Practice 1 Flashcards

1
Q

A person is suddenly frightened. Which of the following reactions occurs next?
A. Liver cells absorb glucose from the blood stream.
B. Blood vessels supplying skeletal muscles constrict.
C. Blood vessels supplying the intestines dilate.
D. Liver cells release glucose into the blood stream.

A

Option D is correct. Epinephrine causes liver cells to break down glycogen, which causes an increase in sugar in the blood stream.
A. Epinephrine causes liver cells to break down glycogen, which causes an increase in sugar in the blood stream, not the absorption of sugar from the blood.
B. Epinephrine causes blood vessels supplying skeletal muscles to dilate, which increases blood flow to muscle cells.
C. Epinephrine causes blood vessels supplying the intestines to constrict, restricting blood flow to the organs of the digestive system.

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2
Q

Which of the following is an example of positive feedback?
A. Oxytocin causes an increase in uterine muscle contractions, ultimately causing the posterior pituitary to release more oxytocin
B. An increase in blood glucose level causes the release of insulin, which results in the lowering of glucose levels in the blood and halting the release of insulin.
C. A drop in body temperature causes the hypothalamus to activate warming
mechanisms, which results in the increase of body temperature.
D. An increase in blood osmolarity causes the release of ADH, which causes urine to become more concentrated and osmolarity to decrease

A

Option A is correct. When a response reinforces a stimulus, causing an even greater response, positive feedback is occurring.
B. This is an example of negative feedback. The response of lower glucose levels reduces the initial stimulus and stops the pancreas from releasing insulin.
C. This is an example of negative feedback. The response of increasing body temperature reduces the initial stimulus and stops the hypothalamus from activating warming mechanisms.
D. This is an example of negative feedback. An osmolarity increase causes a response that decreases osmolarity and reduces the release of ADH.

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3
Q

Demyelinization results in which of the following?
A. Inhibited detection of a stimulus at the dendrites of a nerve cell
B. Disrupted propagation of an action potential along the axon of a nerve cell
C. Inhibited uptake of neurotransmitters at the synapse of a nerve cell
D. Disrupted ability of the Na +/ K+ pumps to depolarize a cell

A

Option B is correct. The myelin sheath, which is a lipid-based structure, insulates the axon, allowing rapid electrical conduction of the action potential down the axon. Deterioration of the myelin sheath disrupts this process.
A. The myelin sheath does not directly affect the reception of a stimulus at the dendrites.
C. The myelin sheath covers the axon and does not function in the reabsorption of neurotransmitters.
D. Na+ /K+ pumps still function even if the myelin sheath has deteriorated.

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4
Q
The nephridium in worms has a function most similar to which of the following organs in humans?
A. Liver
B. Spleen
C. Lymph nodes
D. Kidney
A

Option D is correct. Nephridia in segmented worms operate similarly to the nephron of the kidneys. Nephrons in the kidneys contain a collecting tubule that aids in urine production.
A. Liver cells make bile and help regulate blood sugar levels. They do not contain collecting tubules used to collect and concentrate filtrate.
B. The spleen functions to remove old, fragmented red blood cells and pathogens from the blood. Spleen cells do not contain collecting tubules used to collect and concentrate filtrate.
C. The lymph nodes filter out pathogens from interstitial fluid (lymph). The cells of the lymph nodes do not contain collecting tubules used to collect and concentrate filtrate.

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5
Q
Which of the following cell types is responsible for the production of soluble antibodies?
A. Cytotoxic T-cell
B. Macrophage cell
C. Helper T-cell
D. B-cell
A

Option D is correct. The production of antibodies by B-cells is part of the humoral response to antigens.
A. Cytotoxic T-cells destroy pathogens and infected cells.
B. Macrophages ingest and digest both non­-self cells and dead cells.
C. Helper T-cells help cytotoxic T-cells and other immune cells.

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6
Q
Which of the following organ systems is responsible for transporting nutrients, wastes, and other substances throughout the human body?
A.	Respiratory
B.	Immune
C.	Nervous
D.	Circulatory
A

Option D is correct. The heart pumping blood through the arteries, capillaries, and veins provides the means of transporting substances throughout the body.
A. The respiratory system exchanges gases with the outside environment, bringing oxygen in and letting carbon dioxide out.
B. The immune system protects the body from pathogens (infectious agents) using a combination of white blood cells and
antibodies.
C. The nervous system, which includes the brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves, controls the actions of other body systems.

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7
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of the human organism?
A. Autotrophic with a genome stored in DNA
B. Heterotrophic with a genome stored in DNA
C. Autotrophic with a genome stored in RNA
D. Heterotrophic with a genome stored in RNA

A

Option B is correct. Humans consume rather than manufacture nutrient molecules (heterotrophic), and human genes are encoded in DNA.
A. Humans consume rather than manufacture nutrient molecules.
C. Humans consume rather than manufacture nutrient molec ules, and human genes ar,e encoded in DNA.
D. Human genes are encoded in DNA.

