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TEAS > Practice 5 > Flashcards

Practice 5 Flashcards

1
Q 
Which of the following chambers of the heart pumps oxygenated blood to the rest of the body?
A. Left atrium
B. Right atrium
C. Left ventricle
D. Right ventricle
A

C. The left ventricle recieves oxygenated blood from the left atrium, then pumps blood to the rest of the body.

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2
Q 
After aird is inhaled through the mouth, nose and throat, which of the following structures does it travel through?
A. alveoli
B. bronchi
C. bronchioles
D. trachea
A

D. The traches, or windpipe, is a passageway for air as it moves from the mouth, nose, and throat to the bronchi

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3
Q 
Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver?
A. digestive juice production
B. bile production
C. detoxicification
D. blood preparation
A

A. Digestive juices are produced by the pancreas.

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4
Q 
Which of the following cells are responsible for carrying oxygen?
A. leukocytes
B. thrombocytes
C. erythrocytes
D. plasma cells
A

C. Erythrocytes are red blood cells that contain hemoglobin, which is responsible for carrying oxygen within the blood cell.

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5
Q 
Oxygen is exchanged between blood and tissues at which of the following areas?
A. capillaries
B. veins
C. ventricles
D. arteries
A

A. Capillaries are very small blood vessels found where veins and arteries meet. They are the site of material exchange.

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6
Q

When exhaling, the diaphragm-
A. relaxes, reducing the space available for the lungs
B. relaxes, increasing the space available for the lungs
C. contracts, reducing the space available for the lungs
D. contracts, increasing the space available for the lungs

A

A. During exhalation, the diapraghm relaxes causing the tissue to move up into the chest cavity. This movement reduces the space available for the lungs and forces air out of the lungs.

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7
Q 
How many electrons are included in the double bond between two oxygen atoms in O2?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
A

B. The two oxygen atoms in a covalent double bond share two pairs of electrons, or four total.

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8
Q 
Which of the following is the anterior bone of the lower leg?
A. ulna
B. fibula
C. tibia
D. radius
A

C. The tibia, or shin bone, is the larger of the lower lef bones, and is located slightly to the front of the smaller fibula

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9
Q 
Which of the following regions of the brain is the active link between the endocrine and nervous system?
A. cerebellum
B. pons
C. cerebrum
D. hypothalamus
A

D. The hypothalamus links the nervous systems by regulating hormone production of the pituatary gland

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10
Q 
Which of the following joints is formed by the humerous and the ulna?
A. ball-and-socket joint
B. hinge joint
C. saddle joint
D. gliding joint
A

B. The humerous and the ulna connect at the elbow to form a hinge joint

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11
Q 
Which of the following is another name for the patella?
A. breastbone
B. kneecap
C. finger bone
D. funny bone
A

B. The patella is a thick, flat, triangular bone that covers and protects the knee joint.

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12
Q 
Which of the following is the part of a muscle that remains stationary during movement?
A. insertion
B. agonist
C. origin
D. antagonist
A

C. The origin is the fixed attachment of muscle to bone that remains in place while the insertion of the muscle moves during contraction.

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13
Q 
Which of the following is the process that produces a liquid from a gas?
A. vaporization
B. condensation
C. sublimination 
D. melting
A

B. Condensation is a phase change that occurs when gas

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14
Q 
What is the primary function of the quadriceps muscle?
A. extend the knee joint
B. flex the knee joint
C. extend the hip joint
D. flex the hip joint
A

A. The quadriceps is a large muscle located at the front of the thigh and is composed of four sections, which all work to extend the knee joint

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15
Q 
Which of the following parts of the brain is responsible for memory and language processing?
A. pons
B. cerebrum
C. cerebellum
D. medulla oblongata
A

B. The cerebral cortex is the most developed part of the human brain and is responsible for memory, language processing, and other higher brain funtions

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16
Q 
How many thoracic spinal nerves are there in the human body?
A. eight
B. nine
C. twelve
D. fourteen
A

C. There are twelve thoracic spinal nerves located in the upper body, centralized in the chest area.

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17
Q 
Which of the following is NOT a specialized sense
A. touch
B. balance
C. sight
D. hearing
A

A. The special senses are found in organs in the head region; touch sense that is found in the body region, making it a somatic sense instead of a specialized sense.

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18
Q 
In which region of the small intestine are most of the nutrients absorbed?
A. jejunum
B. ileum
C. duodenum
D. colon
A

A. The jejunum, the middle section of the small intestine, is the site of the most food absorption in the body after it is broken down in the duodenum.

