actinobacillus Lignieresii, to invade and cause painful granulomas. The disease can often be successfully treated with IV sodium iodide; although certain other systemic antibiotics including tetracyclines can be used. The sodium iodide is given intravenously once and repeated again in 7-10 days. It is given at a concentration ranging from 5-20%.

Question 19

The most common conduction disorder in the horse occurs at the level of the _____

Answer 19

Atrioventricular node

Question 20

when does a horse get his canine teeth ?

Answer 20

4 years of age

Question 21

yew toxicity

Answer 21

depress myocardial conduction by blocking Na movement and causes sudden death

Question 22

Using a modern day milking machine, how long does it usually take to milk out a cow?

Answer 22

5-7 minutes

Question 23

clinical signs associated with lidocaine toxicity include ____

Answer 23

neurological symptoms such as seizures and tremors. Nausea and vomiting may occur, but is usually transient. Cardiovascular and respiratory depression can also occur, but usually later on in the course of clinical signs.

Question 24

What membrane is “slipped” when diagnosing pregnancy by rectal palpation in a cow?

Answer 24

Chorioallantois

Question 25

Mammary tumors in cats are almost always malignant and greater than ___ of them will eventually metastasize. This is in contrast to mammary tumors in dogs, in which ___ are malignant, and ___ of those that are malignant will eventually metastasize.

Answer 25

Mammary tumors in cats are almost always malignant and greater than 90% of them will eventually metastasize. This is in contrast to mammary tumors in dogs, in which 50% are malignant, and 50% of those that are malignant will eventually metastasize.

Question 26

Ivermectin, fenbendazole, pyrantel, and butamisole all are effective against ____. Praziquantel is used for treating _____ infections.

Answer 26

hookworm

tapeworm

Question 27

The entire canine esophagus is ___ muscle. The feline esophagus is 2/3 _____, then 1/3 _____ muscle

Answer 27

The entire canine esophagus is striated muscle. The feline esophagus is 2/3 striated, then 1/3 smooth muscle

Question 28

Actinobacillus lignieresii causes _____ in ruminants

Answer 28

woody tongue

Question 29

What is the maximum amount of time cats shed feline panleukopenia virus after they recover?

Answer 29

6 weeks

Question 30

T/F

the horse can be effected by foot-mouth disease

Answer 30

false. FMD affects all cloven-hoofed animals, as well as bears, llamas, camels, and elephants.

Question 31

_____ are the most common viral cause of diarrhea in foals.

Answer 31

Rotaviruses are the most common viral cause of diarrhea in foals.

Question 32

Scrapie in sheep

• what is it
• clinical signs

Answer 32

Scrapie is an afebrile neurologic disease of sheep that is a chronic, progressive, degenerative neurologic disease. It is one of the transmissible encephalopathies (like mad cow disease) caused by a prion. Clinical signs depend on the regions of the brain that are affected but usually include behavior changes including aggressiveness, failure to herd, unsteady gait, floppy ears, self-mutilation (pruritus), and in end stages, blindness, seizures, and an inability to swallow.

Question 33

alopecia X clinical sign and diagnosis in dogs

Answer 33

The most common clinical signs are truncal alopecia and hyperpigmentation. Diagnosis is made by excluding everything else, including endocrine stuff

Question 34

What is the treatment for pityriasis rosea in pigs?

Answer 34

no treatment is required. Pityriasis rosea occurs in pigs 3-14 weeks of age and is characterized by raised circular lesions on the ventral abdomen. Pityriasis rosea resolves on its own in a few weeks without any treatment. The etiology of the disease is unknown, but may have a hereditary basis.

Question 35

What dog breed has a familial syndrome of hypertriglyceridemia?

Answer 35

Miniature Schnauzers

Question 36

Visceral gout is the result of crystallization of what compound?

Answer 36

Uric acid

Question 37

vitamin E and selenium deficiency clinical signs in cows

Answer 37

alert but weak, dyspneic and die suddenly. pale cardiac and skeletal muscles

Question 38

Which protozoan is not considered to infect cattle?

1) Sarcocystis hominis
2) Sarcocystis hirsuta
3) Sarcocystis tenella
4) Sarcocystis cruzi

Answer 38

The correct answer is Sarcocystis tenella, which can infect sheep and goats.

