practice exam grab bag Flashcards
Which vaccine is currently in use for Brucella vaccination in cows?
1) Sc27
2) Strain 19
3) Rb51
4) Rb107
3) Rb51
ps. brucella is reportable
What is the most common dermatophyte infecting the cat?
1) Microsporum gypseum
2) Microsporum canis
3) Microsporum nanum
4) Trichophyton mentagrophytes
5) Microsporum felis
2)Microsporum canis
T/F : Johne’s Disease is acid fast and causes chronic wasting, diarrhea and submandibular edema.
true
how does hypovitaminosis A manifests in bids?
manifest as squamous metaplasia of the oral mucous membranes or glands. Glands may be entirely converted to squamous epithelium with keratin material and can look like abscesses or pustules but are essentially keratin cysts. They should be differentiated from lesions of pox, Candida, and Trichomonas. Lesions of the conjunctiva, nasolacrimal duct, upper GI tract, and upper respiratory tract can occur. Presenting signs may include severe dyspnea or respiratory signs.
what is the most common ocular tumor of the dog?
meibomian gland adenoma. This is the most common ocular tumor of the dog and is usually benign.
T/F (horse question)
Cases of osselets that are caught before the development of osteoarthritis often respond completely to medical management
true
At the end-point of warfarin therapy in an animal with a pulmonary thromboembolism you want a _______ time of 1.5-2times normal
prothrombin
The maximum safe rate of potassium infusion is ____mEq/kg/hr.
0.5 mEq/kg/hr
Type II Ostertagiasis necropsy findings of a cow
thickened mucosal folds in the abomasum (with less shiny mucous than normal), and thousands of larvae are detected when you digest and stain the abomasal mucosa.
A 3-month old Holstein female calf has severe unilateral corneal ulceration, opacity and melting, along with mild conjunctivitis and marked neovascularization. The calf also exhibits photophobia, blepharospasm, and lacrimation. What is the most likely cause of this?
Infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis (IBK).The most common bacteria causing this is Moraxella bovis, although other organisms including Neisseria species and Moraxella ovis can also induce similar lesions in cattle.
what is the first sign noticed with apocrine gland anal sac adenocarcinoma in dogs
polyuria and polydipsia. This frequently occurs with these tumors before any other clinical sign due to hypercalcemia associated with PTH-rP production by the tumor.
T/F
Chlamydophila felis causes severe chemosis in cats
true
What is the main goal in treating spinal cord trauma?
To prevent ischemia of the cord
What is the treatment of choice for perianal fistulas?
Immunosuppressive drugs. Perianal fistulas are an immune mediated disease, and medical management with immunosuppressive therapy, perhaps with cyclosporine, is now the initial treatment of choice. However, a combination of surgery and immunosuppressive therapy is not uncommon. German shepherds are predisposed to development of perianal fistulas.
what does xanthochromia mean ?
xanthochromia is the yellow discoloration indicating the presence of bilirubin in the cerebrospinal fluid
what causes weight loss and large, pale, voluminous droppings often referred to as having a “popcorn” appearance in birds ?
Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency in birds may occur due to congenital pancreatic atrophy or due to end-stage chronic pancreatic disease. This is treated by identifying and eliminating underlying causes and converting the bird to a formulated diet supplemented with pancreatic enzymes.
Which of the following is caused by Toxocara canis (roundworm ) when ingested by humans?
Visceral larva migrans
woody or wooden tongue in cows
- what is it
- how do we treat it
- clinical signs
-causes weight loss and animal does not eat well
The infection is introduced by breaks in the mucosa, allowing the normal rumen inhabitant, Actinobacillus Lignieresii, to invade and cause painful granulomas. The disease can often be successfully treated with IV sodium iodide; although certain other systemic antibiotics including tetracyclines can be used. The sodium iodide is given intravenously once and repeated again in 7-10 days. It is given at a concentration ranging from 5-20%.
The most common conduction disorder in the horse occurs at the level of the _____
Atrioventricular node
when does a horse get his canine teeth ?
4 years of age
yew toxicity
depress myocardial conduction by blocking Na movement and causes sudden death
Using a modern day milking machine, how long does it usually take to milk out a cow?
5-7 minutes
clinical signs associated with lidocaine toxicity include ____
neurological symptoms such as seizures and tremors. Nausea and vomiting may occur, but is usually transient. Cardiovascular and respiratory depression can also occur, but usually later on in the course of clinical signs.
What membrane is “slipped” when diagnosing pregnancy by rectal palpation in a cow?
Chorioallantois
Mammary tumors in cats are almost always malignant and greater than ___ of them will eventually metastasize. This is in contrast to mammary tumors in dogs, in which ___ are malignant, and ___ of those that are malignant will eventually metastasize.
