Dog

Question 1

biopsy of skin lesion shows a broad based budding organism. What organism do you think of?

Answer 1

Blastomycosis

Question 2

cardio question: concentric hypertrophy = ______ overload eccentric hypertrophy = _____ overload

Answer 2

concentric hypertrophy = pressure overload eccentric hypertrophy = volume overload

Question 3

T/F Lidocaine is used for ventricular arrhythmias

Answer 3

true

Question 4

Would simonsiella in the nasopharynx of a dog cause clinical signs? If so, what?

Answer 4

would not cause clinical signs, it is a normal thing to find

Question 5

What is the tx for nasal aspergillosis in a dog?

Answer 5

topical antifungal (clotrimazol)

Question 6

list 3 things that can cause keratoconjunctivitis sicca

Answer 6

-immune mediated -long term atropine administration -sulfonamide toxicity

Question 7

What is the tx for TVT (transmissible venereal tumor)?

Answer 7

vincristine

Question 8

magnesium ammonium phosphate crystals are _____ crystals. It likes ____ urine

Answer 8

struvite; alkaline

Question 9

What is Fanconi syndrome

Answer 9

Fanconi syndrome is a rare disorder of kidney tubule function that results in excess amounts of glucose, bicarbonate, phosphates (phosphorus salts), uric acid, potassium, and certain amino acids being excreted in the urine.usually occurs in Basenjis

Question 10

You diagnose a dog with a large ventricular septal defect with advanced sequelae to the abnormality. Which of the following is the most likely radiographic appearance of this dog’s thorax?

Answer 10

The correct answer is left atrial and left ventricular enlargement with pulmonary hyperperfusion. In dogs with a VSD, the shunt occurs during systole when both ventricles are contracting so blood is shunted from the left ventricle almost directly into the pulmonary artery. The right ventricle acts as a conduit between the left ventricle and pulmonary artery and is less commonly affected by the shunted blood. The excess blood flow is found in the pulmonary vasculature, left atrium, and left ventricle, thus enlarging these structures.

Question 11

When measuring Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin) and Folate levels in a dog with suspected small intestinal bacterial overgrowth, which finding is most supportive of this diagnosis? (high/low folate and high/low cobalamin options)

Answer 11

Increased folate, decreased cobalamin. bacteria synthesize folate leading to decreased absorption of cobalamin.

Question 12

Staphylococcus pseudintermedius vs Staphylococcus aureus. Which one is more dangerous to people?

Answer 12

Staphylococcus aureus is host adaptive to humans - quarantine might be needed if dog has it - BUT most of the time doggo got it from a human

Question 13

true/ false melanoma makes up 1/3 of doggo oral tumors

Answer 13

true. second most common tumor is squamous cell carcinoma followed by fibrosarcoma and acanthomatous epulis.

Question 14

______ tumor accounts for approximately 2/3 of malignant splenic masses and will have metastasized in >90% of cases by the time they are diagnosed.

Answer 14

hemangiosarcoma

Question 15

____ chamber enlargement occurs with left-to-right shunting PDAs and _____ chamber enlargement occurs with right-to-left shunting PDAs

Answer 15

left chamber enlargement occurs with left-to-right shunting PDAs and right chamber enlargement occurs with right-to-left shunting PDAs

Question 16

what is Fluoxetine?

Answer 16

SSRI Fluoxetine (aka Prozac) is used to treat depression and obsessive-compulsive disorders.

Question 17

4 components of nephrotic syndrome

Answer 17

proteinuria, hypoproteinemia, hypercholesterolemia, and ascites or edema.

Question 18

which is false about doxycycline in dogs? 1)can cause discoloration of teeth and thin enamel in puppies 2)can cause cartilage abnormalities in puppies 3)can cause esophageal strictures if it sits in the esophagus 4)can cause GI upset

Answer 18

2 is false. Fluoroquinolone antibiotics can cause this, not doxy.

Question 19

what breed is predisposed to acanthosis nigricans?

Answer 19

dachshund

Question 20

what is the drug of choice for head trauma patients with increased ICP?

Answer 20

mannitol. it is a hyperosmotic hiuretic

Question 21

what is Brodifacoum and bromethalin?

Answer 21

brodifacoum: highly lethal 4-hydroxycoumarin vitamin K antagonist anticoagulant poison bromethalin: neurotoxic rodenticide

Question 22

discoid lupus erythematosis clinical signs

Answer 22

depigmentation, erythema, scaling, and loss of the “cobblestone” appearance of the nasal planum. Alopecia, crusting, scaling, and ulcerations can also be seen on the face, muzzle, lips, pinnae, and periorbitally.

Question 23

What zoonotic parasite is known to affect the eyes of children? 1)Hookworm 2)Whipworm 3) Tapeworm 4) Roundworm

Answer 23

roundworm. Toxocara canis, is the most common cause of visceral larval migrans in humans.

Question 24

true / false Sarcoptes scabiei effects the hair follicle

Answer 24

false. Sarcoptes scabiei, which is a non-seasonal, intensely pruritic, transmissible mite, affects the stratum corneum.