Question 39

Quarter Horse stallion for muscle stiffness, difficulty walking, and prolapse of the third eyelid, followed by recumbency. The trainer informed you that the stallion has demonstrated similar clinical signs of lesser severity in the past. What dz do you think of and what tx?

Answer 39

hereditary disease you should suspect is hyperkalemic periodic paralysis. In acute episodes of HYPP, the clinician should try and drive down the serum potassium. This can be accomplished by administering potassium-free IV fluids (such as 0.9% NaCl) and medications (such as dextrose) to drive potassium into the cell.

Question 40

excess dietary calcium and vitamin D in young horses causes _____. Ca deficiency or excess phosphorus causes______ and/or ______. ______ is caused by insufficient OR excess iodine

Answer 40

osteochondrosis

Rickets and nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism

Goiter

Question 41

In birds, Newcastle disease is caused by a ____________.

Answer 41

Paramyxovirus

Question 42

When do cows reach peak lactation?

Answer 42

4-8 weeks post parturition

Question 43

Taurine deficiency in cats causes what abnormality in the eye?

Answer 43

Central retinal degeneration. This is because photoreceptors contain large amounts of taurine, and cats cannot synthesize it.

Question 44

T/F

Thelazia is a type of nematode that is also known as the “eyeworm” and can be seen in ocular tissue

Answer 44

true

Question 45

What organism is the most common when it comes to fungal rhinitis in the dog ?

Answer 45

aspergillus

Question 46

Dog pregnancy. Stage 1 is typically ____ hours of length and can persist for up to ____ hours. In this stage, it is expected for the dog to exhibit panting, trembling, nesting behavior, and restlessness. Occasionally dogs will also vomit. Stage 2 will also last approximately ____ hours (____hr) and is characterized by abdominal straining which coincides with uterine contraction. Puppy delivery occurs during Stage 2 at an interval of ____ to ____min (up to ___hours). Stage 3 involves the expulsion of fetal membranes as well as involution of the uterus. Fetal membranes are usually passed____ minutes after birth of a pup before another puppy can be delivered from the same horn.

Answer 46

Stage 1 is typically 6-12 hours of length and can persist for up to 36 hours. In this stage, it is expected for the dog to exhibit panting, trembling, nesting behavior, and restlessness. Occasionally dogs will also vomit. Stage 2 will also last approximately 6-12 hours (and persist up to 36hr) and is characterized by abdominal straining which coincides with uterine contraction. Puppy delivery occurs during Stage 2 at an interval of 30-60min (up to 4 hours). Stage 3 involves the expulsion of fetal membranes as well as involution of the uterus. Fetal membranes are usually passed 5-15 minutes after birth of a pup before another puppy can be delivered from the same horn.

Question 47

Actinomyces bovis (lumpy jaw) in cows. Where is it found normally and how does it becomes a problem

Answer 47

result of sustaining an injury in the mucous membranes. Actinomyces bovis is part of the normal oral and rumen flora and can become a source of infection when cows consume items that traumatize their mouths. The lesion classically causes a hard non-painful swelling of the mandible or maxilla along with productive and destructive bony changes. Teeth may be lost.

Question 48

What is the gestation length of a goat?

Answer 48

150days

Question 49

What is a typical description of esophageal groove dysfunction in a calf resulting in rumen acidosis?

Answer 49

milk goes to the rumen where it is fermented by rumen microbes and converted to volatile fatty acids and lactic acid. The resulting rumen acidosis causing the cow to be depressed, growing poorly and appears unthrift with a rough hair coat. She recently began kicking at her flank, teeth grinding, and vocalizing with an arched back. She has developed white, putty-like feces and is dehydrated.

Question 50

The most common equine tumor is a locally aggressive fibroblastic tumor of the dermis and subcutis with a variable proliferative epithelial component. What is this tumor commonly called?

Answer 50

The sarcoid comes in many forms and can be difficult to eliminate in many cases. Bovine papillomavirus types 1 and 2 are associated with this tumor of horses.

Question 51

Which species of animal develops a marked increase in serum bilirubin from fasting?

Answer 51

Equine

Question 52

equine glanders

what is it and what is the test for it called? How do we tx?