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19
Q 
Which of the following macromolecules is broken down by trypsin?
A. protein
B. lipid
C. nucleic acids
D. carbohydrates
A

A. Trypsin is a digestive enzyme that breaks down protein into peptides and amino acids

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20
Q 
Which of the following supllies blood to the lower body?
A. superior vena cava
B. inferior vena cava
C. iliac artery
D. aortic arch
A

C. The iliac artery recieves blood from the aorta to supply blood to the lower body

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21
Q 
Which type of cell is responsible for the degradation of bone tissue?
A. osteoclasts
B. osteoblasts
C. osteocytes
D. lining cells
A

A. Osteoclasts break down and absorb bone tissue

22
Q 
The elements in Group 1 have \_\_\_ valence electrons and are \_\_reactive than the elements in Group 2.
A. zero; more
B. zero; less
C. one; less
D. one; more
A

D. Group 1 elements contain one valence electron. They are more reactive than Group 2 elements because they have a full valence shell when they lose their one valence electron, meaning they lose that electron very easily

23
Q 
One function of lymphocytes in the lymph nodes is to ingest invading bacteria and other harmful debris to keep our bodies healthy. Which of the following most likely carries out this process?
A. pinocytosis
B. facilitated transport
C. phagocystosis
D. exocytosis
A

C. During phagocytosis a cells actively engulfs other cells or food particles. For example, white blood cells use this process to engulf and kill invading bacteria

24
Q

Which of the following is NOT an example of the end result of a negative feedback loop?
A. release of oxytocin during childbirth
B. vasoconstruction during an incident of low blood pressure
C. stimulus of sweat glands in thermoregulation
D. insulin production and storage of glucose during digestion

A

A. The release of oxytocin during childbirth is a positive feedback loop becuase it moves the body further from homeostasis rather than toward it

25
Q

Muscle tissue will often require quick burst of energy. As a result, which of the following organelles would be most likely to be found in higher than normal amounts in muscle cells?

A

D. The mitochondria found in the cells are what power the cell and provide it with the energy it needs to carry out it’s life functions. Muscle cells need a lot of ATP in order to provide the energy needed for movement and exercise

26
Q

Consider a prokaryotic organism that typically lives in a 10 percent saline environment. Which of the following environments would cause the organism to lose mass at the greatest rate due to osmosis?
A. a solution of pure water
B. a solution of 3 percent saline concentration
C. a solution of 10 percent saline concentration
D. a solution of 20 percent saline concentration

A

D. Water will leave the cell throughout osmosis when the concentration of solute outside the cell is greater than that inside the cell. Water will leave the cell when it’s placed in a 20 percent solute solution, decreasing the mass of the cell.

27
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of the respiratory system in humans?
A. to exchange gas
B. to produce sound and speech
C. to distribute oxygen to the rest of the body
D. to remove particles from the air

A

C. The cardiovascular system distributes oxygen to the rest of the body.

28
Q 
Which of the followign elements is the most electronegative?
A. chlorine
B. iron
C. Magnesium
D. silicon
A

A. Electronegativity increases from left to right and bottom to top along the periodic table. Chlorine is higher and more to the right on the table than the other answer choices, so it is the most electronegative.

29
Q 
Which of the following choices would contain the code for making a protein?
A. mRNA
B. tRNA
C. rRNA
D. DNA polymerase
A

A. mRNA is a sequence in which each tripley codes for a particular amino acid. The sequence of triplets in the mRNA would translate into the sequence of amino acids that make up a protein.

30
Q 
Which of the salts on the solubility curve graph has the greatest solubility at 50 degrees C?
A. Na2SO4
B. NaCl
C. Ba(NO3)2
D. Na2HAsO4
A

D. The solubility for Na2HAsO4 at 50 degrees C is around 55 grams/100grams of water. This is the highest for the solutes listed on the graph

31
Q

Which of the following statements best defines a scientific model?
A. a real-world example of a theory
B. a simplification or metaphor for an observed phenonomenon
C. a proposed explanation for an observed phenononomenon
D. a statement about a fundamental aspect of the universe.

A

B. The scientific models are simplifications or metaphors for observations that allow the observations to be more easily understood

32
Q

A chemistry student is conducting an experiment in which she tests the relationship between reactant concentration and heat produced by a reaction.
In her experiment, she alters the reactant conversation and measures heat produced. Which of the following is the independent variable in this experiment?
A. reactant concentration
B. reaction rate
C. amount of heat produced by the reaction
D. product concentration

A

A. The independent variable is deliberately changed in the course of the experiment

33
Q 
Which of the following is NOT a homogenous mixture?
A. air
B. sandy water
C. brass
D. salt dissolved in water
A

B. Sandy water is not a homogenous mixture. Sand and water can be easily seperated, making it a heterogenous mixture

34
Q 
Alleles for brown eyes (B) are dominant over alleles for blue eyes (b). If two parents are both heterozygous for this gene, what is the percent chance that their offspring will have brown eyes?
A. 100
B. 75
C. 66
D. 50
A

B. The punnett square shows there is a 75 percent chance the child will have the dominant B gene, and thus have brown eyes

35
Q 
The graph shows the temperature of water as heat is added. Which of the following processes is occuring between points B and C.
A. boiling
B. melting
C. depostition
D. sublimination
A

B. Solid ice is melting into liquid water between points B and C

36
Q 
Which of the following is NOT present in an animal cell?
A. nucleus
B. mitochondria
C. cytoplasm
D. cell wall
A

D. The cell wall is the structure that gives plants their rigidity

37
Q 
Which of the following is a decomposition reaction?
A. 2NA + Cl2 -> 2NaCl
B. Zn + 2HCl -> ZnCl2 + H2
C. CH4 + 2O2 -> CO2 +2H2O
D. H2CO3 -> H2O + CO2
A