Question 25

BUN goes up or down with Cushing’s?

Answer 25

DOWN due to increased diuresis

Question 26

Lens removal is indicated in cases of (anterior or posterior) lens luxation because they usually cause discomfort and usually cause uveitis and glaucoma.

Answer 26

Lens removal is indicated in cases of anterior lens luxation because they usually cause discomfort and usually cause uveitis and glaucoma.

Question 27

What is the most appropriate medical treatment for transitional cell carcinoma at the trigone of the bladder

Answer 27

Piroxicam and carboplatin chemotherapy

Question 28

Pemphigus vulgaris what is it what is the tx

Answer 28

autoimmune disorder causing vesicles, ulceration, and crusting. It can affect the whole body, but it especially affects the mucocutaneous junctions and oral mucosa. The onset of the disease can be acute or gradual. treatment is immunosuppressive therapy with corticosteroids and frequently additional immunomodulatory or immunosuppressive drugs such as azathioprine, cyclophosphamide, chlorambucil, or others. Unfortunately, long-term therapy is generally required and these treatments cause serious side-effects long-term. Prognosis is poor

Question 29

The necropsy finding of a waxy kidney is highly suggestive of _____. Lyme disease can lead to glomerulonephritis where the surface of the kidney is covered by ______

Answer 29

The necropsy finding of a waxy kidney is highly suggestive of amyloidosis. Lyme disease can lead to glomerulonephritis where the surface of the kidney is covered by hemorrhagic spots.

Question 30

how does lactulose works in the treatment of hepatic encephalopathy?

Answer 30

This lowers colonic pH, which keeps ammonia in its ionized form, NH4+, rather than as NH3. The ionized form is not absorbed . It is a cathartic and causes decreased intestinal transit time, leading to decreased absorption of ammonia. It also prevents ammonia formation.Finally, it is a carbohydrate source which can be used by colonic flora as an alternative to protein, preventing ammonia formation.

Question 31

Type I hypersensitivity (immediate)

Answer 31

re-exposure of an antigen results in an allergic reaction. The antigen is presented and causes B cell production of IgE antibodies.

Question 32

Type II hypersensitivity (cytotoxic)

Answer 32

when an antigen on a cell surface binds with an antibody and is then recognized by the body as being foreign. dendritic cells then recognize the cell and “present the antigen” which then causes B cell proliferation and production of IgG and IgM antibodies.

Question 33

Type III hypersensitivity (immune complex)

Answer 33

more antigens than there are antibodies. The antigens float around in the circulation and multiple antigens may bind one antibody, thus forming an immune complex. Large complexes can be cleared by macrophages, but smaller ones may evade the macrophages.

Question 34

Type IV (delayed type hypersensitivity)

Answer 34

takes several days to occur and rather than being antibody-mediated, it is actually cell-mediated. Cytotoxic CD8+ T cells and CD4+ helper T cells recognize antigen that is in a complex with major histocompatibility complex 1 or 2.

Question 35

What do we give dogs that drank ethylene glycol?

Answer 35

4-MP and ethanol act by preventing alcohol dehydrogenase from converting ethylene glycol to its toxic metabolites. In animals where oliguric renal failure has already begun, most of the ethylene glycol will already have been metabolized, so there is no benefit to giving ethanol or 4-MP.

Question 36

Toy breed dogs, particularly Yorkshire Terriers, are predisposed to congenital, single/multiple, extra/intra-hepatic portosystemic shunts. Larger breed dogs with congenital liver shunts tend to develop intra/extrahepatic shunts. Acquired shunts in older animals are almost always intra/extrahepatic.

Answer 36

Toy breed dogs, particularly Yorkshire Terriers, are predisposed to congenital, single, extra-hepatic portosystemic shunts. Larger breed dogs with congenital liver shunts tend to develop intrahepatic shunts. Acquired shunts in older animals are almost always extrahepatic.

Question 37

thymomas have 2 paraneoplastic syndromes, what are they ? what is tx for the tymoma?

Answer 37

myasthenia gravis and megaesophagus as paraneoplastic syndromes.As long as thymomas are well encapsulated, the prognosis is relatively good, and surgery via a median sternotomy should be recommended.

Question 38

How much protein should you feed a dog with hepatic insufficiency or hepatic encephalopathy?

Answer 38

The maximum amount of protein they will tolerate without causing signs of encephalopathy

Question 39

bad epithelial cells are ___, while bad mesenchymal cells are _____

Answer 39

Carcinoma, sarcomas

Question 40

What is the most common side effect of Ivermectin?

Answer 40

Neurological toxicity. It is reversible after stopping medication.

Question 41

What is the most common cause of exocrine pancreatic insufficiency in the dog?

Answer 41

Pancreatic acinar atrophy. Chronic pancreatitis is a much more common cause of EPI in cats than dogs.

Question 42

What breed of dog is predisposed to forming urate uroliths due to a metabolic defect?

