Cows

Question 1

Mucosal disease, or alternatively, chronic Bovine Virus Diarrhea (BVD) occurs in cattle when

Answer 1

A 5-month old calf which was persistently infected as a fetus with a non cytopathic (nonCPE) biotype of BVD virus is superinfected with a cytopathic (CPE) biotype of BVD due to rearranging of the parent non-CPE viral RNA

Question 2

A beef cow presents for palpation at approximately 30 days gestation. Which positive sign of pregnancy will be present?Placentomes will be palpable starting between ____ days of gestation. The fetus itself will be palpable beginning at approximately ____ days gestation, but may be out of reach between months 4-7 of gestation. Uterine artery fremitus will be evident on the ipsilateral pregnant horn at about ___ days of gestation. From 7 months on, you can feel the fremitus bilaterally.Fremitus does not necessarily always indicate a viable pregnancy.

Answer 2

Chorioallantoic membrane slip. Placentomes will be palpable starting between 75-90 days of gestation. The fetus itself will be palpable beginning at approximately 60 days gestation, but may be out of reach between months 4-7 of gestation. Uterine artery fremitus will be evident on the ipsilateral pregnant horn at about 120 days of gestation. From 7 months on, you can feel the fremitus bilaterally.Fremitus does not necessarily always indicate a viable pregnancy.

Question 3

the most common eye neoplasia in the cow is _____ and it causes significant economic loss due to shortened productive life and condemnation at slaughter.

Answer 3

SCC. The etiology is multifactorial but is believed to have a heritable component as well as association with sunlight, eyelid pigmentation, and nutrition.

Question 4

infectious bovine rhinotracheitis (IBR) case in a farm. What are the clinical signs and what should you do about it

Answer 4

fever, nasal discharge, cough, increased RR, swollen vulva with erosions and ulcers. Vaccinate all cattle with intranasal vaccine against the virus and treat sick animals with intramuscular procaine penicillin for 3 days

Question 5

What is the meat withdrawal (in days) for xylazine, tolazoline, lidocaine, and meloxicam, respectively?

Answer 5

4, 8, 4, 15

Question 6

Blue green algae toxicity

Answer 6

The fact that they died right next to the pond and the species affected are key factors. Unfortunately, vague presentations are likely to be common on board examinations. Any living animals would have miosis, ptyalism, bradycardia, and diarrhea as potential clinical signs. The algae produces toxins that are absorbed through mucous membranes and cause a post-synaptic depolarizing block. Affected animals can die within minutes of drinking the water. As little as 1.5L can kill a cow.

Question 7

deficiency of ______ will cause accumulation of 2-keto-3-methylvaleric, 2-ketoisocaproic, and 2-isovaleric acids along with their precursors isoleucine, leucine, and valine. These are excreted in the urine and result in a burnt maple syrup smell (hence the name Maple syrup urine dz ).

Answer 7

Branched-chain ketoacid decarboxylase

Question 8

At what period in production does displaced abomasum most commonly occur in dairy cows?

Answer 8

First four weeks postpartum. Due to the increased metabolic demands from lactation, the diet changes drastically, and more gas is produced in the abomasum. Dairy cows often undergo a period of clinical or subclinical hypocalcemia. Hypocalcemia predisposes to decreased abomasal motility and may be a factor contributing to displacement (especially since there is more gas to move).

Question 9

The ranch is located on soils of volcanic origin in northeastern California. What is up with this soil that can cause beef cattle of all ages to have poor growth or weight loss, diarrhea, and washed-out hair coat colors

Answer 9

Soils of this type are often high in molybdenum and borderline low in copper, as well as often having alkaline water high in sulfates. The molybdenum and sulfates bind the little available dietary copper and make it biologically unavailable, resulting in copper deficiency secondary to high molybdenum. Signs of copper deficiency include achromotrichia (washed-out hair color), poor growth/weight loss, and diarrhea. Abnormal bone growth or spontaneous fractures can also be observed in some herds.

Question 10

Fusion of fetal membranes between a male and female set of beef cow twins will cause a ___________.

Answer 10

The correct answer is freemartin. A freemartin results from exposure of the female to Mullerian inhibiting hormone which is being secreted by the male. She is exposed as a result of anastomosis between the two fetus’s chorioallantoic vessels. Clinical signs include an abnormal ano-genital distance and an enlarged clitoris.

Question 11

T/F Congenital ventricular septal defect is one of the most commonly encountered congenital cardiac defects in cattle.

Answer 11

true

Question 12

How long does this stuff last? -penicillin in milk and tissue -tetracycline in milk

Answer 12

-up to 80 hours for penicillin in milk and 12days in tissue -96 hours for tetracycline in milk

Question 13

Polioencephalomalacia clinical signs and what is it caused by?

Answer 13

Polioencephalomalacia is more likely to present with stargazing, head pressing, depression, and blindness. Polioencephalomalacia is caused by a thiamine deficiency.

Question 14

When formulating late gestation anionic diets for dairy cows to help prevent hypocalcemia in the last 2 to 3 weeks prior to calving, what formula is used?

Answer 14

DCAD = (Na + K) - (Cl + S)

Question 15

Dermatophilus congolensis causes :

Answer 15

crusty lesions, usually along the spine, which are usually due to and exacerbated by damp conditions.

Question 16

what does vit. C deficiency cause in ruminants ?

Answer 16

Vitamin C deficiency is very rare in ruminants and may cause crusting, alopecia, and pruritus.

Question 17

Lead toxicity will lead to ______ clinical signs

Answer 17

Lead toxicity will lead to neurological clinical signs

Question 18

signs of copper deficiency in cattle

Answer 18

Achromotrichia (means an absence of pigment in the hair, so a black animal would develop reddish hair). Other clinical signs of copper deficiency can include diarrhea, poor body condition, lameness, anemia, and infertility.

