Cat Flashcards

1
Q

There is a stressed diabetic cat and you need to check glucose monitoring. He gets 4 units of PZI insulin SID. Owner fed and gave insulin this morning. What do you do? Check urine dipstick with serial monitoring for glucoseurea OR single serum fructosamine level check?

A

single serum fructosamine level check - A fructosamine level measures the number of blood glucose molecules linked to protein molecules in the blood. This value is considered to provide an average of the blood glucose concentration over the past 2 to 3 weeks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

cat presents for not eating well and vomit for months. Biopsies from a gastroduodenoscopy show moderate lymphocytic-plasmacytic infiltration and enteritis. Which of medications could be used to control the disease in this feline patient?

A

Corticosteroids such as prednisolone and budesonide are the most common medications used for controlling inflammatory bowel disease in cats. Budesonide concentrates its effects in the gastrointestinal tract, thus has fewer systemic side effects as compared to prednisolone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is Sulfadimethoxine?

A

anti-parasitic agent used in treating the coccidia parasites.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

toxoplasma gondii tachyzoites multiplying within ______ and _______.

A

toxoplasma gondii tachyzoites multiplying within macrophages and neutrophils.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is Enalapril and what could it treat ?

A

Enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor used as a vasodilator, antihypertensive agent, and heart failure treatment. It works by preventing the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, thus reducing aldosterone concentrations and causing diuresis. Its dilatory effects on the efferent arterioles of glomeruli help to palliate protein losing nephropathies. It is often used in conjunction with diuretics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A feline patient has only been eating canned dog food for the past 8 years. What are you concerned about?

A

Dog foods do not contain the amount of taurine that cats need to maintain vital organ function. A taurine deficiency can lead to dilated cardiomyopathy in cats. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is seen in cats with a genetic predisposition for the condition. Atherosclerosis is not typically seen in dogs and cats and is more of a human disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is tularemia and what is the main vector

A

main vector is the tick. Cats and dogs can also be infected following contact with other animals such as rodents and especially rabbits. This is zoonotic and a potential biological warfare agent. Dogs are relatively resistant to tularemia. Cats show depression, fever, anorexia, general lymphadenopathy, and oral ulceration. Humans have three forms of the disease, ulceroglandular, pneumonic, and typhoidal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are the 2 best drugs to give for Giardia?

A

fenbendazole or metronidazole.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

ketoconazole in cats

A

t is hepatotoxic and causes vomiting and diarrhea in cats. Ketoconazole is an azole antifungal. It is effective against Cryptococcus, but it causes severe GI upset and anorexia, particularly in cats. It is also hepatotoxic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

how to dx Strongyloides stercoralis

A

Baermann fecal technique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

there is a basal cell tumor on a cat, it showed malignant behavior on histology. Are you worried ?

A

Basal cell tumors are common in older cats and greater than 90% display benign behavior, even when histologically malignant with a high mitotic rate.

If the tumor is diagnosed by cytology or histopathology without surgical removal, many veterinarians will recommend monitoring without surgical removal although these masses can ulcerate or get fairly large.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

the most common skin tumor in the cat (about 20% of all feline skin tumors). These tumors are usually hairless, dome-shaped, raised masses as described. They are most frequently found on the head, neck, and shoulders. They are almost always benign although histologically, they may have aggressive characteristics.

A

basal cell tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

cervical ventroflexion, which is a general sign of weakness. The most common cause for this presentation is hypokalemia/hyperkalemia

A

hypokalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

1) Hyperadrenocorticism commonly occurs in DKA of cats, but not in dogs. (T/F)
2) Pancreatitis and bacterial infections commonly occur in DKA dogs and cats (T/F). 3)Cardiac disease can be a common concurrent disease in a dog with DKA (T/F). 4)Hyperthyroidism commonly occurs in DKA cats, but not dogs.( T/F)

A

Hyperadrenocorticism commonly occurs in DKA of dogs, but not in cats. Pancreatitis and bacterial infections commonly occur in DKA dogs and cats. Cardiac disease can be a common concurrent disease in a cat with DKA. Hyperthyroidism commonly occurs in DKA cats, but not dogs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

symptoms and tx for Toxoplasma G.

A

The most common symptoms are lethargy, decreased appetite, and fever. The disease can cause diarrhea, upper respiratory symptoms, inflammation of the eyes, and neurologic disease. The treatment for this infection is the antibiotic Clindamycin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Cats with taurine deficiency can develop feline (eye thing) in addition to (heart thing)

A

Cats with taurine deficiency can develop feline central retinal degeneration (FCRD) in addition to cardiomyopathy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Demodex gatoi (looks like and lives in) Demodex cati (looks like and lives in) Demodex gatoi is considered contagious to other cats and causes pruritus.