Answer 42

Dalmatians have a metabolic defect where they are unable to convert uric acid to allantoin, a much more soluble compound. As a result, urate levels in the urine reach high levels and frequently form stones. Yorkshire Terriers, in a way, are predisposed to making urate stones, but not from a metabolic defect. Instead, Yorkies frequently have portosystemic shunts. This anatomic abnormality is a common reason that animals other than Dalmatians form urate stones.

Question 43

persistent right aortic arch. This vascular ring anomaly is an inherited defect that causes a constricting obstruction of the esophagus at the level of the heart base. There is a breed predilection for ____ and _____

Answer 43

German Shepherd Dogs and Irish Setters.

Question 44

Pulmonary contusions can cause respiratory deterioration in the apparently stable patient for up to ___hours after trauma. They usually then improve over the next ___to___ hours.

Answer 44

Pulmonary contusions can cause respiratory deterioration in the apparently stable patient for up to 24 hours after trauma. They usually then improve over the next 24-48 hours.

Question 45

(possible horner’s) with a post-ganglionic lesion, denervation hypersensitivity to NE occurs. As a result, adding phenylephrine topically can cause a rapid response. With pre-ganglionic lesions, the response usually takes greater than ___ minutes.

Answer 45

with a post-ganglionic lesion, denervation hypersensitivity to NE occurs. As a result, adding phenylephrine topically can cause a rapid response. With pre-ganglionic lesions, the response usually takes greater than 20 minutes.

Question 46

Intracytoplasmic cocci from a dog’s skin are most likely _______, which is the species host-adapted to canines.

Answer 46

Intracytoplasmic cocci from a dog’s skin are most likely Staphylococcus pseudintermedius, which is the species host-adapted to canines.

Question 47

treatment of choice for a Taenia infection in dogs?

Answer 47

Praziquantel . Pyrantel and ivermectin are not known to be effective against Taenia infections. Fenbendazole is effective against Taenia pisiformis, but not other subspecies of Taenia, making it a less desirable answer choice.

Question 48

_____(abx) would be a good choice as a cause of central vestibular disease. _______ is a topical drug implicated in ototoxicity and peripheral vestibular disease.

Answer 48

metronidazole would be a good choice as a cause of central vestibular disease. Chlorhexadine is a topical drug implicated in ototoxicity and peripheral vestibular disease.

Question 49

bitch had puppies a week ago and is presented for emergency seizures. What do you do?

Answer 49

give her IV Ca gluconate to correct huypoCa; you can give IV diazepam to stop the seizures but that won’t help correct the underlying problem

Question 50

cervical spondylopathy -2 dog breeds and 1 horse breed that are predisposed -what are the main clinical signs

Answer 50

-doberman, great dane and throughbred horses -ataxia, paresis on all limbs with UMN signs on all limbs

Question 51

Bartonella is responsible for cat scratch fever. Cats have no clinical signs but can harm humans with scratches contaminated with flea feces. How do dogs get infected and what are some dog clinical signs

Answer 51

-dogs can be exposed via tick or fleas -clinical signs include fever, malaise, weight loss and lymphadenopathy. Possible endocarditis

Question 52

which area of the heart is most commonly affected in a dog with infective endocarditis ?

Answer 52

mitrial and aortic valves

Question 53

what measure of free T4 is more effective 1) equilibrium dialysis 2)radioimmunoassay

Answer 53

equilibrium dialysis is more reliable

Question 54

how do you dx bile peritonitis ?

Answer 54

comparison between bilirubin concentration in the fluid and in the serum. Concentration of bili that is twice as high as serum is diagnostic

Question 55

the endpoint of warfarin therapy in an animal with a pulmonary thromboembolism is a _______ time of 1.5 - 2 times normal

Answer 55

prothrombin time (PT) PTT and ACT will be unchanged

Question 56

3 most common dermatophytes affecting dogs and cats. Where are they found? 1) Microsporum gypseum 2)Trichophyton mentagrophytes 3) Microsporum canis

Answer 56

1)Microsporum gypseum is geophilic. This species often affects dogs that like to dig. 2)Trichophyton mentagrophytes is zoophilic and usually rodents serve as the host; dogs such as hunting dogs or roaming cats are most commonly affected. 3) Microsporum canis is most commonly contracted from cats.

Question 57

what makes up the superficial vs the deep inguinal ring ?

Answer 57

seperficial: external abdominal oblique deep: inguinal ligament, rectus abdominis and internal abdominal oblique

Question 58

what is the drug of choice to induce emesis in the dog and what is the reversal for the drug ?

Answer 58

apomorphine naloxone

Question 59

T/F morphine causes release of histamine

Answer 59

true

Question 60

what breeds are predisposed to familial dermatomycosis ?

Answer 60

collies and shetland sheepdogs -causes atrophy of muscles and erosion, crusting, and alopecia of skin (exacerbated by heat and sun exposure)

Question 61

CVP (central venous pressure) is a pretty good way to measure circulating volume. What is the normal range and what is considerate hypovolemic ?

Answer 61

normal is 0-10cmH2O hypovolemic is -5-5 cmH2O

Question 62

what is the holding layer of the esophagus ?

Answer 62

the submucosa

Question 63

what two species of microfilarie can be seen in peripheal blood smears ?

