other food animal

Question 1

Several kids are noted to be extremely lame and febrile. On physical exam you palpate markedly swollen joints. There are no adults noted to be lame or show any similar clinical signs. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer 1

Mycoplasma mycoides ssp. mycoides. Sometimes pneumonia is also a prominent part of the syndrome. Age of onset is usually at 2-4 weeks, and treatment is controversial because some animals may remain carriers following treatment. Prognosis for a complete recovery is guarded, and animals may become carriers. Thus, culling of all affected and test positive animals is recommended in some circumstances, depending on herd size and owner`s wishes. The disease is contagious and usually introduced by a mammary carrier, which is subclinical. This agent can also cause mastitis in does.

Question 2

How to dx lungworms (Muellerius capillarus) in goats

Answer 2

Baermann examination of feces

Question 3

Mycoplasma gallisepticum. What are the clinical signs in hens?

Answer 3

Swollen infraorbital sinuses. You aspirate one of these facial lesions with a syringe and needle and find that the swellings contain clear, serous-to-mucoid fluid.

Question 4

Many young (<9 months) rams in a herd develop swelling and edema around the head and neck. You diagnose bighead (Clostridium novyi Type A). What is the treatment?

Answer 4

Wound debridement and penicillin

Question 5

typical appearance and diagnosis of avian tuberculosis in chickens

Answer 5

on necropsy, you find multiple solid-to-soft crumbly, gray nodules that range in size from less than 1 millimeter to several centimeters in size deeply embedded and throughout several organs and tissues including the liver, spleen, and intestines. There are several strains or serovars that can cause disease. Large numbers of acid-fast bacteria provide a tentative diagnosis.

Question 6

What is scrapie (what species does it effect, clinical signs)

Answer 6

Scrapie is an afebrile neurologic disease of sheep that is a chronic, progressive, degenerative neurologic disease. It is one of the transmissible encephalopathies caused by a prion. Clinical signs depend on the regions of the brain that are affected but usually include behavior changes including aggressiveness, failure to herd, unsteady gait, floppy ears, self-mutilation (pruritus), and in end stages, blindness, seizures, and an inability to swallow.

Question 7

Cyanide toxicity causes blood to look….

Answer 7

strinkingly bright red due to block of cellular respiration and oxidative transport. As a result Hb canno release O2 to tissues

Question 8

what is Knemidocoptes mutans

Answer 8

scaley leg mite of poultry. It causes hyperkeratosis, leading to crusting lesions of the skin. It is treated with ivermectin or moxidectin.

Question 9

goats with cerebrocortical necrosis (polioencephalomalacia) should be treated with

Answer 9

thiamine (B1) injections and convulsions can be controlled with diazepam or pheno

Question 10

what is the difference between these things?

1) cash flow statement
2) net book value
3) profit and loss statement
4) balance sheet

Answer 10

1) cash flow is all the income and where its coming from
2) net worth of the place
3) income and expenses over a period of time
4) report of financial condition at a point in time

Question 11

rain root in horse and strawberry footrot in sheep are caused by the same organism. It leaves “railroad tracks” of cocci bacteria

Answer 11

Dermatophilus congolensis

Question 12

what organism in sheep and goats causes malignant edema or “big head” where spores enter through fighting wounds and causes head and neck edema?

Answer 12

clostridium novyi

Question 13

what is sour crop aka thrush aka candidiasis in chickens ?

Answer 13

It is common for chickens to develop Candida albicans infections after use of antibiotics. Lesions consist of thickened mucosa and whitish raised circular ulcers that can be seen in the mouth, crop, or esophagus. This can be treated with copper sulfate in the water or nystatin in feed.

Question 14

You have diagnosed Leptospira pomona as a reason for abortion in a pig farm. What do you do?

Answer 14

-Cull replacement gilts (parity segregation farm) and vaccinate sows on main farm

Question 15

T/F

1) inguinal hernias in pigs is heritable.
2) Both inguinal and umbilical hernias occur commonly in pigs
3) Inguinal hernias occur more commonly in males than females, particularly after castration. They can be unilateral or bilateral and occur more commonly on the left side.
4) Umbilical hernias occur in both sexes but are slightly more common in females.