Answer 52

bacterial disease caused by Burkholderia mallei. It is thought to be endemic in regions of the Middle East, Asia, Africa, and South America. Glanders can cause disease in donkeys, mules, and small ruminants. Glanders is primarily a concern in horses because they can be chronic or occult carriers that intermittently shed this deadly and potential zoonotic pathogen. Mallein test. Horses should not be treated; local authorities should be notified if a case is suspect and if disease is confirmed, horses must be humanely destroyed and affected carcasses should be burned and buried.

Question 53

cow has pus and blood sore on flank and you suspect Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis. What should you tell the owner to do?

Answer 53

Flush the wound and let it heal

Question 54

what is Sarcocystis neurona

Answer 54

Sarcocystis neurona is primarily a neural parasite of horses. it can parasitize all regions of the central nervous system

Question 55

what is the most common cerebellar disease found in the horse ?

Answer 55

Cerebellar abiotrophy is usually observed in foals which are less than one year of age, particularly 1-6 months of age. Cerebellar abiotrophy is the most common cerebellar disease found in horses.

Question 56

Tritrichomonas foetus vs giargia appearance

Answer 56

giargia: ventral concave disc, are pear shaped, binucleate

Tritrichomonas foetus: has an undulating membrane, not usually found in dogs and has ONE nuclei

Question 57

infectious bovine rhinotracheitis (IBR) clinical signs and what to do about it

Answer 57

Frequent coughing , inappetant animals with purulent ocular and nasal discharges, pyrexia, upper respiratory tract noise. Vaccinate all cattle with intranasal vaccine against the virus and treat sick animals with intramuscular procaine penicillin for 3 days

Question 58

T/F
 hypertrophic osteopathy (HO) occurs in association with a thoracic mass

Answer 58

true

Question 59

Equine Degenerative Myeloencephalopathy (EDM)

what causes it? what age does it effect? clinical signs

Answer 59

cause of EDM is unknown, but this disease typically affects young horses. Clinical signs are a result of diffuse neuronal fiber degeneration of various portions of the central nervous system. This disease has been associated with low serum vitamin E concentrations, suggesting that oxidative damage may play a role in the development of disease.

Question 60

Purpura hemorrhagica treatment

Answer 60

Purpura hemorrhagica in the horse is an immune complex disorder usually associated with the presence of Streptococcus equi antigens and antibodies in high levels. The disease disrupts endothelial integrity, causing plasma and blood to leak into tissues. Penicillin is used to destroy any remaining Strep equi. The disorder carries a guarded prognosis.

Question 61

Which breed and differential diagnosis are most commonly associated with canine degenerative myelopathy?

Answer 61

German Shepherd Dog with hip dysplasia

Question 62

What is the drug of choice for a Chlamydophila felis infection?

Answer 62

Tetracyclines are the drugs of choice, specifically doxycycline. Doxycycline is less likely to cause permanent discoloration of the teeth as compared to other tetracyclines. Doxycycline will also be effective against Bordetella and Mycoplasma.

Question 63

Clinical signs associated with bracken fern ingestion in a horse

Answer 63

Bracken fern contains thiaminase, leading to thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency. Clinical signs include anorexia, weight loss, incoordination, convulsions, wide-based stance, opisthotonos, and death.

Question 64

how to deal with avian encephalomyelitis

Answer 64

Vaccinate 10-15 week old breeding animals. The best prevention strategy is to vaccinate breeder animals to prevent vertical transmission to progeny and to provide them with maternal immunity during the susceptible period.

Question 65

Hypomagnesemic tetany (grass tetany) can cause what signs in beef cattle?

Answer 65

found dead, staggering, on its side paddling, pounding heart, fluttering eyelids, nystagmus, champing jaws

Question 66

what causes achromatosis (failure of pigmentation )?

Answer 66

variety of nutritional deficiencies in different species.

Question 67

What should you think of when you hear a split heart sound in a dog with dyspnea and unremarkable rads?

Answer 67

pulmonary thrumboembolism

Question 68

(T/F) TVT has a different number of chromosomes than the host cells?

Answer 68

true. TVT has 59 and dog cells have 78

Question 69

Bone spavin is osteoarthritis of the distal intertarsal joint and/or the tarsometatarsal joint. What gait abnormalities do you suspect the horse to have?

Answer 69

Short, low arc stride, landing toe first

Question 70

What horse gait abnormalities would expect with upward fixation of the patella?