Answer 63

dirofilaria immitis and acanthocheilonema (Dipetalonema) reconditum acanthocheilonema is not pathogenic so no need for tx

Question 64

T/F Parvovirus causes laukopenia

Answer 64

true

Question 65

chemo drugs and their main side effects 1) adriamycin 2) vincristine 3)L-asparaginase 4)cisplatin 5)cyclophosphamide

Answer 65

1) cardiotoxicity 2)ileus 3)anaphylaxis 4)nephrotoxicity 5)cystitis

Question 66

Ticks and what they most likely transmit: 1)Dermacentor variabilis and Dermacentor andersoni 2)Amblyomma americanum 3)Rhipicephalus sanguineus 4)Ixodes pacificus

Answer 66

1)Dermacentor variabilis and Dermacentor andersoni are known to transmit Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever. 2)Amblyomma americanum may transmit canine granulocytic ehrlichiosis which is caused by E. ewingii and Anaplasma phagocytophila. 3)Rhipicephalus sanguineus is known to transmit Ehrlichia canis 4)Ixodes pacificus is most likely to be the vector for Lyme disease

Question 67

Answer 67

Question 68

The maximum safe rate of potassium infusion is ____ mEq/kg/hr.

Answer 68

The maximum safe rate of potassium infusion is 0.5 mEq/kg/hr.

Question 69

What are the sings of chocolate toxicity ?

Answer 69

The toxic principle of chocolate is methylxanthines (specifically theobromine and caffeine). Methylxanthines can cause CNS excitation tachycardia, and vasoconstriction. Signs include vomiting, diarrhea, hyperactivity, polyuria, polydipsia, lethargy, tachycardia, cardiac arrhythmias, seizures, and death.

Question 70

1) ________ is the chelator used to treat lead poisoning
2) ________ is used for acetaminophen toxicity and hepatotoxicity.
3) ________is used more commonly for copper toxicity.

Answer 70

1) Ca-EDTA is the chelator used to treat lead poisoning
2) N-acetylcysteine is used for acetaminophen toxicity and hepatotoxicity.
3) D-penacillamine is used more commonly for copper toxicity.

Question 71

A 9-year old Cocker Spaniel presents to you for multiple small (3-6 mm) skin masses. The owner describes them as cauliflower-like. Some appear to be ulcerated. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer 71

Sebaceous gland tumor

Question 72

What is the most common etiologic agent causing pyoderma in the dog?

Answer 72

Staphylococcus pseudintermedius

Question 73

Sepsis is suspected if the glucose in the ascites is at least ___mg/dL less than the peripheral blood. A blood lactate level of _____mmol/L lower than the ascites lactate level is also highly suggestive of a septic abdomen.

Answer 73

Sepsis is suspected if the glucose in the ascites is at least 20mg/dL less than the peripheral blood. A blood lactate level of 2.0mmol/L lower than the ascites lactate level is also highly suggestive of a septic abdomen.

Question 74

EPI is believed to be an autosomal recessive trait in _________(breed) that results in atrophy of the exocrine pancreas. Dogs lose the ability to digest fat and protein and become emaciated. They have voluminous, soft feces, a voracious appetite, and may develop pica. The trypsin-like immunoreactivity (TLI) is diagnostic for EPI. Treatment entails adding powdered pancreatic enzyme extract, or raw pancreas to meals. These dogs should not be bred.

Answer 74

EPI is believed to be an autosomal recessive trait in German Shepherd Dogs that results in atrophy of the exocrine pancreas. Dogs lose the ability to digest fat and protein and become emaciated. They have voluminous, soft feces, a voracious appetite, and may develop pica. The trypsin-like immunoreactivity (TLI) is diagnostic for EPI. Treatment entails adding powdered pancreatic enzyme extract, or raw pancreas to meals. These dogs should not be bred.

Question 75

T/F

when the total calcium on a chemistry panel is low due to hypoproteinemia, you should not see clinical signs of hypocalcemia as long as the ionized calcium is normal.

Answer 75

true

Question 76

Administration of _______ results in release of von Willebrand factor, which will help this patient with clotting.

Answer 76

Administration of desmopressin results in release of von Willebrand factor, which will help this patient with clotting.

Question 77

-Clin path findings with each dz:

• Renal carcinomas
• anal sac adenocarcinomas
• hemangiosarcoma and multiple myeloma.
• Sertoli cell tumors.

Answer 77

Renal carcinomas have been associated with erythropoietin secretion, causing elevations in hematocrit as a paraneoplastic syndrome.

Hypercalcemia is associated with anal sac adenocarcinomas, lymphomas and other tumors.

Thrombocytopathy can be seen with hemangiosarcoma and multiple myeloma.

Hyperestrogenism can be seen with Sertoli cell tumors.

Question 78

A myelogram is a positive-contrast radiographic study where a contrast agent such as iohexol or iopamidol is injected into the _______ space where CSF accumulates.

Answer 78

A myelogram is a positive-contrast radiographic study where a contrast agent such as iohexol or iopamidol is injected into the subarachnoid space where CSF accumulates.