Question 19

is it ok to give Chloramphenicol to food animals ?

Answer 19

nope

Question 20

how long do these drugs last in the meat of beef cattle? -Ceftiofur or Naxcel -Oxytetracline (LA200) -Sulfadimethoxine -Penicillin G

Answer 20

-Ceftiofur or Naxcel: 4 days -Oxytetracline (LA200): 28 days -Sulfadimethoxine : 7 days -Penicillin G : 10 days.

Question 21

Over 80% of foot disease involving the digits involves the (rear/front) digits. Additionally, approximately 85% of these involve the lateral aspect.

Answer 21

Over 80% of foot disease involving the digits involves the rear digits. Additionally, approximately 85% of these involve the lateral aspect.

Question 22

Actinomyces bovis or “lumpy jaw” clinical signs

Answer 22

firm mass that is immobile over the mandible, presence of “sulfur granules” in the discharge, weight loss and difficulty eating. Tx can include penicillin but cow should be culled if bad enought

Question 23

Ostertagia ostertagii “brown stomach worm” causes what

Answer 23

abomasum has cobblestone appearance which is also sometimes described as having a Moroccon leather appearance. This occurs because Ostertagia larva undergo hypobiosis (larval inhibition) and lay dormant in the early fourth larval stage within the glands of the abomasum, forming the nodules. Massive diarrhea

Question 24

e.coli symptoms in cows

Answer 24

none

Question 25

Cochliomyia hominivorax is the _____ worm and it looks like :

Answer 25

This fly is also known as the screwworm. Females lay hundreds of eggs at the edge of fresh wounds on the cow; the larvae hatch in approximately 24 hours. As the larvae eat the living tissue, they create a huge wound. Screwworm larvae then fall off and pupate, completing their life cycle in approximately 21 days. This fly is reportable! and looks metallic blue-green colored

Question 26

Illness in young calves caused by Eimeria sp. is best treated with :

Answer 26

Amprolium

Question 27

Actinomyces bovis is the cause of _____

Answer 27

Actinomyces bovis is the cause of lumpy jaw.

Question 28

T/F Arcanobacterium pyogenes may cause laryngeal abscesses, however affected animals are not febrile and septic.

Answer 28

true

Question 29

Fusobacterium necrophorum (aka calf diphtheria or necrotic laryngitis) clinical signs

Answer 29

moist, painful cough and a loud inspiratory stridor. head and neck extension. swelling around the larynx, and ozena. fever and episcleral injection. On palpation of the larynx, a cough is easily elicited along with pain and increased stridor.

Question 30

Spastic paresis . What is it/signs

Answer 30

Spastic paresis, also known as Elso heel, affects cattle of many breeds (as well as pygmy goats) beginning from three weeks to 1 year of age. It is believed to be caused by a combination of genetic and environmental factors which somehow cause over stimulation of the gamma motor neurons of the spinal cord. constant hypertonia of extensors of the rear limbs when standing and difficulty getting up

Question 31

Gossypol causes….

Answer 31

Gossypol is a cardiotoxin and can kill calves less than 4 months of age. In adults, if fed at high levels, it usually causes sterility in bulls and decreased conception in cows.

Question 32

Moldy sweet clover causes….

Answer 32

Moldy sweet clover inhibits vitamin K and causes a coagulopathy.

Question 33

Tansy ragwort causes….

Answer 33

Tansy ragwort is a pyrrolizidine alkaloid and causes liver disease.

Question 34

Sudan grass causes

Answer 34

Nitrate toxicosis which leads to methemoglobinemia, in which the blood appears chocolate brown. As a result, the oxygen carrying capacity and delivery is greatly reduced and the animal may die. Methylene blue is usually administered IV as a 1% to 4% solution, with a total dose of 4 to 15 mg/kg body weight to cattle, for treating nitrate toxicosis.

Question 35

permanent incisors in cows age

Answer 35

A good rule of thumb is that the permanent incisors are in wear at 1.5, 2.5, 3.5 and 4.5 years of age (permanent incisors 1, 2, 3, and 4 respectively).

Question 36

what is the best test to detect Ab on a herd basis?

Answer 36

ELISA

Question 37

A necropsy of an aborted bovine fetus shows enlarged lymph nodes and spleen, destructive lesions to the thymus, and evidence of chronic granulomatous infection. What is the most likely cause of this abortion?

Answer 37

The correct answer is epizootic bovine abortion (EBA), also called foothill abortion. This is an important disease of heifers and newly introduced cows in California foothills. The lesions are consistent with this diagnosis. The etiologic agent of EBA has yet to be identified, however we know that the vector is a tick, Ornithodoros coriaceus. T. foetus is involved with early embryonic death. Brucellosis abortions are pretty rare since it has virtually been eradicated from the U.S., but lesions include autolysis, placentitis, and bronchopneumonia. IBR causes rapid fetal death, therefore there is essentially no time for fetal response, so you are likely to see autolysis and focal necrosis of the organs.

Question 38

Which of the following is the primary host for pseudorabies? Cattle Sheep Goats Horses Swine

Answer 38

The correct answer is swine. The infection is frequently asymptomatic in swine. In ruminants, clinical signs are usually acute to peracute. When the progression is slower, the first clinical signs are often paresthesia (mad-itch) at the site of inoculation. Signs include ataxia, proprioceptive deficits, circling, nystagmus, and strabismus. Sometimes aggression is seen, but usually the animals become depressed. This disease must be differentiated from rabies, polioencephalomalacia, salt poisoning, lead poisoning, hypomagnesemia, and meningitis. Currently the US commercial swine is free of pseudorabies.