Answer 70

hindleg in rigid extension, pulling forward dragging the toe

Question 71

What horse gait abnormalities would expect with conditions of the feet such as subsolar abscesses and septic navicular bursitis (also known as “street nail”)

Answer 71

Minimal weight bearing and marked foot sensitivity

Question 72

What horse gait abnormalities would expect with navicular disease ?

Answer 72

leaning forward stance and have short strides and place the toe first.

Question 73

What is the ideal incision site for a foreign body gastrotomy?

Answer 73

Halfway between the greater and lesser curvature of the stomach

Question 74

Approximately how long does it take for spermatogonia to mature to sperm in the stallion?

Answer 74

60 days

Question 75

Which of these drugs should be used with great caution in stallions due to the risk of causing paraphimosis or priapism?

Ketamine
Atropine
Acepromazine
Trimethoprim-sulfa

Answer 75

The correct answer is acepromazine. Phenothiazine tranquilizers can cause relaxation of smooth muscles and engorgement of the corpus cavernosum with blood, leading to an inability to withdraw the penis into the sheath or paraphimosis. While this drug side effect is very rare, veterinarians should be cautious in the use of acepromazine in stallions and should consider another sedative such as xylazine or detomidine when sedation is necessary.

Question 76

copper deficiency: Dilution of the coat color is due to dysfunction of ______ which converts L-tyrosine to melanin. In addition, copper deficient animals will have spontaneous fractures, secondary respiratory disease, diarrhea, ill thrift, decreased immunity, anemia, and poor reproduction.

Answer 76

copper deficiency: Dilution of the coat color is due to dysfunction of tyrosinase which converts L-tyrosine to melanin. In addition, copper deficient animals will have spontaneous fractures, secondary respiratory disease, diarrhea, ill thrift, decreased immunity, anemia, and poor reproduction.

Question 77

Which type of urolith occurs most commonly in feedlot cattle receiving large amounts of grain and is shown in the photo below?

Answer 77

STRUVITE is composed of magnesium ammonium phosphate. The alkaline urine in cattle along with high dietary phosphate and magnesium levels favors formation of struvite stones.

Question 78

When performing a necropsy on a cow, you find multiple abnormalities including abomasal ulcers, interstitial pneumonia, pericardial effusion, and mastitis. You also see that the liver has a brown- (tan) and red-mottled lobular pattern described as a nutmeg liver. Which of these conditions in the cow could lead to the necropsy findings in the liver?

Mastitis
Pericardial effusion
Abomasal ulcers
Interstitial pneumonia

Answer 78

The appearance of a nutmeg liver occurs because there are red central veins and sinusoids between tan areas of swollen hepatocytes. This occurs with right sided heart failure from passive congestion of the sinusoids of hepatocellular hypoxia. Pericardial effusion causes right sided heart failure and is the cause of the liver’s appearance.

Question 79

The signalment, history and clinical signs are most consistent with a perianal fistula. Although the pathogenesis is not fully understood, this disease is thought to be primarily immune-mediated. The treatment of choice for perianal fistula is medical management with ________, as resolution is achieved in greater than 65% of dogs. Surgical correction may lead to fecal incontinence or stricture formation, however surgery for removal of the anal sacs in combination with cyclosporine has recently shown promise.

Answer 79

The signalment, history and clinical signs are most consistent with a perianal fistula. Although the pathogenesis is not fully understood, this disease is thought to be primarily immune-mediated. The treatment of choice for perianal fistula is medical management with cyclosporine, as resolution is achieved in greater than 65% of dogs. Surgical correction may lead to fecal incontinence or stricture formation, however surgery for removal of the anal sacs in combination with cyclosporine has recently shown promise.

Question 80

ABX that are able to pass the blood-prostate barrier (4 main categories)

Answer 80

Chloramphenicol, erythromycin, trimethoprim and fluoroquinolones

Question 81

In the U.S., swine tuberculosis is most commonly associated with exposure to materials (feed, water, bedding) contaminated by what animals?

 Dairy cows
 Birds 
 Domestic swine
 White tail deer
 Feral swine

Answer 81

The correct answer is birds. Swine TB is very rare in the U.S. due to modern hog production practices. Bovine TB is still present but is not very common either. Deer can serve as a source to contaminate water but is not as common. Most cases of TB in swine today is cause by avian TB. Most swine outbreaks today are traced back to contaminated water (use of surface water such as ponds or lakes) or bedding.