Mammary tumors in cats are almost always malignant and greater than 90% of them will eventually metastasize. This is in contrast to mammary tumors in dogs, in which 50% are malignant, and 50% of those that are malignant will eventually metastasize.
Ivermectin, fenbendazole, pyrantel, and butamisole all are effective against ____. Praziquantel is used for treating _____ infections.
hookworm
tapeworm
The entire canine esophagus is ___ muscle. The feline esophagus is 2/3 _____, then 1/3 _____ muscle
The entire canine esophagus is striated muscle. The feline esophagus is 2/3 striated, then 1/3 smooth muscle
Actinobacillus lignieresii causes _____ in ruminants
woody tongue
What is the maximum amount of time cats shed feline panleukopenia virus after they recover?
6 weeks
T/F
the horse can be effected by foot-mouth disease
false. FMD affects all cloven-hoofed animals, as well as bears, llamas, camels, and elephants.
_____ are the most common viral cause of diarrhea in foals.
Rotaviruses are the most common viral cause of diarrhea in foals.
Scrapie in sheep
- what is it
- clinical signs
Scrapie is an afebrile neurologic disease of sheep that is a chronic, progressive, degenerative neurologic disease. It is one of the transmissible encephalopathies (like mad cow disease) caused by a prion. Clinical signs depend on the regions of the brain that are affected but usually include behavior changes including aggressiveness, failure to herd, unsteady gait, floppy ears, self-mutilation (pruritus), and in end stages, blindness, seizures, and an inability to swallow.
alopecia X clinical sign and diagnosis in dogs
The most common clinical signs are truncal alopecia and hyperpigmentation. Diagnosis is made by excluding everything else, including endocrine stuff
What is the treatment for pityriasis rosea in pigs?
no treatment is required. Pityriasis rosea occurs in pigs 3-14 weeks of age and is characterized by raised circular lesions on the ventral abdomen. Pityriasis rosea resolves on its own in a few weeks without any treatment. The etiology of the disease is unknown, but may have a hereditary basis.
What dog breed has a familial syndrome of hypertriglyceridemia?
Miniature Schnauzers
Visceral gout is the result of crystallization of what compound?
Uric acid
vitamin E and selenium deficiency clinical signs in cows
alert but weak, dyspneic and die suddenly. pale cardiac and skeletal muscles
Which protozoan is not considered to infect cattle?
1) Sarcocystis hominis
2) Sarcocystis hirsuta
3) Sarcocystis tenella
4) Sarcocystis cruzi
The correct answer is Sarcocystis tenella, which can infect sheep and goats.
Quarter Horse stallion for muscle stiffness, difficulty walking, and prolapse of the third eyelid, followed by recumbency. The trainer informed you that the stallion has demonstrated similar clinical signs of lesser severity in the past. What dz do you think of and what tx?
hereditary disease you should suspect is hyperkalemic periodic paralysis. In acute episodes of HYPP, the clinician should try and drive down the serum potassium. This can be accomplished by administering potassium-free IV fluids (such as 0.9% NaCl) and medications (such as dextrose) to drive potassium into the cell.
excess dietary calcium and vitamin D in young horses causes _____. Ca deficiency or excess phosphorus causes______ and/or ______. ______ is caused by insufficient OR excess iodine
osteochondrosis
Rickets and nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism
Goiter
In birds, Newcastle disease is caused by a ____________.
Paramyxovirus
When do cows reach peak lactation?
4-8 weeks post parturition
Taurine deficiency in cats causes what abnormality in the eye?
Central retinal degeneration. This is because photoreceptors contain large amounts of taurine, and cats cannot synthesize it.
T/F
Thelazia is a type of nematode that is also known as the “eyeworm” and can be seen in ocular tissue
true
What organism is the most common when it comes to fungal rhinitis in the dog ?
aspergillus
Dog pregnancy. Stage 1 is typically ____ hours of length and can persist for up to ____ hours. In this stage, it is expected for the dog to exhibit panting, trembling, nesting behavior, and restlessness. Occasionally dogs will also vomit. Stage 2 will also last approximately ____ hours (____hr) and is characterized by abdominal straining which coincides with uterine contraction. Puppy delivery occurs during Stage 2 at an interval of ____ to ____min (up to ___hours). Stage 3 involves the expulsion of fetal membranes as well as involution of the uterus. Fetal membranes are usually passed____ minutes after birth of a pup before another puppy can be delivered from the same horn.
Stage 1 is typically 6-12 hours of length and can persist for up to 36 hours. In this stage, it is expected for the dog to exhibit panting, trembling, nesting behavior, and restlessness. Occasionally dogs will also vomit. Stage 2 will also last approximately 6-12 hours (and persist up to 36hr) and is characterized by abdominal straining which coincides with uterine contraction. Puppy delivery occurs during Stage 2 at an interval of 30-60min (up to 4 hours). Stage 3 involves the expulsion of fetal membranes as well as involution of the uterus. Fetal membranes are usually passed 5-15 minutes after birth of a pup before another puppy can be delivered from the same horn.