Question 39

Once you see an egg count between ___-____ per gram, with or without compatible clinical signs, you should consider deworming. That is the level at which weight gains in growing calves will begin to be affected.

Answer 39

300-400

Question 40

how and when to tx Hypoderma

Answer 40

They undergo a long migration in tissues and only emerge from the back of the animal in spring. The crucial treatment time is early fall when larvae are just beginning to migrate in tissues. Organophosphates or one of the macrocyclic lactones (ivermectin, doramectin, eprinomectin or moxidectin) are effective.

Question 41

Which of the following is not a zoonotic pathogen shed in cow milk? -Brucella abortus -Salmonella dublin -Listeria monocytogenes -Campylobacter fetus ssp venerealis - Mycobacterium avium ssp paratuberculosis

Answer 41

The correct answer is Campylobacter fetus ssp. venerealis, which is the main cause of bovine campylobacteriosis but is not shed in milk. This organism is an obligate parasite of the bovine genital tract and causes abortion. Infection usually results in temporary infertility or early embryonic death.

Question 42

what clinical signs are associated with bovine pyometra?

Answer 42

few, if any

Question 43

A calf is 3 days old and is low on IgG …. what do you do?

Answer 43

give 20-40ml/kg plasma since its too late for colostrum

Question 44

what organism is responsible for “lumpy jaw”

Answer 44

actinomycosis. this condition results from the entry of the normal rumen inhabitant Actinomyces bovis into the bony mandible (usual site) or maxilla through a break in the mucous membranes or teeth. It may be arrested with therapy using sodium iodide, antimicrobials or even isoniazid off-label, but the bony swelling seldom changes much, even if arrested.

Question 45

mad cow disease mimics what human dz?

Answer 45

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) is a rare disorder that can occur due to a genetic mutation or may occur sporadically. Patients may experience psychiatric symptoms such as depression or a schizophrenia-like psychosis. Unusual sensory symptoms may also occur. Neurological signs progress to difficulty walking and involuntary movements, and, by the time of death, patients become completely immobile and mute.

Question 46

Variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (vCJD) vs Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD)

Answer 46

-vCJD affects younger people and has been strongly linked to exposure, probably through food, to cattle BSE -CJD genetic mutation or may occur sporadically. Patients may experience psychiatric symptoms Neurological signs progress to difficulty walking and involuntary movements, and, by the time of death, patients become completely immobile and mute.

Question 47

what is the toxin associated with cottonseed ?

Answer 47

gossypol - may cause kidney damage

Question 48

what would rupture to these things cause? -Ruptured peroneus tertius -Ruptured serratus ventralis -Ruptured gastrocnemius

Answer 48

-Ruptured peroneus tertius: flex stifle and extend hock -Ruptured serratus ventralis: “flying scapula” -Ruptured gastrocnemius: flex hock and extend stifle

Question 49

Type I Ostertagiasis vs Type II Ostertagiasis

Answer 49

-Type I: naive calves, not associated with large numbers of larvae with few adult worms in the abomasum. -Type II: weight loss/ diarrhea. Thickened mucosal folds in the abomasum (with less shiny mucous than normal), and thousands of larvae

Question 50

what is the most common ocular tumor in the cow and how do we tx it?

Answer 50

SCC and we give 5point orbital block with lidocaine

Question 51

Over which intercostal space would an aortic valve murmur be heard best?

Answer 51

Left handed ex-gf PAM LEFT SIDE -pulmonic 3rd intercostal -aortic 4th intercostal -mitrial 5th intercostal RIGHT -mitrial 3-4th intercostal

Question 52

An owner suspects that he has trichomoniasis in his cattle herd. What clinical signs can you tell him to look for?

Answer 52

they are usually asymptomatic, but by the time calving occurs there is likely to be a poor calving percentage. Neither the cow nor bull appear to be remarkably clinically affected. Rarely, one may see a very mild discharge from the cow after early embryonic death, and if there is a pyometra at the time of pregnancy check one could be suspicious.

Question 53

what hormone would be most effective and economical in raising the amount of milk produced by a dairy cow?

Answer 53

Also called growth hormone, injections of bovine somatotropin (BST) every 14 days can significantly prolong the lactation curve and result in increased milk production.

Question 54

Which human disease has Mycobacterium avium ssp paratuberculosis been associated with, although the debate is still going strong?

Answer 54

Crohn’s disease

Question 55

What is the advantage to having bulls with large testicles?

Answer 55

Their female offspring reach sexual maturity at an earlier time

Question 56

PAP testing done at elevations 6000 ft. or above on animals over 12 months of age is a reliable predictor of genetic susceptibility to high mountain disease . The lowest pulmonary artery pressure readings are the least susceptible animals. Which PAP measurement would be satisfactory for a cow NOT developing high mountain disease ?

Answer 56

Less than 40 mmHg pressure

Question 57

The genetic disorder bovine leukocyte adhesion deficiency (BLAD) appeared in Holstein dairy cattle some years ago. If it is like most animal genetic disorders, which of the following modes of inheritance is it likely to be? Y-linked Autosomal dominant Autosomal recessive X-linked recessive

Answer 57

autosomal recessive congenital disease.

Question 58

A young bull presents for a breeding soundness exam. What is the minimum recommended percentage normal morphology of sperm?

Answer 58

The correct answer is 70% normal. To be a satisfactory potential breeder, a bull must meet certain requirements including a normal physical exam, adequate scrotal circumference, sperm motility of at least 30% motile, and sperm morphology of at least 70% normal.

Question 59

A typical TPN mixture for a calf this size would be 1L of 10% ______, 1L of 50% ______ and 500 ml of 10% _____ per day.

Answer 59

A typical TPN mixture for a calf this size would be 1L of 10% amino acids, 1L of 50% glucose and 500 ml of 10% lipids per day.