Answer 15

1) inguinal hernias in pigs is heritable.
2) Both inguinal and umbilical hernias occur commonly in pigs
3) Inguinal hernias occur more commonly in males than females, particularly after castration. They can be unilateral or bilateral and occur more commonly on the left side. 4)Umbilical hernias occur in both sexes but are slightly more common in females.

Question 16

What do Marek’s disease (MD) and infectious laryngotracheitis (IT) have in common?

Answer 16

Both MD and IT are caused by herpesviruses

Question 17

Several animals of a herd of silage fed goats are showing signs of circling, dysphagia, and unilateral dropped lip. On your examination, you also note a lack of a menace and palpebral reflex unilaterally in several of these animals. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Rabies
Polioencephalomalacia
Brain abscess
Listeriosis

Answer 17

The correct answer is listeriosis. The key to answering this question is the unilateral nature of the clinical signs. Because Listeria infection is caused by an ascending infection, usually of the trigeminal nerve, the signs are frequently unilateral. The other big hint was that the animals were fed silage. Listeria is a common inhabitant of spoiled silage because it thrives in a microaerophilic, low pH environment.

Question 18

A nine-month old La Mancha goat was noticed to be losing weight over the last week. The owner brought the goat in from pasture and fed the goat 2 pounds of grain mix twice daily along with free choice of hay and alfalfa. Last night, the goat was seen staggering and bumping into things. Vaccinations are current and no other goats appear to be affected. On physical exam, the goat was found to be blind, with an intact pupillary light reflex. The goat was also opisthotonic, hypertonic, hyperreflexic, and tetraplegic. Where is the lesion?

C1-C6
Cerebellum
Brain stem
Cerebrum

Answer 18

The correct answer is cerebrum. The history and clinical signs described are compatible with grain overload, which will result in polioencephalomalacia. This disease will cause destruction of the gray matter in the cerebrum.

Question 19

Extension of an infection from the respiratory tract to the middle ear can occur when an infectious agent travels through the ________.

Answer 19

The correct answer is eustachian tube. This tube connects the pharynx and the inner ear.

Question 20

sheep can get something called “boils” after shearing. What organism causes it ?

Answer 20

caseous lymphadenitis (also commonly called boils) which is caused by Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis. This organism is highly contagious and commonly transmitted at shearing when nicks and cuts occur. When you lance these abscesses, make sure to keep the area very clean and decontaminate everything to avoid spreading the disease. 
The rancher should also consider vaccination against caseous lymphadenitis.

Question 21

What is the causative agent of blue eye in swine?

Answer 21

The correct answer is blue eye paramyxovirus or rubulavirus.

Question 22

Which infectious agent causes the clinical presentation of pigs most similar to Haemophilus parasuis (Glasser’s disease)?

Fusobacterium necrophorum
Streptococcus suis
Mycoplasma hyosynoviae
Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

Answer 22

The correct answer is Streptococcus suis. Streptococcus suis and H. parasuis both cause polyarthritis, polyserositis, fever, and pneumonia in young piglets up to several weeks of age. Both can cause fibrinopurulent inflammation as well as meningitis and convulsions.

Question 23

most common neoplasia of intact female rabbits and signs associated with it

Answer 23

uterine adenocarcinoma. anorexia, weight loss, hematuria, milk production, anorexia, depression, dysuria

Question 24

Hematuria must be distinguished from porphyrinuria, which is _______

Answer 24

Hematuria must be distinguished from porphyrinuria, which is a normal red or orange pigment in the urine of some rabbits.

Question 25

drug withdrawal times 
Amprolium 
Sulfaquinoxoline ]
Sulfadimethoxine 
Nicarbazin 
Robenidine

Answer 25

Amprolium has zero withdrawal time

Sulfaquinoxoline has a 10 day withdrawal time

Sulfadimethoxine has a 5 day withdrawal period

Nicarbazin has a 4 day withdrawal

Robenidine has a 5 day withdrawal period

Question 26

Fusobacterium necrophorum commonly contributes to which of the following diseases in young pigs?