A

Demodex gatoi is the more short and stubby mite which lives superficially and Demodex cati is the long slender mite which lives in the hair follicles. Demodex gatoi is considered contagious to other cats and causes pruritus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

tx for tylenol toxicity

A

The specific antidote is acetylcysteine which binds to some of the reactive metabolites of acetaminophen and increases the availability and synthesis of glutathione. Other treatments may include S-Adenosylmethionine (SAMe) which has hepatoprotective and antioxidant properties.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The normal gestational period in cats is __ days after impregnation.

Ultrasound can be used to confirm pregnancy as early as __ days.

A developing fetus can usually be palpated by day ___.

Fetal skeletons are radiographically detectable at around ___days. An enlarged uterus may be visible radiographically as early as day _____.

A

The normal gestational period in cats is 63 days after impregnation.

Ultrasound can be used to confirm pregnancy as early as 13 days.

A developing fetus can usually be palpated by day 21-28.

Fetal skeletons are radiographically detectable at around 42 days (range 36-45 days). An enlarged uterus may be visible radiographically as early as day 25-35.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
drugs and their most toxic reactions 
Vincristine
 Potassium bromide
 Diazepam
 Meloxicam
A

Vincristine- paralytic ileus, axonal swelling and paranodal demyelination

Potassium bromide- pneumonitis

Diazepam- fulminant hepatic necrosis

Meloxicam- acute renal failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Disruption of the medial collateral ligament will lead to increased _____ give of the tarsal joint and a greater joint opening noted on the ____ aspect. The reverse would be observed with a disruption of the lateral collateral ligament. The long digital extensor and the superficial digital flexor tendon do not play a role in stabilizing the tarsal joint.

A

Disruption of the medial collateral ligament will lead to increased lateral give of the tarsal joint and a greater joint opening noted on the medial aspect. The reverse would be observed with a disruption of the lateral collateral ligament. The long digital extensor and the superficial digital flexor tendon do not play a role in stabilizing the tarsal joint.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Nitroglycerin, oxygen, spironolactone, and furosemide are indicated for all cats with HCM

A

NO !!! Nitroglycerin, oxygen, spironolactone, and furosemide are indicated for cats with heart FAILURE from HCM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which feline breeds are most likely to have type B blood?

A

British Shorthair, Devon Rex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is his prognosis after amputation alone due to OS?

A

12 months or more. In comparison, dogs with appendicular osteosarcoma have a median survival time of approximately 3-4 months with amputation alone. Metastasis to the lungs in dogs is usually the reason for death.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Feline mammary hyperplasia, or fibroadenomatous hyperplasia, is a benign, often
drastic enlargement of the mammary glands typically seen in younger cats. This
syndrome classically has a rapid onset and is seen in pregnant and
non-pregnant, unspayed females.In cycling females, this condition is caused by hormonal stimulation from a
functional ovary producing __________.

A

In cycling females, this condition is caused by hormonal stimulation from a
functional ovary producing progesterone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The best treatments for Giardia (2)

A

The best treatments for Giardia are either fenbendazole or metronidazole.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Demodex gatoi is considered contagious to other cats and causes pruritus. T/F

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Atipamezole reverses _____; xylazine is reversed by ______. Flumazenil reverses _____

A

medetomidine; yohimbine; benzodiazepines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The main treatment of non-suppurative cholangiohepatitis is _____ since it is most often immune in origin. ______ is often used for its immunomodulatory, hepatoprotectant, and antifibrotic effects. It helps with the flow of bile through the liver. Other helpful therapies include S-adenosylmethionine (SAMe) and Vitamin E.

A

The main treatment of non-suppurative cholangiohepatitis is prednisolone since it is most often immune in origin. Ursodiol is often used for its immunomodulatory, hepatoprotectant, and antifibrotic effects. It helps with the flow of bile through the liver. Other helpful therapies include S-adenosylmethionine (SAMe) and Vitamin E.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Amyloid deposition is a cause for DM in ___ but does not change the effectiveness of insulin therapy. DM in ____ is not caused by amyloid deposition.
(cat vs dog)

A

Amyloid deposition is a cause for DM in cats but does not change the effectiveness of insulin therapy. DM in dogs is not caused by amyloid deposition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Gnathostoma lifecycle and clinical signs

A

Eggs passed in the feces are not infectious unless first ingested by copepods so proper disposal of feces prevents transmission to other animals.