Question 60

A beef cow presents for decreased milk production. On physical exam, the cow has a fever of 104.5F. Her urine is yellow, and the dipstick tests are normal. You make a blood smear and see an organism at the margin of the red blood cells. What is your treatment of choice for this animal? Oxytetracycline Procaine Penicillin Chloramphenicol Corticosteroids

Answer 60

The correct answer is oxytetracycline. The cow has Anaplasmosis, a rickettsial organism that is transmitted by ticks. Infected calves have a low mortality rate, but adult cattle have a 20-50% mortality rate with this disease.

Question 61

Cow has worms, diarrhea and CNS signs. Which one do you think of? Nervous giardiasis Nervous Cryptosporidiosis Nervous neosporosis Nervous coccidiosis

Answer 61

Nervous coccidiosis

Question 62

How many maxillary incisors do bulls have? 0 3 1 4 2

Answer 62

The correct answer is 0. Ruminants do not have maxillary (upper)incisors.

Question 63

T/F all of these are reportable… Bluetongue Foot-and-Mouth disease Brucellosis Vesicular stomatitis

Answer 63

true

Question 64

Which of the following agents of disease in cattle is not a potential cause of papular lesions in humans? Bovine papular stomatitis Pseudocowpox Bovine viral diarrhea Contagious ecthyma of sheep and goats

Answer 64

The correct answer is bovine viral diarrhea. BVD is currently not considered zoonotic. Pseudocowpox, contagious ecthyma of sheep and goats, and bovine papular stomatitis are all parapox viruses that can cause lesions in humans.

Question 65

Which is the least common site of osteochondrosis in large animals? Hock Shoulder Stifle Elbow

Answer 65

The correct answer is elbow. The hock is actually the most common site.

Question 66

A cow is suspected of having copper deficiency. In order to make an accurate diagnosis, a liver biopsy is necessary. In what rib space and on which side should the liver biopsy be performed? -Right side half way between the last rib and the pelvis -Right side between ribs 7-8 -Left side between ribs 8-9 -Right side between ribs 10-11

Answer 66

The correct answer is right side between ribs 10-11

Question 67

Which hormone is responsible for milk letdown? Adrenalin Prolactin Oxytocin Estrogen

Answer 67

Oxytocin

Question 68

A herd of cattle present for an acute onset of a mild cough. Many of the cattle subsequently die and the others have improved over the course of several days. The cattle had a history of being moved to a lush pasture. Necropsy findings showed acute interstitial pneumonia and air filled bullae. What is the likely chemical responsible for this disease? Magnesium 3-Methylindole 4-Ipomeanol Methylmethacrylate

Answer 68

The correct answer is 3-methylindole. Cattle that are moved to lush forage that is high in tryptophan metabolize the tryptophan to 3-methylindole in the rumen. The 3-MI is toxic to the lung, resulting in acute interstitial pneumonia and emphysema. This syndrome is known as acute bovine pulmonary edema and emphysema (ABPEE), fog fever or grunts. 4-Ipomeanol is the chemical involved in moldy sweet potato poisoning, which looks clinically similar to this.

Question 69

You are hired by the potential buyer to examine a valuable 3-month old calf for purchase as part of a pre-purchase examination. You note that the calf appears healthy other than having a temperature of 103F, 39.4 C and having some small raised lesions in the mouth around the gums of the incisors and on the dental pad, as shown in the photo. You suggest some lab tests and another exam in three weeks, and tell the buyer that you think the calf most likely has ________.

Answer 69

Bovine papular stomatitis (BPS).BPS is one of two parapox viruses that affect cattle; the other is pseudocowpox. The third parapoxvirus is contagious ecthyma of sheep and goats. Humans can get all three. BPS is a common and usually mild “calfhood” disease, often unnoticed, but it has caused significant mortality in some groups of calves (perhaps due to some immunosuppression). The best course of action is to isolate this calf and rule out BVD by testing for it, then wait to see if the calf recovers in about three weeks. The raised lesions, and lack of other oral lesions, and lack of GI signs tend to make BPS more likely here than BVD.

Question 70

Which of the following is true of bovine trichomoniasis? -The mature bull is commonly the reservoir of infection for a herd - It is carried by the male, especially young, immunologically naive bulls -Once infected, a cow typically becomes a permanent carrier -It is caused by the flagellated protozoan, Trichinella spiralis - It is typically first suspected by the discovery of preputial discharges from infected bulls -It is primarily a gastrointestinal pathogen

Answer 70

Trichomoniasis, caused by the protozoan Tritrichomonas foetus, is typically a temporary infection in the female. She characteristically eliminates the infection in 2-4 months. The bull, however, becomes a chronic carrier as he ages, since aging is associated with increased depth of epithelial crypts of a bull’s glans penis and prepuce, thus increasing the availability of the “niche” where the organism thrives. Once infected, a cow typically clears the infection from the reproductive tract in 2-4 months and regains her fertility. Young bulls are rarely infected chronically, probably because they have shallow penile and preputial crypts, which are thought to provide poor niches for chronic infection. Trichomoniasis typically manifests no visible signs in either the male or female.

Question 71

Guillian-Barre syndrome is an acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy of humans that has been associated with a foodborne illness. Which of the following agents has been associated with Guillian-Barre syndrome? Campylobacter jejuni Clostridium perfringens Yersinia enterocolitica Listeria monocytogenes Salmonella

Answer 71

Guillian-Barre syndrome appears to be an autoimmune disease that is triggered after certain respiratory and gastrointestinal infections. 40% or more cases of the syndrome are seen after Campylobacter jejuni infections. Other agents that have been associated with Guillain-Barre syndrome include cytomegalovirus and Epstein-Barr virus.