 Hepatic abscesses
 Pleuropneumonia
 Necrotic rhinitis 
 Gastroenteritis
 Metritis

Answer 26

The correct answer is necrotic rhinitis. Fusobacterium necrophorum is a gram negative anaerobe that causes hepatic abscesses in cows, gastroenteritis in ruminants, foot rot in pigs and ruminants, and metritis in cows. Pleuropneumonia in pigs is caused by Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae. Necrotic rhinitis is a sporadic disease of young pigs in which they undergo necrosis of the snout when F. necrophorum enters a wound in the nasal or oral mucosa.

Question 27

After introducing a group of new sheep to his flock, a farmer calls you out because many of his sheep have developed severe lameness. You examine the animals and find a malodorous exudate and partial separation of the horn of the hoof from the skin. You stain the exudate and find gram negative barbell shaped rods. What is the agent responsible ?

Dermatophilus congolensis
Staphylococcus aureus
Foot-and-mouth disease
Dichelobacter nodosus

Answer 27

Dichelobacter nodosus is the cause of infectious footrot in sheep. Lesions are typically as described in this case and often occur after introduction of a new animal or moving to an infected pasture. If you were unable to determine the answer from the description of the lesions, of the answer choices, Dichelobacter is the only gram negative bacteria.

Question 28

A group of swine have pyrexia, inappetence, dyspnea, swollen painful joints and lameness. You have tentatively diagnosed Glasser`s Disease caused by Haemophilus parasuis. Which of the following treatments should you use?

 Chloramphenicol
 Metronidazole
 Penicillin 
 Ceftiofur 
 Furazolidone

Answer 28

The organism is usually susceptible to ampicillin, ceftiofur, enrofloxacin, florphenicol, spectinomycin, tetracyclines, tiamulin, tilmicosin, and potentiated sulfas. Today, many strains of Haemophilus parasuis are resistant to penicillin (penicillin used to be the drug of choice) and all other choices are not permitted for use in food animals in the USA.

Question 29

Which of the following diseases in chickens carries the best prognosis for recovery?

Infectious coryza
Infectious laryngotracheitis
Avian influenza
Infectious bursal disease

Answer 29

The correct answer is infectious coryza. Because infectious coryza is caused by a bacteria, it can be effectively treated in many cases with antibiotics, whereas the other diseases listed are viral and carry significantly higher morbidity and mortality with no specific treatment available.

Question 30

What hemagglutinin types of avian influenza virus are reportable to state and federal authorities, as well as to the World Health Organization, and can result in international importation bans on poultry products?

 H5, H10
 H5, H9
 H5, H7 
 H1, H5 
 H3, H9

Answer 30

This is mandated through the World Organization for Animal Health (OIE) and the USDA. Infections in poultry caused by any influenza A virus of the H5 or H7 subtype or other subtypes meeting specific requirements for high virulence (i.e., severity of disease defined by pathogenicity index or amino acid sequence in the hemagglutinin receptor protein) are reportable.

Question 31

Most veterinary practices now accept credit cards as a convenience to their clients. Approximately what percentage of revenue collected by credit card is lost by the practice due to fees paid to the credit card company?

Answer 31

3%

Question 32

What is the most common source of Campylobacter infection in humans?

Contaminated water sources
Undercooked pork
Undercooked beef
Undercooked chicken

Answer 32

The correct answer is undercooked chicken. Campylobacter spp. can be isolated in 98% of raw chicken meat so undercooked chicken has a high likelihood of infecting people who ingest it. Raw milk is another common cause of infection.

Question 33

Which of these is an appropriate treatment for an animal showing signs of strychnine toxicity?