Adult worms live in the mucosa of the stomach and cause gastritis. They can also create nodules in the stomach which can ulcerate and lead to severe peritonitis. Human cases of gnathostoma usually occur from ingestion of undercooked fish or other animals and can cause gastritis or peritonitis. Larva may undergo cutaneous or neural migration (rare).

It is thought that albendazole is an effective tx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what should cats eat during pancreatitis tx?

A

regular commercial diet. There is no need for low protein or low fat

33
Q

what is the most common side effect or propofol and what can it cause in cats with repeated use ?

A

apnea is the most common side effect, it can cause Heinz bodies

34
Q

Acromegaly is caused by excessive growth hormone release from the pars distalis from a tumor in the pituitary gland. Excessive growth hormone causes a defect in the insulin receptors on target cells causing insulin resistant diabetes mellitus. The enlarged head, paws, abdominal organs, and weight gain are due to the anabolic effects of the growth hormone. What is the most effective tx?

A

The most effective way to treat a pituitary tumor in veterinary medicine is with external beam radiation.

35
Q

list 3 common reasons for a hyperthyroid cat to have T4 value in the normal range

A

1) Euthyroid sick syndrome occurs when concurrent illness causes T4 to decrease from being high down into the normal range, or from the normal range to below normal. 2) Fluctuations of T4 down into the normal range can occur early on in the disease. 3) Mild disease in which there are subtle clinical signs and a T4 in the high normal range

36
Q

T/F

A large percentage of cats are seropositive for Toxoplasma gondii, but are not necessarily shedding oocysts.

A

T

37
Q

If you find Eimeria in the feces of a cat or dog you should …..

A

Do nothing. This coccidian is not parasitic in dogs and cats and no treatment is necessary for the cat. The parasite has shown up on fecal exam because it is merely passing through the digestive tract secondary to coprophagy. Eimeria are parasitic in birds, reptiles, and herbivores.

38
Q

What is the most common reason for post-anesthetic cortical blindness in cats?

A

hypoxia The visual cortex is extremely sensitive to the effects of hypoxia (poor perfusion/oxygenation) which can result in blindness.

39
Q

what organism can cause bad chemosis with no other signs ?

A

chlamydophilia felis

40
Q

Thromboembolism is a common result of HCM. It is due to thrombus formation in the static blood of the dilated _____

A

left atrium

41
Q

Taurine deficiency in cats causes what abnormality in the eye?

A

Central retinal degeneration

42
Q

tx for Cryptococcus neoformans

A

Itraconazole or fluconazole are the anti-fungals of choice for this disease.

43
Q

Tritrichomonas foetus infection in cats

  • tx
  • best way to dx
A
  • Not all infected kittens or cats will have symptoms of diarrhea
  • detected best by culture or PCR testing and can be identified on a wet mount
  • Ronidazole
44
Q

What is the most common cause of rectal prolapse in a kitten?

A

Gastrointestinal parasites

45
Q

tx options for ear mites

A
  • Milbemycin
  • Ivermectin
  • selamectin
  • moxidectin
46
Q

When light is directed into the abnormal eye, the pupil in the normal eye stays dilated. that shows a pre or post chiiasmal lesion ?

A

pre

47
Q

what test has the highest positive predictive value test for FIP? What test has the highest NPP?

A

immunofluorescence staining for coronavirus in macrophages in effusion fluid has the best PPV

Rivolta has best NPV

48
Q

clinical history of a disappearing and recurring lip ulcer is consistent with an _____, part of the eosinophilic granuloma complex. These are mostly found on the upper lip of cats. These lesions can also extend into the oral cavity and can be found at the tongue base or hard palate. Typical treatment involves high doses of corticosteroids and identifying possible underlying allergic disease.

A

indolent ulcer

49
Q

Estrus in a cat lasts about ____days. Interestrus has a range of ___ to ___ days. Cats are induced ovulators, if queen does not get pregnant a pseudopregnancy occurs and corpora lutea develops and secretes progesterone. This inhibits GnRH release from the hypothalamus and secretion of LH and FSH from the anterior pituitary, preventing return to estrus. Other clinical signs of pseudopregnancy are rare in the cat

A

7

7-21

50
Q

why is atropine contraindicated in cats with asthma ?