Question 72

A 2-year old Holstein heifer presents for depression and decreased milk production over the previous week. On physical exam, it is noted her posterior shape is “papple” and she is slightly dehydrated. T=100.2 (37.9 C), P=62, R=28. She does not have episcleral injection. Rumen contractions are not present. Xiphoid pain response is negative and you are able to hear a monotone ping in the rumen on the left side from the 11th rib to the hip. On ballottement and rectal exam a large fluid-filled rumen is palpable. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? -Left displaced abomasum (LDA) -Grain overload (rumen acidosis) -Abomasal torsion or volvulus -Failure of omasal transport

Answer 72

The answer is failure of omasal transport, which leads to an accumulation of fluid and some dorsal gas in the rumen, lack of motility, and inappetance. TRP is a common cause of vagal indigestion; the negative grunt test for xiphoid pain is the result of chronicity and formed adhesions that are no longer acutely painful. It is difficult to clinically distinguish between omasal transport failure and pyloric outflow failure, except that the latter usually has more profound acid-base and electrolyte disturbances, and the cow will appear sicker. Abomasal torsion can be immediately ruled out because there is no abomasal ping on the right. In addition, if it were a right displaced abomasum, the cow would be showing more signs of distress and systemic disease such as episcleral injection and an high HR. Left displaced abomasum can be ruled out because the ping is monotone (LDA ping is variable in pitch) and the ping extends all the way back to the hip. Further, the large fluid filled rumen is rectally palpable, whereas a cow with LDA would have an empty rumen. Grain overload would have a large fluid filled rumen, but the cow would be very sick with scleral injection and fast HR

Question 73

You are presented a dead 4-month old dairy heifer for postmortem exam with a history of lameness and fevers in the group. The owner tells you that several other animals are affected, with more appearing every day. You find pneumonia (ventral yellow firm nodules in a consolidated lung) and polyarthritis (see image) as well as tenosynovitis. What organism is most likely to be the cause of such an outbreak? -Mycoplasma bovis -Mannheimia hemolytica -Mycoplasma agalactiae -Histophilus somnus -Pasteurella hemolytica

Answer 73

In young calves M. bovis can cause head tilt, aural discharges, facial paralysis, ataxia, and nystagmus as ear infections occur. In older cows it can cause pneumonia, with or without the arthritis and tenosynovitis. It can also cause mastitis, abortion and other disorders.

Question 74

Presence of dysphonia may indicate a lesion in __________.

Answer 74

The correct answer is CN X. Clinical signs of lesions of the vagus nerve include dysphagia, abnormal vocalizing, inspiratory dyspnea, and megaesophagus.

Question 75

Which of the following is not a dietary deficiency associated with a neurologic disorder in livestock? Vitamin A deficiency Copper deficiency Vitamin D deficiency Thiamine deficiency

Answer 75

The correct answer is vitamin D deficiency. Vitamin D deficiency will manifest with bone abnormalities (rickets). Vitamin A deficiency may produce an encephalopathy in which convulsions and blindness are common clinical signs. Copper deficiency may result in demyelination and pathologic fractures of the vertebrae. Thiamine deficiency produces polioencephalomalacia.

Question 76

T/F Clinical signs of coccidiosis in a calf can include: diarrhea, hematochezia, and tenesmus. horizontal nystagmus and muscular fasciculations. Extreme depression and frothing at the mouth

Answer 76

true

Question 77

At what day in gestation can pregnancy be first confirmed via ultrasound in cattle?

Answer 77

28days

Question 78

A 4 year old Beefmaster bull presents with frothy nasal discharge, subcutaneous emphysema, an infrequent loud cough, heart rate of 88, and open-mouthed breathing. Additionally, crackles and wheezes are audible throughout the lung fields. Radiographic findings show an interstitial pattern and no consolidation. You cannot detect any consolidation on physical exam either. Blood work shows no signs of sepsis. About two weeks ago this bull was moved from a poor pasture to a very lush pasture. What is your diagnosis? -Farmer’s lung -Silo filler’s disease -Bovine respiratory syncytial virus - Fog fever - Fibrinous pleuropneumonia

Answer 78

The correct answer is fog fever (acute bovine pulmonary edema and emphysema). It is one of the atypical interstitial pneumonias. The key to making this diagnosis is the history, but the clinical signs are important too. This bull has atypical pneumonia (diffuse, non-septic lung disease). This can be determined because there are no signs of sepsis, he has an intermittent loud cough as opposed to a soft, painful, cough, and he has widespread crackles and wheezes without consolidation. Given this, fibrinous pleuropneumonia (shipping fever) can be ruled out. BRSV may have similar signs but there is a characteristic “honking” cough which this bull does not have, and usually is only this severe in young animals. Now you can rule out farmer’s lung and silo filler’s disease. This is where the history is especially important. With farmer’s lung, the animal will have allergies, so his signs will be episodic. Usually, the animal will be housed indoors and be exposed to the allergen; going outside will improve his situation. With silo filler’s disease (bronchiolitis obliterans) there is typically a history of the animal being housed close to the silo which often results in inhalation of toxic silo gases. Finally, there is the history of switching from a poor pasture to a lush pasture two weeks ago. This is classic for fog fever. The lush plants are high in tryptophan which is subsequently metabolized in the rumen to 3-methyl indole (toxic to the lungs).

Question 79

When is a chorioallantoic membrane slip first palpable in a heifer? 50-55 days 30-35 days 90-95 days 20-25 days

Answer 79

The correct answer is 30-35 days. This is known as the membrane slip and is considered a positive sign of pregnancy.

Question 80

What cardiac abnormality is commonly associated with hypocalcemia and milk fever in the cow? Ventricular premature contractions Atrial fibrillation Tachycardia Sinoatrial node block

Answer 80

The correct answer is tachycardia. Calcium administration may cause all the other abnormalities if you give too much too fast. You may also see a sinus node arrest. Calcium administration will cause the heart to beat more slowly and more strongly.