 2-Pralidoxime
 Methocarbamol 
 4-Methylpyrazole
 Atropine
 Vitamin K1

Answer 33

The correct answer is methocarbamol (muscle relaxer). Strychnine is found is some snail baits and other poisons. Strychnine competitively antagonizes the action of glycine and causes a loss of impulse control in the spinal cord and brainstem. Clinical signs can begin suddenly and progress from anxiety to tetanic convulsions spontaneously or in response to stimuli. The poison affects all striated muscles. There is no specific antidote, so treatment is symptomatic. Convulsions can be controlled with anesthetic drugs and/or methocarbamol. Stimulation should be prevented.

Question 34

An adult sheep presents with clinical signs of shaking its head, rubbing its nose, and stomping its feet. It has mucopurulent nasal discharge, stridor, and is sneezing. What insect is most likely responsible for this sheep’s signs?

 Tabanus
 Melophagus ovinus
 Oestrus ovis 
 Culicoides
 Simulium

Answer 34

The correct answer is Oestrus ovis. This fly deposits larvae in the nostrils of the sheep using its ovipositor. The larvae migrate up the nasal passage into the dorsal turbinates and sinuses where they develop for weeks before coming out. Excessive infestations result in clinical signs and may elicit a hypersensitivity reaction.

Question 35

What is the estrous cycle length in a pig ?

Answer 35

21days

Question 36

Several pigs have died at a farm. Clinical signs included star gazing, blindness, seizures, ataxia, nystagmus, and head pressing. Histologic examination of the brain demonstrates perivascular infiltration of eosinophils. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Rabies
Salt poisoning
Vitamin A deficiency
Salmonella

Answer 36

The correct answer is salt poisoning. In pigs, observation of perivascular infiltration of eosinophils in the brain is a reliable indicator of salt poisoning. Additionally, the clinical signs are consistent with this diagnosis. Salmonella would not have produced the same histologic lesions, and you would expect diarrhea. Rabies is always on the differential list, but the histologic findings are not consistent with rabies. Do you recall the diagnostic lesion for rabies? Yes, it’s negri bodies. Vitamin A deficiency does not cause perivascular eosinophilic infiltration either.

Question 37

Which of the following infections is not a differential for lameness in a young pig?

 Haemophilus parasuis
 Mycoplasma hyorhinis
 Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae 
 Brachyspira hyodysenteriae
 Streptococcus suis

Answer 37

The correct answer is Brachyspira hyodysenteriae (formerly known as Serpulina hyodysenteriae). B. hyodysenteriae is the agent for swine dysentery in pigs. It can cause mucohemorrhagic diarrhea from the age of 3 weeks to adulthood if previously unexposed. The other listed infectious agents are common causes for arthritis in young pigs.

Question 38

Which dermatophyte is most commonly associated with ringworm in the domestic pig?

Microsporum canis
Microsporum nanum
Trichophyton mentagrophytes
Trichophyton equinum

Answer 38

The correct answer is Microsporum nanum which primarily affects pigs. T verrucosum can also be found in pigs. M. canis and M. gypseum most commonly affect dogs and cats. T. mentagrophytes and T verrucosum affect cattle and most commonly goats.

Question 39

Young turkeys on a large new farm are showing stunting, poor feathering, and short thick bowed legs. Histologically they have chondrodysplasia. The most likely cause of this is_______?

 Magnesium deficiency 
 Choline deficiency 
 Selenium deficiency
 Vitamin E deficiency
 Copper deficiency

Answer 39

This occurs in both chicks and young turkeys, but turkeys have a particularly high choline requirement. The clinical signs described should lead you to suspect this deficiency

Question 40

It is winter, and you are called to examine a herd of camels that have developed a severe skin condition over the last 2 weeks. The farmer noticed that the camels were losing hair around their head and neck and has now spread down the entire body. On exam, some areas appear swollen and there is hairloss and wrinkling of the skin. The camels are rubbing up against each other and against fences and trees due to intense pruritus. You tell the farmer that the camels most likely have which condition?