A

because it thickens bronchial secretions and encourages mucous plugging of the airway

51
Q

Mirtizapine can help a cat stimulate his appetite. Is this true ?

A

yes. It works by increasing norepinephrine in the system (acts as alpha-receptor agonist)

52
Q

Heart meds

1) digoxin
2) Atenolol

A

1) tx for congestive heart failure, A-fib/flutter, and supraventricular tachycardias
2) tx for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy since it allows filling before contraction. Decreases dynamic obstruction of the left ventricular outflow tract
3)

53
Q

Lymphocytic plasmacytic enteritis is consistent with _______.

A

Lymphocytic plasmacytic enteritis is consistent with inflammatory bowel disease. The main treatments of this disease include controlling the underlying cause for the disease, controlling inflammation, and controlling bacterial overgrowth when needed.

54
Q

Demodex gatoi differs from Demodex cati in that it infects the ______ and not the ______. Thus, the best test would be a _____ skin scrape.

A

Demodex gatoi differs from Demodex cati in that it infects the epithelium and not the hair follicle. Thus, the best test would be a superficial skin scrape.

55
Q

a cat got cryptococcus, you suspect this because he has swelling over the bridge of the nose and on fundic exam see some dark circular lesions in the retinas. How do you think this was transmitted ?

A

Cryptococcus is a genus of encapsulated yeast that is often associated with or found in pigeon droppings and eucalyptus trees. The spores are most often inhaled from the environment where these are present. Cats with cryptococcus will often develop a swelling over the bridge of the nose and lesions in the retinas.

56
Q

What is the maximum amount of time cats shed feline panleukopenia virus after they recover?

A

6 weeks

57
Q

The non steroidal anti-inflammatory drug, ketoprofen, should not be used in which patients?

Horses
Patients with renal impairment
Cats
Patients with hypertension

A

The correct answer is patients with renal impairment. Ketoprofen is an NSAID that is eliminated by the kidneys. It is one of the few NSAIDs that are tolerated well by cats. It can also be used in horses, and there is no contraindication of its use in patients with hypertension.

58
Q

A cat comes in to your clinic with lethargy and bradycardia. The owner mentions that the cat received an enema. What is the most likely electrolyte abnormality?

1) Hypophosphatemia, hypercalcemia
2) Hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia
3) Hypercalcemia, Hypokalemia
4) Hypocalcemia, hyperkalemia
5) Hypercalcemia

A

The correct answer is hyperphosphatemia and hypocalcemia. Some enemas are high is phosphorus which is rapidly absorbed causing hypocalcemia due to mass action and will result in the clinical signs described.

59
Q

The correct tests of choice for FIV and FeLV are ______

A

The correct answer is antibody ELISA for FIV and antigen ELISA for FeLV. FIV infection does not produce enough antigens such that it is reliably detectable.

60
Q

how to treat pyrethrin toxicity in cats

A

Affected animals should be bathed to remove remaining product. Minor clinical signs such as hypersalivation and ear twitching are usually self-limiting and do not require treatment. Control of marked tremors or seizures can be achieved with methocarbamol (Robaxin).

61
Q

Which of the following is the causative agent of Feline Infectious Anemia?

A

Mycoplasma haemofelis

62
Q

What is the most common cause of Cat Scratch Disease in humans?

Borrelia burgdorferi
Clostridium perfringens
Bartonella henselae
Bartonella quintana

A

Bartonella henselae

63
Q

You are examining the eyes of a cat and find it has no dazzle reflex, menace response and is not visual out of one of its eyes, but it does have a palpebral reflex. Where is the lesion?

A

The correct answer is CN II. The presence of a palpebral indicates normal function of CN V and VII. The dazzle reflex examines CN II separate of the visual cortex (an animal with a cortical lesion will still have a dazzle reflex). Therefore the lesion is in CN II.

64
Q

Fluoxetine (Prozac) is an _____

Clorazepate (Tranxene) and alprazolam (Xanax) are ______.

Clomipramine and amitriptyline are _____ antidepressants.

A

Fluoxetine (Prozac) is an anti-depressant and SSRI that can be used to treat cats for anxiety related disorders at a dose of 0.5 mg/kg orally once daily.

The other drugs listed are also antidepressants but are not SSRIs.

Clorazepate (Tranxene) and alprazolam (Xanax) are benzodiazepine derivatives.

Clomipramine and amitriptyline are tricyclic antidepressants. These drugs act, in part, by inhibiting serotonin-norepinephrine re-uptake but they are not selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitors.