Question 81

A dairyman’s favorite cow was bred by a new bull a few weeks ago and now his cow has pyometra. What agent is most likely responsible for causing the cow’s pyometra? Campylobacter fetus Tritrichomonas foetus Brucellosis Leptospirosis

Answer 81

The correct answer is tritrichomonas foetus. This organism is commonly associated with a post-coital pyometra in addition to causing early embryonic death. Campylobacter is a cause of early embryonic death but does not usually result in pyometra. Brucella will result in late term abortion. Leptospirosis is a cause of mid- to late-gestation abortions and not post-coital pyometras.

Question 82

What type of virus is the etiological agent of foot and mouth disease? Reovirus Herpes virus 2 Picornavirus Rhabdovirus

Answer 82

The correct answer is picornavirus. FMD is reportable. Clinical signs include vesicles on the mouth, coronary band, and interdigital space that rupture and result in ulceration. Animals are in pain and decrease productivity.

Question 83

Dictyocaulus viviparus 2 methofs of prevention

Answer 83

A strategic anthelmintic program entails administration of an anthelmintic such as ivermectin at 3, 8, and 13 weeks post-turnout. There are approximately 28 days of residual activity against lungworm. Vaccination is used in some areas (mainly Europe) and involves an attenuated oral vaccine of 1,000 irradiated L3 Dictyocaulus viviparous at 6 and 2 weeks pre-turnout.

Question 84

P pulmonale and P mitrale ECG findings

Answer 84

pulmonale has tall slender P waved and is associated with RA enlargement P mitrale has longer P wave and is associated with LA enlargement

Question 85

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of providing a DCAD (dietary cation-anion difference) diet to cattle? There is a lower incidence of milk fever Cows absorb calcium more readily Cows remain relatively more alkalotic Parathyroid hormone function is enhanced

Answer 85

DCAD is used to help prevent milk fever. Cows eating a DCAD diet are actually more acidotic which enhances parathyroid hormone function along with a better ability to utilize dietary calcium. The easy measure is to check urine pH (it should be acid) on cows to be sure they are ingesting the diet. To review, DCAD is dietary cation-anion difference. A DCAD diet is enhanced with more anionic salts containing the strong ions chloride and sulfur, and has decreased amounts of strong cations such as sodium and potassium.

Question 86

What is the cause of alpha-Mannosidosis? Fungal Genetic Viral Bacterial infiltration of the gyri

Answer 86

The correct answer is genetic (autosomal-recessive). The condition is the result of a defect of the enzyme alpha-mannosidase and is seen in Murray gray, Simmental, Holstein, Galloway, and Angus cattle. The cleavage between N-acetyl glucosamine and mannose will not occur and the oligosaccharide will accumulate within the lysosomes of neurons, reticuloendothelial cells, and macrophages. The first sign at 1 month to 15 months of age will be a mild ataxia of the pelvic limbs after exercise. Other signs then develop, including hypermetria, aggressiveness, and intention head tremors. Most affected individuals will end up getting diarrhea and becoming recumbent and die within months after diagnosis.

Question 87

How many injections and at what spacing is PGF2-alpha given to synchronize a dairy cow?

Answer 87

2 injections approximately 11-14 days apart. This will assure that those that had an immature, unresponsive, corpus luteum during the first shot are synchronized on the second shot. Additionally, those that were synchronized on the first injection will have a corpus luteum that will be responsive to PGF2-alpha in 11-14 days.

Question 88

A three-week old Jersey calf presents due to an inability to walk. On physical exam, there are no signs of trauma and it is noted that the hocks will not flex due to continuous gastrocnemius tension. There were no other abnormal physical exam findings. What is your primary differential? Tetanus Bilateral gastrocnemius rupture Spastic paresis Septic hocks

Answer 88

The correct answer is spastic paresis (aka Elso heel). This is a hereditary disease which produces a continuous stiffness of the hocks. There could be bilateral or unilateral involvement. It is a recessive disease; therefore, affected animals should not be bred. Treatment involves a tibial neurectomy or gastrocnemius tenectomy. Given these signals and clinical signs, spastic paresis should be high on your differential list. Sepsis is highly unlikely because there are no other signs of systemic disease. You would see the opposite clinical signs with a gastrocnemius rupture.

Question 89

In cattle, chronic bracken fern ingestion causes….

Answer 89

In cattle, chronic bracken fern ingestion (consumption of the animal’s body weight over several months) can result in bone marrow suppression, as well as alkylation of DNA leading to tumors. The problem will manifest as hemorrhages, hematuria, and/or cancers in the bladder or other organs. The bone marrow suppression leads to anemia and neutropenia. The thiaminase seems to affect horses more than cattle. Horses develop thiamine deficiency manifested as weight loss, ataxia, lethargy, tremors, recumbency, and death.

Question 90

A cow about one month from term goes off feed and rapidly develops an enlarged, rounded, abdominal shape. She is now uncomfortable and reluctant to move. You examine the cow and note marked accumulation of watery fluid in the uterus. You perform a brief ultrasound and confirm the large volume of fluid in the uterus and a thickened placenta. What should you tell the farmer about this condition?