Actinomyces bovis (lumpy jaw) in cows. Where is it found normally and how does it becomes a problem
result of sustaining an injury in the mucous membranes. Actinomyces bovis is part of the normal oral and rumen flora and can become a source of infection when cows consume items that traumatize their mouths. The lesion classically causes a hard non-painful swelling of the mandible or maxilla along with productive and destructive bony changes. Teeth may be lost.
What is the gestation length of a goat?
150days
What is a typical description of esophageal groove dysfunction in a calf resulting in rumen acidosis?
milk goes to the rumen where it is fermented by rumen microbes and converted to volatile fatty acids and lactic acid. The resulting rumen acidosis causing the cow to be depressed, growing poorly and appears unthrift with a rough hair coat. She recently began kicking at her flank, teeth grinding, and vocalizing with an arched back. She has developed white, putty-like feces and is dehydrated.
The most common equine tumor is a locally aggressive fibroblastic tumor of the dermis and subcutis with a variable proliferative epithelial component. What is this tumor commonly called?
The sarcoid comes in many forms and can be difficult to eliminate in many cases. Bovine papillomavirus types 1 and 2 are associated with this tumor of horses.
Which species of animal develops a marked increase in serum bilirubin from fasting?
Equine
equine glanders
what is it and what is the test for it called? How do we tx?
bacterial disease caused by Burkholderia mallei. It is thought to be endemic in regions of the Middle East, Asia, Africa, and South America. Glanders can cause disease in donkeys, mules, and small ruminants. Glanders is primarily a concern in horses because they can be chronic or occult carriers that intermittently shed this deadly and potential zoonotic pathogen. Mallein test. Horses should not be treated; local authorities should be notified if a case is suspect and if disease is confirmed, horses must be humanely destroyed and affected carcasses should be burned and buried.
cow has pus and blood sore on flank and you suspect Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis. What should you tell the owner to do?
Flush the wound and let it heal
what is Sarcocystis neurona
Sarcocystis neurona is primarily a neural parasite of horses. it can parasitize all regions of the central nervous system
what is the most common cerebellar disease found in the horse ?
Cerebellar abiotrophy is usually observed in foals which are less than one year of age, particularly 1-6 months of age. Cerebellar abiotrophy is the most common cerebellar disease found in horses.
Tritrichomonas foetus vs giargia appearance
giargia: ventral concave disc, are pear shaped, binucleate
Tritrichomonas foetus: has an undulating membrane, not usually found in dogs and has ONE nuclei
infectious bovine rhinotracheitis (IBR) clinical signs and what to do about it
Frequent coughing , inappetant animals with purulent ocular and nasal discharges, pyrexia, upper respiratory tract noise. Vaccinate all cattle with intranasal vaccine against the virus and treat sick animals with intramuscular procaine penicillin for 3 days
T/F hypertrophic osteopathy (HO) occurs in association with a thoracic mass
true
Equine Degenerative Myeloencephalopathy (EDM)
what causes it? what age does it effect? clinical signs
cause of EDM is unknown, but this disease typically affects young horses. Clinical signs are a result of diffuse neuronal fiber degeneration of various portions of the central nervous system. This disease has been associated with low serum vitamin E concentrations, suggesting that oxidative damage may play a role in the development of disease.
Purpura hemorrhagica treatment
Purpura hemorrhagica in the horse is an immune complex disorder usually associated with the presence of Streptococcus equi antigens and antibodies in high levels. The disease disrupts endothelial integrity, causing plasma and blood to leak into tissues. Penicillin is used to destroy any remaining Strep equi. The disorder carries a guarded prognosis.
Which breed and differential diagnosis are most commonly associated with canine degenerative myelopathy?
German Shepherd Dog with hip dysplasia
What is the drug of choice for a Chlamydophila felis infection?
Tetracyclines are the drugs of choice, specifically doxycycline. Doxycycline is less likely to cause permanent discoloration of the teeth as compared to other tetracyclines. Doxycycline will also be effective against Bordetella and Mycoplasma.
Clinical signs associated with bracken fern ingestion in a horse
Bracken fern contains thiaminase, leading to thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency. Clinical signs include anorexia, weight loss, incoordination, convulsions, wide-based stance, opisthotonos, and death.
how to deal with avian encephalomyelitis
Vaccinate 10-15 week old breeding animals. The best prevention strategy is to vaccinate breeder animals to prevent vertical transmission to progeny and to provide them with maternal immunity during the susceptible period.