65
Q

Side effects of clomiprimine include :

A

vomiting, constipation, decreased appetite or anorexia, dry mouth, tachycardia, arrythmia, and sedation.

66
Q

Catgut is broken down by ______ and retains tensile strength for 14-28 days. Nylon is a non-absorbable suture. Vicryl, maxon, and PDS are broken down via _____.

A

Catgut is broken down by phagocytosis and retains tensile strength for 14-28 days. Nylon is a non-absorbable suture. Vicryl, maxon, and PDS are broken down via hydrolysis.

67
Q

White cats with blue eyes are commonly born with what defect?

 Blindness
 Cauda equina syndrome
 Deafness 
 Polydactyly
 Color dilution alopecia
A

The correct answer is deafness. Congenital deafness is linked to blue eye color in white cats. It is also often associated with Dalmatians, Australian Shepherds, Boston Terriers, English Setters, and Old English Sheepdogs. Cauda equina syndrome occurs commonly in Manx cats. Blindness and color dilution alopecia are not associated with white cats with blue eyes.

68
Q

Black widow spider bite causes….

A

They make a toxin that binds to calcium channels, increasing membrane permeability and enhancing depolarization. Ascending motor paralysis and destruction of peripheral nerves endings occur. A single bite may be serious to adult humans and could kill a small animal. Clinical signs occur almost immediately with pain, due in part to the release of acetylcholine, which stimulates contraction of major muscle groups. There may be ascending motor paralysis, muscle spasms, muscle rigidity, and salivation. Death from respiratory or cardiovascular failure is possible.

69
Q

Mousie, a 3-year old FS DLH, has been vomiting once daily for the past week. Clinically, she otherwise acts normally. Bloodwork and radiographs are within normal limits. The owners have seen chunks of hair in her vomit. She is currently on no medications and is eating Fancy Feast. Which of the following would you recommend?

 Metoclopramide
 Maropitant 
 Lactulose
 Laxatone 
 Prednisolone
A

This young long-haired cat is apparently having a hairball problem. Frequent brushing, a higher quality diet, and a hairball treatment such as Laxatone (petroleum/mineral oil gel) should be recommended for this cat.

Lactulose is a stool softener often used to help with constipation.

Metoclopramide is an anti-emetic and promotility agent and may be beneficial for hairballs if a high quality diet and laxatone fail to correct the problem.

Maropitant (Cerenia) is a central and peripheral acting anti-emetic approved for the use in dogs.

70
Q

What is the most common cause of exocrine pancreatic insufficiency in the cat?

A

The correct answer is chronic pancreatitis. This is the case in cats, in contrast to dogs, which develop EPI from pancreatic acinar atrophy.

71
Q

The non steroidal anti-inflammatory drug, ketoprofen, should not be used in which patients?

Patients with hypertension
Patients with renal impairment
Horses
Cats

A

The correct answer is patients with renal impairment. Ketoprofen is an NSAID that is eliminated by the kidneys. It is one of the few NSAIDs that are tolerated well by cats. It can also be used in horses, and there is no contraindication of its use in patients with hypertension.

72
Q

acute cholangiohepatitis

A

This condition is usually seen in younger cats (mean age 3-3.5 years) and is more common in males than females. This is in contrast to chronic cholangiohepatitis which occurs in older cats (mean age 9 years). Acute cholangiohepatitis patients are more likely to be depressed, dehydrated and febrile.

Bloodwork in cholangiohepatitis often shows a neutrophilia with or without a left shift. Mild increases in bilirubin and ALP are common, often with more severe elevations of ALT. ultrasound guided liver biopsy. Histopathology indicates fibrosis associated with portal triads, bile duct proliferation, and centrilobular accumulation of bile with casts in canalicular areas.
Treatment of choice includes abx with aerobic and anaerobic coverage that are excreted unchanged in the bile (tetracyclines, ampicillin, amoxicillin, erythromycin, chloramphenicol, and metronidazole)

With treatment, it is thought that the response of acute and chronic cholangiohepatitis cases is similar with about half of animals dying or being euthanized within 90 days and half of them having prolonged survival.

73
Q

Which of these is an appropriate treatment for an animal showing signs of strychnine toxicity?

 Methocarbamol 
 Vitamin K1
 Atropine
 2-Pralidoxime
 4-Methylpyrazole
A

The correct answer is methocarbamol. Strychnine is found is some snail baits and other poisons. Strychnine competitively antagonizes the action of glycine and causes a loss of impulse control in the spinal cord and brainstem. Clinical signs can begin suddenly and progress from anxiety to tetanic convulsions spontaneously or in response to stimuli. The poison affects all striated muscles. There is no specific antidote, so treatment is symptomatic. Convulsions can be controlled with anesthetic drugs and/or methocarbamol. Stimulation should be prevented.