Answer 90

The clinical description is most consistent with hydroallantois because of the rapid accumulation of fluid and the clinical signs of the cow. Hydramnios is a reasonable differential although it more typically involves gradual accumulation of fluid and the cow is usually clinically unaffected. Hydroallantois is a disorder of the placenta (chorio-allantois) that results in rapid accumulation of 100-200 liters of watery, clear fluid during the last trimester. The cow develops a rounded appearance to the abdomen and it is usually not possible to palpate the fetus or placentomes. The cow often becomes sick with anorexia, decreased rumen motility, dehydration and weakness. She may go down or rupture the prepubic tendon. The prognosis for the fetus is guarded and even with treatment, the cow will likely be infertile. Induction of parturition or C-section are treatment options but the majority of calves are not viable and the dam rarely has normal colostrum. If the pregnancy is terminated, it is unlikely that the cow will have a productive milk cycle. Usually salvage for slaughter is the preferred option unless the fetus is considered valuable and the cow is near term. Hydramnios is a disorder of the fetus, and the placenta itself is normal. The condition is typically characterized by gradual accumulation of thick viscous fluid during the later part of gestation. The cow develops a pear shaped caudal view. The fetus and placentomes are usually palpable and the cow is usually clinically well. Pregnancy usually goes to term and a small, deformed fetus is delivered. The cow has a fair to good prognosis for life and fertility. The cow may be induced or allowed to go to term depending on her condition.

Question 91

You are called to examine and treat a cow which has eaten green chop alfalfa and has bloat. You first pass a stomach tube but little or no gas escapes, and the cow is in respiratory distress due to the tremendous abdominal pressure. You next insert a trocar into the rumen from the left flank and froth exits as shown in the photo. The pH of the froth is 6.2. You should now treat this cow with what drug to further relieve the bloat?

Answer 91

Poloxalene orally. You need to treat with a substance to reduce the surface tension and destabilize the froth. The pH is within normal limits for rumen contents; therefore, oral bicarbonate is not beneficial. In a pinch, one could also use cooking oil to attempt to break down the foam.

Question 92

An owner suspects that he has trichomoniasis in his cattle herd. What clinical signs can you tell him to look for? The bulls will have a thick preputial discharge Cows will have metritis Abortion Poor calving percentage

Answer 92

The correct answer is that they are usually asymptomatic, but by the time calving occurs there is likely to be a poor calving percentage. Neither the cow nor bull appear to be remarkably clinically affected. Rarely, one may see a very mild discharge from the cow after early embryonic death, and if there is a pyometra at the time of pregnancy check one could be suspicious. Abortion is not the correct answer because cows don’t really abort anything, they just return to heat at an extended interval after being bred.

Question 93

What is the permanent dental formula of a cow? Pig? Goat? Sheep? Cat? Dog?

Answer 93

2(I 0/4, C 0/0, P 3/3, M 3/3). This dental formula also applies for sheep and goats. The pig’s dental formula is 2(I 3/3, C 1/1, P 4/4, M 3/3). The dog dental formula is 2(I 3/3, C 1/1, P 4/4, M 2/3). The cat dental formula is 2(I 3/3, C 1/1, P 3/2, M 1/1).

Question 94

CSF tap of listeriosis vs thromboembolic meningoencephalitis

Answer 94

listeria: mononuclear pleocytosis. thromboembolic meningoencephalitis (TEME):neutrophilic pleocytosis. Remember with Listeria, you will often observe CNS signs, an increased number of monocytes and macrophages. Also remember that Listeria is usually contracted from ingesting silage that has been stored at a pH > 5.0.

Question 95

What is your diagnosis?

Answer 95

Moniezia eggs are rectangular (as shown) or triangular. Moniezia is an anoplocephalid tapeworm found in young cattle. Their life-cycle involves oribatid mites which live in the soil and are ingested by the host. Moniezia are generally considered non-pathogenic but may cause intestinal stasis.

Question 96

You are called out to see a 2-month old beef calf that collapsed this morning (see image). The farmer reports that the calf appeared well-nourished and was doing well a couple of days ago. You examine the calf and find temperature 100.6 F or 38.1 C, pulse 120 bpm, and respiratory rate 32 bpm with a slight expiratory grunt. The calf’s eyes are sunken and you estimate that it is 7-10% dehydrated based on decreased skin turgor. The ocular and oral mucous membranes appear congested. The abdomen is distended and palpation elicits a painful grunt. A quick field ultrasound shows several liters of peritoneal fluid and abdominocentesis yields blood tinged fluid. You quickly prepare the calf for a midline exploratory laparotomy and you identify a single, focal 1.5 cm perforating abomasal ulcer. With appropriate surgical and medical intervention, what is the calf’s prognosis?

Answer 96

<10% survival - grave. The calf’s signs of dehydration, weakness, and expiratory grunt are additional poor prognostic indicators. Very few animals recover from diffuse peritonitis and those that do will have massive abdominal adhesions. Acute abomasal perforation through a single 1-2 cm ulcer occurs sporadically in young (2-4 month old) beef calves and the cause is unknown.

Question 97

The cow pictured had a dystocia that was finally pulled about one hour ago, resulting in obturator paralysis. She has been unable to rise since then and is now termed an alert downer cow. You examine her and determine that she has a normal temperature, normal heart sounds, does not have any fractures and appears to be metabolically normal and alert. The owner believes she is valuable and wishes to save her. What is the best course of treatment with the best prognosis at this point?

Answer 97

Some years ago float tanks appeared commercially. They are the most effective means of managing down cows, and have success rates over 50% if the cow is floated soon after the problem occurs and if there is no other underlying problem such as fracture, hypocalcemia, spinal tumor, peritonitis etc. The tank on wheels is moved next to the down cow, and the cow is rolled onto a mat next to the tank. She is then winched into the tank, the ends are attached in place, and 102-105F water is run into the tank. The cow floats up as it fills and is eventually able to stand using flotation to aid her. This improves circulation and prevents further pressure damage to nerves and muscles. If there is one leg that is knuckling, a splint or fiberglass cast can be applied when the tank is drained in 24 hours, after which she is again floated.
Slings do not work well for cattle.

Question 98

you have diagnosed nitrate poisoning in a group of yearling cattle which were grazing Sudan grass (see photo). Which of the following is the most effective treatment?