 Sarcoptic mange 
 Warbles
 Zinc deficiency
 Dermatophytosis
 Selenium deficiency

Answer 40

Infection with Sarcoptes scabiei var. cameli is most likely and is the only type of mange to infect camels. It is most common in the winter when the camels huddle together for warmth, thus increasing direct contact with each other. The mange typically starts around the head and neck and then spreads to the rest of the body.

Question 41

Which of the following is the most effective way of synchronizing lactating pigs?

Use an MGA (megestrol acetate) implant
2 shots of PGF2-alpha 11-14 days apart
Introduce a new male
Batch wean at 3-4 weeks

Answer 41

The correct answer is to batch wean the pigs in 3-4 weeks. This results in estrus 4-6 days later. As long as a pig is lactating she will not ovulate so you need to stop lactation by weaning the piglets.

PGF2-alpha is ineffective because the pig only has a small window in which the corpus luteum is mature and responsive to the PGF2-alpha. MGA implants are not really used in pigs. The Whitten effect (exposure to male pheromones) will not work if they are lactating.

Question 42

What is the most common cause of stillbirths in pigs?

Brucella suis
Hog cholera
Pseudorabies
Porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome

Answer 42

The correct answer is porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome. This enveloped RNA viral disease can result in an increase of stillbirths by greater than 20%. Clinical signs include fever, abortion, stillbirth, and mummies. There is no effective treatment. A vaccine is available for prevention.

Question 43

What causes swayback in sheep and goats?

Magnesium deficiency
Copper deficiency
Magnesium toxicity
Iron deficiency

Answer 43

The correct answer is copper deficiency. Copper deficiency can be primary (due to low copper intake) or secondary (due to high molybdenum, sulfur, iron, or other factors such as alkaline soil, high selenium, zinc, vitamin C, etc). Copper deficiency can cause a number of signs including microcytic anemia, decreased production, faded hair, heart failure, infertility, swollen joints, gastric ulcers, and diarrhea. The two diseases that are specific to copper deficiency are enzootic ataxia and swayback, which are seen in young lambs and kids and are caused by lack of myelination. Clinical signs of progressive ascending paralysis, incoordination, muscle atrophy and weakness are most common.

Question 44

You are examining a turkey flock and note that many young turkeys appear depressed and are huddling with ruffled feathers. You note mucoid, blood-stained diarrhea and perform a fecal exam and see multiple Eimeria oocysts. Which treatment recommendation would be best for this flock?

 Salinomycin in feed 
 Vaccinate all breeders
 Add copper sulfate and vinegar to water
 Add amprolium to water 
 In-ovo vaccination

Answer 44

The condition described is coccidiosis and the cause is Eimeria based on the fecal findings. There are many different Eimeria species that can infect poultry. Different species of Eimeria typically parasitize different regions of the intestine.

Coccidiosis in turkeys can be treated with Amprolium or Sulphonamides (ie Sulphaquinoxaline). Salinomycin is a coccidiostat but is toxic to turkeys, even at low doses. Ionophores such as lasalocid and monensin are coccidiostats that are used for prevention of coccidiosis in turkey growers.

Copper sulfate is sometimes used to treat fungal infections (thrush). There is a commercial vaccine available that consists of low doses of sporulated oocysts that can be given to day-old chicks. Prevention of infection by anticoccidial drugs is generally the preferred control method.

Question 45

Which drug has a different mechanism of action in treating hyperkalemia?

Sodium bicarbonate
Insulin
Calcium gluconate
Dextrose

Answer 45

Dextrose, insulin, and sodium bicarbonate infusions all drive potassium intracellularly. Calcium gluconate does nothing to lower the measurable serum potassium. Calcium gluconate is used to treat hyperkalemia by antagonizing the effects of elevated serum potassium on the myocardium. Its action is targeted at keeping the myocardial tissue normally excitable so the heart rhythm does not develop a life threatening bradycardia as seen with untreated hyperkalemia.

Question 46

Fusobacterium necrophorum commonly contributes to which of the following diseases in young pigs?