74
Q

Which of the following is not a common sequela of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy in cats?

Systolic anterior motion of the mitral valve
Right heart failure
Left heart failure
Thromboembolism

A

The correct answer is right heart failure. HCM in cats usually only affects the left heart. Thromboemboli occur due to stasis of blood in the dilated left atrium. Left heart failure occurs as the left ventricle becomes stiffer, and blood backs up into the pulmonary vasculature. Systolic anterior motion of the mitral valve occurs when the anterior leaflet of the mitral valve blocks the left ventricular outflow tract during systole due to thickening of the ventricle wall and displacement of the valve leaflet.

75
Q

You have a cat that needs to stay on inhalation anesthesia and remain recumbent following a major surgery. What pulmonary complication is likely to occur from prolonged recumbency and anesthesia in this patient?

Atelectasis
Pulmonary mineralization
Pulmonary contusions
Lobar consolidation

A

The correct answer is atelectasis. Atelectasis or the incomplete expansion of a lung due to loss of air from alveoli is a common complication of prolonged recumbency and inhalation anesthesia. Lobar consolidation differs from atelectasis in that it refers to filling of airways with fluid. This occurs usually in inflammation. Pulmonary mineralization occurs from inflammation, infection, or neoplasia in the lung parenchyma. Pulmonary contusions are usually from trauma. The other main cause of atelectasis is decreased pulmonary surfactant in newborns or in ARDS or near drownings. Incidentally, another good answer to this question would be aspiration pneumonia.

76
Q

Taurine deficiency in cats causes what abnormality in the eye?

 Anterior uveitis
 Sudden acquired retinal degeneration
 Progressive retinal atrophy
 Central retinal degeneration 
 Glaucoma
A

The answer is central retinal degeneration. Cats with taurine deficiency can develop feline central retinal degeneration (FCRD) in addition to cardiomyopathy. This is because photoreceptors contain large amounts of taurine, and cats cannot synthesize it. The classic lesion is an elliptical area of tapetal hyperreflectivity starting in the area centralis dorsolateral to the optic disk that progresses to a horizontal band and eventually can involve the entire fundus.

77
Q

Separations of the mandibular symphysis are seen commonly with “high-rise syndrome” or when cats fall from heights because they frequently are able to rotate in mid-air, landing on all 4 feet to break the fall but often also landing with their lower jaw hitting the ground at the same time. This is sometimes referred to as a symphyseal fracture but it is not a true fracture as the mandibular symphysis never fully ossifies or fuses.

The standard treatment is circummandibular cerclage wire placed caudal to the lower canine teeth with the wire tightened once the hemi-mandibles are aligned. Symphyseal separations typically take ____ weeks to heal.

A

6

78
Q

A 4-year old male castrated domestic short haired cat presents for dysuria and pollakiuria. Physical exam and diagnostic tests suggest the cat has feline lower urinary tract disease with no evidence of crystalluria or urolithiasis. One week later, the FLUTD resolves and you discharge the cat to go home. What should you tell the owner?

  • FLUTD is likely to recur again in the future
  • There are no surgical treatment options for the cat if he becomes obstructed again in the future
  • FLUTD predisposes cats to formation of cystic calculi
  • FLUTD is unlikely to recur in the future
A

The correct answer is FLUTD is likely to recur again in the future. FLUTD, also known as FUS (feline urologic syndrome), is a group of clinical signs that occur with lower urinary tract obstruction. There are multiple possible etiologies including urolithiasis, mucous plugs, bacterial infection, etc. After treating the patient, the owner should be notified that the obstruction can recur, particularly if the cat is stressed. Cystic calculi may be a cause for FLUTD, but the animal is not predisposed to their formation because of the FLUTD. Surgical treatment for animals that obstruct repeatedly involves a urethrostomy.

79
Q

What is the drug of choice for a Chlamydophila felis infection?

 Tetracyclines 
 Fluoroquinolones
 Aminoglycosides
 Penicillins
 Macrolides
A

The correct answer is tetracyclines. Tetracyclines are the drugs of choice, specifically doxycycline. Doxycycline is less likely to cause permanent discoloration of the teeth as compared to other tetracyclines. Doxycycline will also be effective against Bordetella and Mycoplasma.