Answer 98

Nitrate toxicosis causes methemoglobinemia, in which the blood appears chocolate brown. As a result, the oxygen carrying capacity and delivery is greatly reduced and the animal may die. Methylene blue is usually administered IV as a 1% to 4% solution, with a total dose of 4 to 15 mg/kg body weight to cattle, for treating nitrate toxicosis.

Nitrates are found in high levels in many plants and some water sources. The nitrate is converted in the rumen to nitrite and then absorbed into the blood, which causes oxidation of the heme iron to the +3 ferrous state (called methemoglobin). Methylene blue restores the iron in hemoglobin to its normal (reduced) oxygen-carrying state. This is achieved by providing an artificial electron acceptor for NADPH methemoglobin reductase (RBCs usually don’t have one; the presence of methylene blue allows the enzyme to function at 5A? normal levels). The NADPH is generated via the hexose monophosphate shunt.

Question 99

Poloxalene

Answer 99

substance to reduce the surface tension and destabilize the froth, bloat guard

Question 100

You go to a dairy which is having trouble with sudden death in calves and decreased reproductive efficiency in cows. Which plant toxin should you have on your differential list?

Moldy sweet clover

Larkspur

Tansy ragwort

Gossypol

St. John’s-wort

Answer 100

The correct answer is gossypol (found in cotton seed in varying amounts) toxicity. Gossypol is a cardiotoxin and can kill calves less than 4 months of age. In adults, if fed at high levels, it usually causes sterility in bulls and decreased conception in cows. Moldy sweet clover inhibits vitamin K and causes a coagulopathy. St. John’s-wort contains hypericin and results in photosensitivity. Tansy ragwort is a pyrrolizidine alkaloid and causes liver disease. Larkspur causes general nonspecific signs such as salivation, bloat, muscle fasciculation, collapse, staggering, and death.

Question 101

• clinical signs of copper deficiency
• clinical signs of Vitamin C deficiency
• clinical signs of lead toxicity

Answer 101

• Coppe:Achromotrichia, diarrhea, poor body condition, lameness, anemia, and infertility.
• Vitamin C: very rare in ruminants and may cause crusting, alopecia, and pruritus.
• Lead toxicity will lead to neurological clinical signs.

Question 102

Fecal examination reveals Dictyocaulus viviparus L3 in three of six samples. You treat the cows with ivermectin and see cessation of coughing and diarrhea within a few days. Which of the following would be the best way to prevent this problem next year now that there is a known risk?

Answer 102

Based on the presentation and diagnostic findings, this is a case of Dictyocaulus viviparus, the bovine lungworm and cause of verminous bronchitis. Although the worm is more common in Europe, cases can be seen worldwide including in North America, particularly when weather conditions permit (cooler, moist summers). Dictyocaulus often affects younger cattle more severely. Signs include cough and frequently tachypnea. The diagnosis is frequently suggested by the seasonal incidence although confirmation with fecal examination (Baermann) is important to achieve a definitive diagnosis. Treatment with an anthelmintic of clinically affected animals is usually effective.

Dictyocaulus (cow lungworm) has a direct life cycle and does not require a snail, earthworm, or tick for transmission. A strategic anthelmintic program entails administration of an anthelmintic such as ivermectin at 3, 8, and 13 weeks post-turnout. There are approximately 28 days of residual activity against lungworm.

Question 103

Guillian-Barre syndrome is an acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy of humans that has been associated with a foodborne illness. Which of the following agents has been associated with Guillian-Barre syndrome?

Listeria monocytogenes

Clostridium perfringens

Yersinia enterocolitica

Salmonella

Campylobacter jejuni

Answer 103

Guillian-Barre syndrome appears to be an autoimmune disease that is triggered after certain respiratory and gastrointestinal infections. 40% or more cases of the syndrome are seen after Campylobacter jejuni infections. Other agents that have been associated with Guillain-Barre syndrome include cytomegalovirus and Epstein-Barr virus.

Question 104

Which of the following is most appropriate for increasing the rumen pH of a cow with rumen acidosis to the optimum range?

Bismuth subsalicylate

Magnesium oxide

Vinegar

Propylene glycol

Answer 104

The correct answer is magnesium oxide, which becomes Mg OH in the rumen. You may also use magnesium hydroxide or magnesium carbonate. Vinegar will cause acidification of the rumen and is therefore a poor choice. Propylene glycol and bismuth subsalicylate will not affect rumen pH significantly.

Question 105

Before administering a general anesthetic to a ruminant it is vital to do what?

Withhold feed and water for a period sufficient to minimize the chance that bloat or regurgitation will occur

Use a large dose of atropine

Place a fistula in the rumen so that rumen gas can escape to prevent bloat

Feed only grain for 24 hours prior to surgery to allow the rumen to empty out

Pass a large stomach tube and leave it in place

Answer 105

In cattle this usually require 36 hours or more without feed and 12 to 24 hours without water. In small ruminants it requires less time. You should also keep the head slightly lower than the body so that if any regurgitation does occur the feed material runs out of the mouth quickly.

Question 106

What is the underlying cause of postparturient hemoglobinuria?

Hypophosphatemia

Hypokalemia

Hypomagnesemia

Hypocalcemia

Answer 106

The correct answer is hypophosphatemia; one observes decreased erythrocyte ATP which is not compatible with maintenance of ATP-dependant membrane pumps, and cells lyse.

Question 107

What is the growth medium of choice for Mycoplasma bovis?

Blood agar

MacConkey agar

Hayflick’s agar

Chocolate agar

Answer 107

The correct answer is Hayflick’s agar. Mycoplasma bovis does not grow well on the other choices provided. Additionally, you will want to grow it in a microaerophilic environment.