Question 79

What is the most common cause of cardiac arrest in dogs?

Answer 79

The correct answer is systemic hypoxemia. Systemic hypoxemia is usually due to neurologic, pulmonary, or myocardial hypoxia.

Question 80

What is the most common type of intussusception in small animals?

Answer 80

The correct answer is ileocolic intussusception. The second most common is jejuno-jenunal intussusception.

Question 81

Which of these is not a common sign of small bowel obstruction in a dog?

Vomiting

Diarrhea Your Answer

Abdominal pain

Tenesmus

Answer 81

The correct answer is tenesmus. Tenesmus is a sign of large bowel disease rather than small bowel. Vomiting is a consistent sign of small bowel obstruction. Diarrhea is also common and is due to bacterial overgrowth due to the obstruction and sometimes due to vascular obstruction. Abdominal pain is also a common sign.

Question 82

Salmonella typhimurium is a _________________

Gram positive obligate aerobe

Gram negative facultative anaerobe

Gram negative obligate aerobe

Gram negative obligate anaerobe

Answer 82

gram negative facultative anaerobe. In horses, it primarily infects the cecum and proximal colon.

Question 83

Closure of the eyes is mediated by cranial nerve ____ and opening the eyes is mediated by CN ____

Answer 83

Closure of the eyes is performed by the orbicularis oculi muscle innervated by the facial nerve. Opening of the eye is by the levator palpebrae superioris innervated by the oculomotor nerve.The trigeminal nerve supplies sensory innervation to the eye.

Question 84

suture pattern questions

1-Does the horizontal mattress invert or evert tissue?

2-When would we use a Bunnel Pattern?

3-Does the lembert pattern invert or evert tissue?

Answer 84

1- evert

2-severed tendons

3-invert

Question 85

In canine patients with primary hyperparathyroidism, a chemistry panel would show:

Answer 85

The correct answer is hypercalcemia, hypophosphatemia. Patients with primary hyperparathyroidism would have hypercalcemia and normo to hypophosphatemia due to the law of mass action in which phosphorus decreases as calcium increases and vice versa.

Question 86

Standard dosing of chemotherapy in animals is most likely to affect which cell lines the most?

Erythrocytes

Monocytes

Lymphocytes

Plasma cells

Neutrophils

Answer 86

Neutrophils have short life spans of 5-9 hours and are therefore replicating quickly. Chemotherapy generally targets cells that replicate quickly and therefore neutropenia is a common sequela.

Question 87

The causative agent of canine parvovirus is ______.

Togavirus

Canine adenovirus-2

Coronavirus

Canine parvovirus-1

Canine parvovirus-2

Answer 87

Canine parvovirus-2

Question 88

To raise the PCV 1% you need to give ___ml/kg of fresh whole blood

Answer 88

To raise the PCV 1% you need to give 2ml/kg of fresh whole blood

Question 89

Which of the following are Bernese Mountain Dogs NOT predisposed to developing?

Hip dysplasia

Elbow dysplasia

Pulmonic stenosis

Malignant histiocytosis

Answer 89

The correct answer is pulmonic stenosis. Pulmonic stenosis is a congenital abnormality more common in small breed dogs. Bernese Mountain Dogs are commonly affected with hip dysplasia, elbow dysplasia, malignant histiocytosis, osteosarcoma, as well as other neoplasms.

Question 90

Which of the following is a complication of long-term sling application on a limb?

Neurogenic muscular atrophy

Osteoarthritis

Contracture of muscles

Pathologic fractures

Answer 90

The correct answer is contracture of muscles. Other complications of long-term sling application include joint fibrosis and disuse muscle atrophy.

Question 91

Which of the following poses the most significant threat to man?

Ancylostoma braziliense

Dirofilaria immitis

Baylisascaris procyonis

Acanthocheilonema reconditum

Answer 91

The correct answer is Baylisascaris procyonis. This is an ascarid (roundworm) found in the small intestine of the raccoon. The result in humans is larval migrans to the brain causing CNS disease. It may migrate to the eye and usually affects children.

Question 92

Which of these would you expect to be prolonged soonest after ingestion of an anticoagulant rodenticide by a dog?

Thrombin time (TT)

Activated Clotting Time (ACT)

Prothrombin time (PT)

Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)

Answer 92

The correct answer is PT. These compounds act by inhibiting vitamin K, which is required for synthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X. Factor VII has the shortest half-life of these and will be depleted first. Since PT measures the extrinsic system which contains factor VII, it becomes prolonged first.

Question 93

Which of the following is an effect of the barbiturate thiopental in dogs?

Increased respiratory rate

Increase in CNS activity

Increase in the rate of cardiac arrhythmias

Increase in arterial blood pressure

Answer 93

Barbiturates are often used to induce anesthesia and to control seizures when all other anti-epileptic drugs are not effective. They can cause cardiac arrhythmias (ventricular bigeminy is the most common), tachycardia, dose dependent hypotension, apnea, and a decrease in CNS activity.

Question 94

Can you use pradofloxacin in dogs?