Hypomagnesemic tetany (grass tetany) can cause what signs in beef cattle?
found dead, staggering, on its side paddling, pounding heart, fluttering eyelids, nystagmus, champing jaws
what causes achromatosis (failure of pigmentation )?
variety of nutritional deficiencies in different species.
What should you think of when you hear a split heart sound in a dog with dyspnea and unremarkable rads?
pulmonary thrumboembolism
(T/F) TVT has a different number of chromosomes than the host cells?
true. TVT has 59 and dog cells have 78
Bone spavin is osteoarthritis of the distal intertarsal joint and/or the tarsometatarsal joint. What gait abnormalities do you suspect the horse to have?
Short, low arc stride, landing toe first
What horse gait abnormalities would expect with upward fixation of the patella?
hindleg in rigid extension, pulling forward dragging the toe
What horse gait abnormalities would expect with conditions of the feet such as subsolar abscesses and septic navicular bursitis (also known as “street nail”)
Minimal weight bearing and marked foot sensitivity
What horse gait abnormalities would expect with navicular disease ?
leaning forward stance and have short strides and place the toe first.
What is the ideal incision site for a foreign body gastrotomy?
Halfway between the greater and lesser curvature of the stomach
Approximately how long does it take for spermatogonia to mature to sperm in the stallion?
60 days
Which of these drugs should be used with great caution in stallions due to the risk of causing paraphimosis or priapism?
Ketamine
Atropine
Acepromazine
Trimethoprim-sulfa
The correct answer is acepromazine. Phenothiazine tranquilizers can cause relaxation of smooth muscles and engorgement of the corpus cavernosum with blood, leading to an inability to withdraw the penis into the sheath or paraphimosis. While this drug side effect is very rare, veterinarians should be cautious in the use of acepromazine in stallions and should consider another sedative such as xylazine or detomidine when sedation is necessary.
copper deficiency: Dilution of the coat color is due to dysfunction of ______ which converts L-tyrosine to melanin. In addition, copper deficient animals will have spontaneous fractures, secondary respiratory disease, diarrhea, ill thrift, decreased immunity, anemia, and poor reproduction.
copper deficiency: Dilution of the coat color is due to dysfunction of tyrosinase which converts L-tyrosine to melanin. In addition, copper deficient animals will have spontaneous fractures, secondary respiratory disease, diarrhea, ill thrift, decreased immunity, anemia, and poor reproduction.
Which type of urolith occurs most commonly in feedlot cattle receiving large amounts of grain and is shown in the photo below?
STRUVITE is composed of magnesium ammonium phosphate. The alkaline urine in cattle along with high dietary phosphate and magnesium levels favors formation of struvite stones.
When performing a necropsy on a cow, you find multiple abnormalities including abomasal ulcers, interstitial pneumonia, pericardial effusion, and mastitis. You also see that the liver has a brown- (tan) and red-mottled lobular pattern described as a nutmeg liver. Which of these conditions in the cow could lead to the necropsy findings in the liver?
Mastitis
Pericardial effusion
Abomasal ulcers
Interstitial pneumonia
The appearance of a nutmeg liver occurs because there are red central veins and sinusoids between tan areas of swollen hepatocytes. This occurs with right sided heart failure from passive congestion of the sinusoids of hepatocellular hypoxia. Pericardial effusion causes right sided heart failure and is the cause of the liver’s appearance.
The signalment, history and clinical signs are most consistent with a perianal fistula. Although the pathogenesis is not fully understood, this disease is thought to be primarily immune-mediated. The treatment of choice for perianal fistula is medical management with ________, as resolution is achieved in greater than 65% of dogs. Surgical correction may lead to fecal incontinence or stricture formation, however surgery for removal of the anal sacs in combination with cyclosporine has recently shown promise.
The signalment, history and clinical signs are most consistent with a perianal fistula. Although the pathogenesis is not fully understood, this disease is thought to be primarily immune-mediated. The treatment of choice for perianal fistula is medical management with cyclosporine, as resolution is achieved in greater than 65% of dogs. Surgical correction may lead to fecal incontinence or stricture formation, however surgery for removal of the anal sacs in combination with cyclosporine has recently shown promise.
ABX that are able to pass the blood-prostate barrier (4 main categories)
Chloramphenicol, erythromycin, trimethoprim and fluoroquinolones
In the U.S., swine tuberculosis is most commonly associated with exposure to materials (feed, water, bedding) contaminated by what animals?
Dairy cows Birds Domestic swine White tail deer Feral swine
The correct answer is birds. Swine TB is very rare in the U.S. due to modern hog production practices. Bovine TB is still present but is not very common either. Deer can serve as a source to contaminate water but is not as common. Most cases of TB in swine today is cause by avian TB. Most swine outbreaks today are traced back to contaminated water (use of surface water such as ponds or lakes) or bedding.