 Hepatic abscesses
 Metritis
 Pleuropneumonia
 Necrotic rhinitis
 Gastroenteritis

Answer 46

The correct answer is necrotic rhinitis. Fusobacterium necrophorum is a gram negative anaerobe that causes hepatic abscesses in cows, gastroenteritis in ruminants, foot rot in pigs and ruminants, and metritis in cows. Pleuropneumonia in pigs is caused by Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae. Necrotic rhinitis is a sporadic disease of young pigs in which they undergo necrosis of the snout when F. necrophorum enters a wound in the nasal or oral mucosa.

Question 47

What toxin can cause the congenital abnormalities of cyclopia, anophthalmos, cleft palate, and metacarpal hypoplasia if ingested by a pregnant ewe?

Fescue
Veratrum californicum
Oxytropis
Astragalus

Answer 47

The correct answer is Veratrum californicum. Also known as false hellebore or corn lily, it contains a teratogen called cyclopamine that can cause these birth defects in fetal lambs. Another plant, Veratrum viridae is called skunk cabbage and can cause the same lesions. Astragalus and oxytropis are also known as locoweeds and can cause abortions, weak lambs, or bent legs but not the abnormalities listed in this question. Fescue can influence reproductive efficiency but does not cause these congenital defects.

Question 48

Which of the following cells is the primary target for porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome (PRRS) virus infection?

Ciliary epithelium
Type I pneumocytes
Type II pneumocytes
Alveolar macrophages

Answer 48

The correct answer is alveolar macrophages. PRRS virus has a high affinity for macrophages especially those in the lung. This is part of the reason the porcine immune system is compromised when infected with PRRS making them more susceptible to other pathogens.

Question 49

Dermanyssus gallinae is known as the _______. They are nocturnal feeders and severe infestations can cause anemia and even death in severely infested animals. Management of Dermanyssus depends on effective treatment of the environment with residual insecticides. Individual animals can be treated with a variety of topical agents but long term management depends on environmental control.

Answer 49

Dermanyssus gallinae is known as the poultry red mite. They are nocturnal feeders and severe infestations can cause anemia and even death in severely infested animals. Management of Dermanyssus depends on effective treatment of the environment with residual insecticides. Individual animals can be treated with a variety of topical agents but long term management depends on environmental control.

Question 50

You examine a herd of sheep and find that many sheep have proliferative, crusting lesions of the mucocutaneous junctions of the mouth and nose. They are otherwise relatively healthy, although some of the nursing females have similar lesions on their udders. The farmer reports that many of his sheep have had these before and that it eventually just goes away. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Contagious ecthyma
Vesicular stomatitis
Bluetongue
Foot-and-mouth disease

Answer 50

The correct answer is contagious ecthyma. FMD, VSV, and bluetongue cause vesicles and ulcers rather than proliferative, crusting lesions and usually will have other systemic signs as well; also, they are unlikely to recover spontaneously. Contagious ecthyma is a zoonotic poxvirus

Question 51

malabsorption syndrome in chickens

Answer 51

also known as runting-stunting syndrome or pale-bird syndrome. It is mainly seen in 1-3 week old chickens and appears to have a complex or multifactorial etiology related to numerous enteric viruses as well as possible mycotoxins.

Key clinical signs include the poor growth and feathering in birds of the appropriate age as well as abnormal feathers and pale feet and skin. Orange intestinal contents or feces is also a common finding.

There is no treatment and daily cull of affected birds in the appropriate age range is appropriate. Improved hygiene and sanitation, good nutrition and egg selection are also important management steps to minimize the damage from this condition.

Question 52

Dry form of pox vs wet form

Answer 52

Poxviruses are large DNA viruses that induce intracytoplasmic lipophilic inclusion bodies, known as Bollinger bodies, in the epithelial cells of the integument, respiratory tract, and oral cavity. Dry pox affects the bird’s skin causing these scabby lesions on the body. The wet form affects the upper respiratory tract, causing lesions in the mouth and throat.

Question 53

After treating a chicken for cholera with penicillin, she develops a thickened, whitish, lesion in the mouth. What is your diagnosis?