Answer 94

Pradofloxacin is not for use in dogs due to bone marrow suppression.Pradofloxacin (Veraflox) is an orally administered, liquid fluoroquinolone antibiotic that was FDA approved in 2012 for use in cats to treat skin infections (wounds and abscesses) caused by Pasteurella multocida, Streptococcus canis, Staphylococcus aureus, Staphylococcus felis, and Staphylococcus pseudointermedius. The drug is not for use in dogs and it has been shown to cause bone marrow suppression resulting in severe thrombocytopenia and neutropenia.

Enrofloxacin has been associated with retinal degeneration in cats, particularly at high doses and is used with caution for this reason.

Question 95

What is the most common site of the bone for metastatic bone tumors to occur in dogs?

Diaphysis

Cortex

Metaphysis

Epiphysis

Answer 95

The correct answer is diaphysis. Metastatic bone tumors usually occur in the diaphysis, most likely because this is where the blood supply comes in. This is in contrast to primary bone tumors which usually occur at the metaphysis, likely because this is where most cell division occurs.

Question 96

At which age is a dog most likely to develop canine cutaneous histiocytoma?

5-8 years of age

3-5 years of age

Less than 3 years of age

Greater than 8 years of age

Answer 96

The correct answer is less than 3 years of age. The head is the most common site for these tumors. They are solitary, raised, dome-shaped nodules that often ulcerate and regress. Treatment is rarely needed, but if the lesion persists, surgical excision is recommended.

Question 97

Which of the following dog breeds has a strong predisposition to atopic dermatitis?

German Shepherd Dog

West Highland White Terrier

Rottweiler

Doberman Pinscher

Answer 97

West Highland White Terrier

Question 98

Mandibular ______ (mandible longer than maxilla) and maxillary _______ (maxilla shorter than mandible) is a common anatomic feature of brachycephalic dogs.

Answer 98

Mandibular prognathism (mandible longer than maxilla) and maxillary brachygnathism (maxilla shorter than mandible) is a common anatomic feature of brachycephalic dogs.

Question 99

Amphotericin B is an antifungal agent that acts on _________ and is mainly toxic to the animal’s ________.

Answer 99

Fungal cell membrane, kidneys

Question 100

Which of the following is least useful in helping to diagnose atopic dermatitis in a dog?

Skin biopsy

Intradermal Skin Testing (IDST)

Clinical signs, anatomic distribution of clinical signs, and seasonality

Serum ELISA

Answer 100

The correct answer is skin biopsy. A biopsy will reveal the pathology that the skin is undergoing, but will not give a specific diagnosis as to what is causing the reaction. IDST is performed by injecting a small amount of various individual antigens into the dermis of an animal and observing which antigen injections cause a reaction. The most common clinical sign of atopy is pruritus, which often occurs on the face, feet, and ears. Flare-ups also often occur during times of high concentrations of pollen in the environment. Serum ELISA measures the concentration of antigen specific IgE found in the animal.

Question 101

In general, deep skin infections can require ____ weeks of antibiotic treatment and even 12 weeks for severe cases. Superficial infections require ____ weeks of antibiotic therapy or one week past clinical resolution.

Answer 101

In general, deep skin infections can require 6-8 weeks of antibiotic treatment and even 12 weeks for severe cases. Superficial infections require 3-4 weeks of antibiotic therapy or one week past clinical resolution.

Question 102

Which of the following is not a differential diagnosis for polyuria and polydipsia in a Golden Retriever?

Hypothyroidism

Hypercalcemia

Pyelonephritis

Hypoadrenocorticism

Answer 102

The correct answer is hypothyroidism. Hypothyroidism patients do not have polyuria and polydipsia. Hypercalcemia, pyelonephritis, and hypoadrenocorticism patients can all be polyuric and polydipsic, although it is usually rare in hypoadrenocorticism.

Question 103

Which of the following breeds is predisposed to familial hyperlipidemia?

Boxer

Cocker Spaniel

German Shepherd

Golden Retriever

Miniature Schnauzer

Answer 103

The correct answer is Miniature Schnauzer. Clinically affected dogs may be predisposed to seizures, pancreatitis, acute blindness, vomiting, and corneal opacities. Management is via low-fat diets.

Question 104

Which of these is not primarily produced by the liver?

Antithrombin III

Albumin

Urea

Fibrinogen

Trypsin

Answer 104

The answer is trypsin. Trypsin is primarily produced by the pancreas. The other proteins listed are produced predominantly by the liver.

Question 105

Which statement about hypertrophic osteopathy (HO), as depicted in the radiograph below, is true?

HO occurs in young, large breed dogs

HO is characterized by sclerosis of the subchondral bone of long bones

HO usually starts in the proximal appendages and spreads distally

HO occurs in association with a thoracic mass

Answer 105

The correct answer is HO occurs in association with a thoracic mass. There is no breed or age predisposition for HO. The disease usually starts at the distal extremities and develops proximally. HO is characterized by periosteal proliferation near joints, not sclerosis of the subchondral bone.