D. This is a decompostion reaction where one reaction breaks into two products

38
Q 
Which ion has the greatest number of electrons?
A. Ca 2+
B. Cl-
C. Ca+
D.P^3-
A

C. Ca2+ has nineteen electrons. All the other ions have eighteen electrons

39
Q 
Which of the following materials is the primary structural protein of the epidermis?
A. eponychium
B. collagen
C. keratin
D. cartilage
A

C. Keratin produced by keratinocytes, makes up the majority of the epidermis structure, hair, and nails

40
Q 
Damage to the parathyroid would most likely affect which of the following?
A. stress levels
B. bone density
C. secondary sex characteristics
D. circadian rhythms
A

B. The parathryoid controls calcium and phospate levels, which are maintained by producing and reabsorbing bone tissue

41
Q

Which of the following does NOT correctly match the part of the cell and its primary function?
A, mitochondria: production of ATP through oxidative phosphorylation
B. nucleus: DNA replication and trasncription
C. smooth endoplasmic reticulum: translation of mRNA into proteins
D. Golgi apparatus: packaging and transportation of proteins within and in/out of cells.

A

C. RIbosomes are the organells primarily responsible for translating mRNA into proteins,: the primary function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum is the synthesis of lipids.

42
Q 
Which of the following is the final vessel through which semen must pass before being expelled from the body?
A. ejaculatory duct
B. penile urethra
C. membranous urethra
D. vas deferens
A

B. Both urine and semen travel through the penile urethra, the longest portion of the male urethra, to be expelled through the urethral opening

43
Q 
Which of the following groups of bones are part of the axial skeleton?
A. pectoral girdle
B. rib cage
C. arms and hands
D. pelvic girdle
A

B. The rib cage, which consists of the ribs and the sternum, is part of the axial skeleton

44
Q 
Which of the following is NOT a type of white blood cell?
A. helper T-cell
B. plasma cell
C. antibody
D. phagocyte
A

C. Antibodies are proteins produced by plasma cells, a type of lymphocyte, which is a type of white blood cell

45
Q 
Which of the following initiates the breakdown of carbohydrates?
A. salivary amylase
B. stomach acid
C. bile salts
D. peristalsis
A

A. Salivary amylase in the mouth begins the breakdown of carboyhydates

46
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of the pituatary gland?
A. recieve and interpret internal and external stimuli from sensory nerves
B. release trophic hormes to trigger other glands to produce hormones
C. store hormones from the hypothalamus and release as needed
D. produce hormones and send to target cells via the bloodstream

A

A. The pituatary gland does not play a role in processing sensory information

47
Q 
Which of the following unites is most appropriate for measuring the mass of an ant?
A. meters
B. grams
C. liters
D. kilograms
A

B. The gram is the appropriate unit to measure the mass of light objects, such as ants

48
Q

Which of the following cellular processes does NOT use ATP?
A. facilitated diffusion
B. DNA replication
C. active transport through the cell membrane
D. movement of the most complex in a flagellum

A

A. Facilitated diffusion is a form of passive transport across the cell membrane and does not use energy

49
Q

Hemophilia is a hereditary genetic disorder that prevents blood from clotting correctly. The allele for hemophilia is recessive and carried on the X chromosome.
A couple has two sons, one who has hemophilia and one who does not. Which of the following is true of the parents genotypes?
A. The mother is an asymptomatic carrier of the disorder
B. The father is an asymptomatic carrier of the disorder
C. The mother does not carry the gene for this disorder
D. The father does not carry the gene for this disorder

A

A. Females have two X chromosomes, so it is possible for the recessive X-linked condition to be masked by the mother’s dominant allele. A female would have to have mutations on both X chromosomes in order to be symptomatic

50
Q 
Which of the following  is NOT a hormone- producing gland of the endocrine system?
A. prostate
B. pituatary
C. adrenal
D. thyroid
A

A. The prostate is an exocrine gland that secretes the alkaline fluid found in semen. It does not produce hormones

51
Q 
Which of the following is the division of nervous primarily responsible for regulating all involuntary and subconcious muscle functions?
A. somatic nervous system
B. autonomic nervous system
C. sympathetic nervous system
D. peripheral nervous system
A

B. The autonomic nervous system regulates involuntary functions of the heart, digestive tract, and other smooth muscles; it is further subdivided into the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems

52
Q 
A scientist discovers a new species of snail that lives in the ocean. He tested the ability of this species to handle heat by measuring its growth rate as he increased the temperature of the water. He also tested two different concentrations of salt to determine which type of marine environment the snail would be best suited for. Which of the following is the dependent variable in the experiment described above?
A. salt concentration
B. temperature
C. growth rate
D. number of snails
A

C. The growth rate is the variable that is dependent on the changes to water temperature and concentration of salt in the water

TEAS (8 decks)

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