Answer 53

Candidiasis

Question 54

Which of the following E. coli is associated with edema disease in swine?

F41
F5 (K99)
F18
F6 (987P)

Answer 54

The correct answer is F18. Edema disease occurs in piglets post-weaning. Post-weaning diarrhea is associated with toxin production by F18 and sometimes F4 (K88) E. coli. These enterotoxins cause systemic vasculitis leading to edema. A key point is that edema disease is a systemic condition.

Question 55

Which of the following is a method of control to prevent infection of Metastrongylus lung worms in pigs?

Prevent access to soil containing earthworms
Raise pigs strictly on soil pasture
Prevent access to soil containing snails
Supply a clean water supply

Answer 55

The correct answer is to prevent access to soil containing earthworms. Earthworms are the intermediate host often involved in transmission of Metastrongylus lungworms in pigs. Direct transmission without the intermediate host can occur as well. Clinical signs include coughing and unthriftiness. If a secondary pneumonia occurs, dyspnea and abdominal breathing or “thumps” may occur. Affected pigs that are raised on pastures are often affected with both lungworms as well as ascarids.

Question 56

When conducting a necropsy, the two key organs that are examined to make a diagnosis of histomoniasis (Blackhead) are:

 Liver and cecum
 Cecum and kidney
 Brain and liver
 Spleen and pancreas
 Lung and kidney

Answer 56

Histomoniasis causes marked inflammation and ulcerations, leading to a thickening of the cecal wall. The liver is also often affected and may appear green or tan. Cecal and liver lesions together are considered pathognomonic for this disease.

Question 57

Young turkeys on a large new farm are showing stunting, poor feathering, and short thick bowed legs. Histologically they have chondrodysplasia. The most likely cause of this is_______?

 Copper deficiency
 Selenium deficiency
 Choline deficiency 
 Magnesium deficiency
 Vitamin E deficiency

Answer 57

This occurs in both chicks and young turkeys, but turkeys have a particularly high choline requirement. The clinical signs described should lead you to suspect this deficiency.

Question 58

In 2015, a highly pathogenic avian influenza (HPAI) virus resulted in the greatest select agent catastrophe in US history, resulting in death or depopulation of 48 million poultry. What was the strain of this HPAI virus?

H1N1
H5N1
H5N2
H3N1

Answer 58

The H5N2 virus infected many turkey and layer flocks in the Midwest US.

Question 59

Which of the following agents or conditions does NOT affect the central nervous system of chicks?

 Candida albicans 
 Aspergillus fumigatus
 Salmonella arizona 
 Avian encephalomyelitis virus
 Vitamin A deficiency

Answer 59

Candida is present in the normal digestive tract of birds. Debilitation or changes in the normal gut flora can cause the fungus to invade the mucosa and produce lesions. It does not affect the central nervous system. The other diseases listed may affect the central nervous system and cause neurologic symptoms.

Question 60

What is the causative agent of blue eye in swine?

Picronavirus
Rotavirus
Paramyxovirus
Adenovirus

Answer 60

The correct answer is blue eye paramyxovirus or rubulavirus.

Question 61

Fighting among tom turkeys older than 10-12 weeks of age is a common route of transmission of which of the following diseases?

 Pasteurella multocida
 Mycoplasma synoviae
 Erysipelas rhusiopathiae
 Bordetella avium
 Avibacterium paragallinarum

Answer 61

Erysipelothrix is a common soil contaminant and can be spread into skin wounds by turkeys that are fighting.

Question 62

What swine disease is a major worldwide cause of fetal death without signs of illness in the sow, and is controlled mainly by vaccination?

 Rotavirus
 Porcine Answer
 Swine influenza
 African swine fever
 Porcine adenovirus

Answer 62

Porcine Parvovirus affects seronegative sows exposed during the first half of gestation. Affected sows may return to estrus, fail to farrow despite being anestrus, have small litters, or have a high proportion of mummies. Vaccines in the United States are inactivated.