Question 106

A dog presents to your clinic for coughing and fever a week after going hunting. You work the dog up, perform bronchoscopy and remove a plant awn from the lungs. What bacterial infection is this dog predisposed to?

Actinomyces

Pasteurella multocida

Staphylococcus aureus

Nocardia

Staphylococcus pseudointermedius

Answer 106

The correct answer is Actinomyces. This is a filamentous, branching, gram positive bacteria that is a normal inhabitant of the mouth and oropharynx. It is commonly associated with grass awn migration. These are usually contaminated in the oropharynx and then migrate through the body from the respiratory or GI tracts. Many times it takes months to years to make a diagnosis. Nocardia is a ubiquitous soil saprophyte found everywhere and is usually introduced via the respiratory tract.

Question 107

Which of these tumor types is frequently testosterone-dependent and is therefore found most frequently in dogs that are intact males or have testosterone-secreting tumors?

Perianal adenoma

Apocrine gland anal sac adenocarcinoma

Squamous cell carcinoma

Mast cell tumors

Answer 107

The correct answer is perianal adenoma. These tumors are primarily seen in older male intact dogs. These tumors will often shrink or resolve after castration.

Question 108

What is the method of choice for diagnosing rabies?

Answer 108

The correct answer is direct fluorescent antibody test. There are no gross pathologic lesions associated with rabies. A diagnostic microscopic lesion is the visualization of Negri bodies. Most commonly they occur in the hippocampus in carnivores and Purkinje cells in herbivores. However, these are only seen 50% of the time. Immunohistochemistry allows strain differentiation and the ability to differentiate vaccine vs. wild-type. RT-PCR has been used on autolyzed brain tissue that is difficult to evaluate with fluorescent antibodies, but this is not the test of choice at this time. Direct FA is the current preferred method of diagnosis; it is both rapid and sensitive. Usually impressions of the medulla, cerebellum, and hippocampus are performed.

Question 109

What type of urinary stone is likely to form in an animal being treated with too much allopurinol?

Xanthine

Calcium oxalate

Urate

Struvite

Cysteine

Answer 109

The correct answer is xanthine stones. Allopurinol is used in the treatment of urate stone forming Dalmatians. It acts by inhibiting the enzyme, xanthine oxidase, which metabolizes xanthine. The idea is that by stopping the purine metabolism pathway at this point, uric acid will not be formed in high quantities. However, if given at too high of a dose, xanthine will accumulate to levels where xanthine stones will form.

Question 110

what if the first sign of lidocaine toxicity ?

Answer 110

CNS depression

Question 111

Which of these is an appropriate treatment for a dog that has ingested diluted bleach within the past 10 minutes?

Administer intravenous fluids

Administer non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

Administer activated charcoal

Administer milk to dilute the stomach contents

Administer apomorphine

Answer 111

The correct answer is to dilute the stomach contents with milk. Bleach, even when diluted can be corrosive as can many household cleaners. This can result in severe burning of the mouth, esophagus, and stomach. Lesions from acids usually appear soon after exposure, while lesions from alkalis may not appear until 8-12 hours later. Do not induce vomiting with apomorphine because further damage can occur to the esophagus. Activated charcoal does not bind to these products and shouldn’t be used. IV fluids is unlikely to be of any benefit immediately following the ingestion of the bleach unless the animal happens to already be sick or dehydrated. NSAIDs may help with pain or discomfort but can also contribute to the formation of ulcers within the GI tract. The recommended course of action is to dilute with milk or water and start GI protectants for several days. If the patient becomes depressed or anorectic, evaluate it for ulcers.

Question 112

immune-mediated polyarthritis (IMPA). Which of the following are all known potential inciting causes or predisposing factors for this condition? (3)

Answer 112

• Systemic lupus erythematosus, sulfonamide exposure, mammary adenocarcinoma
• The clinical signs associated with IMPA are anorexia, weight loss, fever, lethargy, and lymphadenopathy. Up to 25% of dogs present with only nonspecific signs of systemic illness and without apparent gait abnormality or joint effusion. It is an important consideration for dogs with fever of unknown origin and may be the cause up to 20% of the time. IMPA is diagnosed by synovial fluid analysis although additional baseline diagnostics are indicated to screen for potential systemic or infectious causes. Normal synovial fluid is clear and viscous with <2.5 g/dl protein and <3,000 cells/ul with predominantly mononuclear cells. Joint fluid in IMPA may be thin, turbid, and increased in volume with higher amounts of protein and cells, often primarily nondegenerate neutrophils.
• Treatment of idiopathic IMPA centers on immunosuppressive therapy, often starting with prednisone and sometimes including an additional immunosuppressive drug such as azathioprine or cyclophosphamide. About 80% of dogs will respond to immunosuppressive doses of prednisone; however, half of dogs require long-term or additional drug therapy to maintain remission.

Question 113

Which anesthetic agent is implicated in malignant hyperthermia?

Nitric oxide

Acepromazine

Halothane

Ketamine

Answer 113

The correct answer is halothane. This is mainly an entity in swine but may be seen in other animals. It is a rare induction of a hyper-metabolic reaction in skeletal muscle of susceptible individuals by halothane. The syndrome is characterized by muscle rigidity, increased body temperature, increased oxygen consumption and production of CO2.

Question 114

Which of these breeds of dogs has a congenital ocular anomaly characterized by choroidal hypoplasia

Answer 114

Collie Eye Anomaly is seen in up to 80% of the breed.

Question 115

In which breeds should avermectins be avoided and why?

Old English Sheepdogs, possible p-glycoprotein pump mutation

Bull dogs

Pugs, predisposition to encephalopathy

Yorkshire Terriers, predisposition to portosystemic shunting

Answer 115

Old English Sheepdogs, Collies, Australian shepherds and related breeds are more likely to have a mutation in the MDR gene that codes for the p-glycoprotein pump. There are also reports of West Highland White Terriers and Samoyeds having a mutation in the MDR gene as well. Mutations in this pump at the blood-brain barrier allow avermectins to accumulate, leading to toxicity. The origin of the rhyme “white feet, don’t treat” is unclear; some think it may reflect the possibility that mixed breed dogs with white feet may be descendants of collies or shepherds.

Question 116

Where in the GI tract is folate absorbed?

Stomach

Colon

Ileum

Jejunum

Duodenum

Answer 116

The correct answer is jejunum. Folate is predominantly absorbed in the jejunum, in contrast to most other vitamins, which are absorbed predominantly in the duodenum (except for Vitamin B12 aka cobalamin, which is absorbed in the ileum).

Question 117

What is the causative agent of Lyme disease?

Borrelia burgdorferi

Ehrlichia canis

Rickettsia rickettsii

Bartonella henselae

Answer 117

Borrelia burgdorferi

Question 118

You examine a Basset Hound with primary glaucoma in one eye. What would you tell the owner about his prognosis for the other eye?

• It will probably also develop glaucoma in 6-12 months
• It will probably develop glaucoma within the next 1-3 months
• This is very strange because glaucoma almost always occurs bilaterally
• It has no increased chance of developing glaucoma

Answer 118

The correct answer is that it will probably also develop glaucoma in 6-12 months. The usual course for primary glaucoma is development in one eye with the contralateral eye following in 6-12 months. These animals have an iridocorneal angle that becomes increasingly compromised during the first few years of life and eventually causes an acute pressure spike in the eye.

Question 119

A 1.5-year old male castrated Boxer presents for exercise intolerance and syncopal episodes. Cardiac auscultation reveals a grade 4/6 left systolic murmur heard best at the base of the heart. Thoracic radiographs show a mildly enlarged left ventricle and left atrium, and segmental enlargement of the ascending aorta. What test will best help you to confirm your tentative diagnosis?

Coombs’ test

Echocardiogram

Heartworm antigen test

CT scan

24 hour Holter ECG monitor

Answer 119

The breed, clinical history of syncope, radiographic findings, and auscultation findings are most consistent with aortic stenosis. Echocardiography would be the best method for diagnosing the disease in which you would find left ventricular concentric hypertrophy, stenosis of the aortic outflow tract, and post-stenotic dilatation of the ascending aorta.

A Holter monitor is the test of choice for arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy (ARVC) which is also seen in Boxers and causes syncope but does not fit with the physical exam or radiographic findings. Also called Boxer cardiomyopathy, ARVC is a disease associated with fibrofatty infiltrate into the right ventricle resulting in electrical conduction disturbances and resultant VPCs.

A CT scan would not add more information, and cardiac motion typically causes resolution problems on thoracic CT scans. The signs are not consistent with heartworm, which is primarily a right heart problem, or with hemolytic anemia, which a Coombs’ test might be useful for.

Question 120

In an animal with pleural effusion, which radiographic view will give you the best view of the heart?

Right lateral

Left lateral

Ventrodorsal

Dorsoventral

Answer 120

The correct answer is ventrodorsal. Pleural effusion obscures the heart completely on a dorsoventral radiograph and at least partially on lateral radiographs. Ventrodorsal positioning usually moves the pleural fluid away from the heart and allows for a radiographic view of the heart to be obtained. Of course, in dyspneic animals, it may not be wise to position them ventrodorsally.

Question 121

The round ligament of the bladder is the remnant of the ________.

Umbilical arteries

Umbilical vein

Broad ligament

Urachus

Answer 121

The correct answer is umbilical arteries. The urachus becomes the middle ligament of the bladder and the umbilical vein becomes the falciform ligament.

Question 122

Which of these drugs should not be used in Greyhounds?

Propofol

Thiopental

Ivermectin

Morphine

Answer 122

The correct answer is thiopental. Thiopental is an ultra-short acting barbiturate. Recovery depends on redistribution to tissues, including fat. Because sighthounds have very little fat, they have prolonged recoveries and greater complications with these drugs.

Question 123

Nyctalopia (night blindness) is a clinical sign of which vitamin or mineral deficiency?

Biotin

Zinc

Vitamin A

Niacin

Answer 123

The correct answer is Vitamin A. Vitamin A comprises retinal, which is a component of rhodopsin which facilitates the transfer of energy from photons into an electrochemical signal.