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8
Q

Which of the following is the function of the lymph nodes in mammals?
A. Pump oxygen into tissue spaces.
B. Store extra glucose for emergencies.
C. Synthesize hemoglobin for erythrocytes.
D. Filter debris from intracellular spaces

A

Option D is correct. Lymph nodes filter debris, lymphocytes, and pathogens from intracellular fluid.
A. This is not a function of the lymph nodes. Oxygen diffuses to these areas from capillaries of the circulatory system.
B. This is not a function of the lymph nodes. Glucose is stored as glycogen in the liver and muscles of mammals.
C. This is not a function of the lymph nodes. Hemoglobin is synthesized in the red blood cells.

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9
Q
The bands in muscle sarcomere are formed by actin and which of the following other proteins?
A.	Myosin
B.	Dynein
C.	Keratin
D.	Laminin
A

Option A is correct. Myosin contains “heads” that contact actin and pull the actin fibers together in an ATP-dependent mechanism that causes muscles to contract.
B. Dynein is an ATP-dependent molecule that “walks” along micro tubules, causing them to move, but it is not part of the sarcomere.
C. Keratin is the fibrous protein of hair and nails and is not part of the sarcomere.
D. Laminin is a protein of the nuclear envelope and is not part of the sarcomere.

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10
Q
Which of the following structures within a human cell is responsible for recycling the materials no longer functional or needed within the cell?
A.	Ribosome
B.	Lysosome
C.	Mitochondrion
D.	Nucleolus
A

Option B is correct. Lysosomes are specialized vacuoles containing digestive enzymes.
A. The ribosome is not involved in recycling materials that are no longer functional or needed.
C. Mitochondria function in cellular respiration, facilitating the production of ATP.
D. The nucleolus functions in the assembly of ribosomes.

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11
Q

Which of the following is the correct structure and function of the cell membrane?
A. A double glycoprotein structure with embedded lipid bodies provides shape and rigidity to the cytoplasm.
B. A double layer of phosphate proteins with lipid channels allows molecules to pass from the inside to the outside of cells.
C. Nonpolar phosphate heads and polar lipid tails form a bilayer to control the transport of proteins.
D. A phospholipid bilayer with embedded proteins regulates molecules entering and leaving cytoplasm.

A

Option D is correct. The cell membrane consists of a phospholipid bilayer with polar phosphate heads, nonpolar lipid tails, and embedded proteins, which permit the movement of molecules across the membrane.
A. The double structure is not composed of glycoprotein.
B. The double layer is not composed of phosphate proteins.
C. The heads are polar and the tails are nonpolar; molecules pass through protein channels.

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12
Q
In which of the following areas does protein breakdown begin in the human body?
A.	Mouth
B.	Stomach
C.	Small intestine
D.	Large intestine
A

Option B is correct. The stomach is the first place in the digestive system in which proteinases are produced.
A. Carbohydrate digestion starts in the mouth, but protein breakdown does not.
C. Protein breakdown continues in the small intestine, but it does not start here.
D. Protein is generally digested by the time it enters the large intestine.

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13
Q
Which of the following chemical compounds prevents the lungs from collapsing?
A.	Mucus
B.	Surfactant
C.	Enzymes
D.	Buffers
A

Options B is correct. Surfactants are lipopolysaocharides that have a hydrophobic and hydrophilic layer. They keep the lungs inflated.
A. Mucin is a type of mucus produced by lung cells that absorbs water.
C. Enzymes are a catalytic protein and do not prevent the lungs from collapsing.
D. Buffers maintain acid-base balance and are not involved in lung function.

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14
Q
Which of these structures diverts food into the esophagus, and prevents it from entering the lungs?
A.	Uvula
B.	Soft palate
C.	Tonsils
D.	Epiglottis
A

Option D is correct. The epiglottis shuts off the tracheal opening, diverting food into the esophagus.
A. The uvula is found in the back of the throat and prevents food entry into the nasal passages.
B. The soft palate is found in the back of the buccal cavity. It helps in swallowing and prevents food entry into the nasal passages.
C. The tonsils are made of lymphatic tissue that does not typically interfere with food movement.

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15
Q
Which of these terms related to the respiratory system refers to the "voice box" for sound production?
A.	Pharynx
B.	Trachea
C.	Larynx
D.	Uvula
A

Option C is correct. The larynx is a cartilaginous structure containing the vocal cords, which is used to generate sound.
A. The pharynx is the muscular region at the intersection of the respiratory and digestive systems, not the voice box.
B. The trachea is the large tube containing cartilaginous rings through which air passes into and out of the lungs.
D. The uvula is a fleshy extension of the beck of the soft palate, hanging above the throat. It does not function in the production of sound.

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16
Q

Unlike skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle is highly resistant to lactate-mediated fatigue because cardiac muscle
A. uses aerobic respiration in mitochondria for energy.
B. operates with electrical energy supplied by the sinoatrial (SA) node.
C. primarily metabolizes glucose using the fermentation pathway.
D. does not need oxygen for the production of energy.

A

Option A is correct. Aerobic respiration (oxidative respiration) is almost exclusively used by the heart. The byproducts of this type of respiration are water (H2O) and carbon dioxide (CO2), not lactate .
B . The sinoatrial (SA) node, also known as the pacemaker, produces electrical impulses for heart contraction. It does not provide energy to the heart.
C. The lactose-producing fermentation pathway operates during oxygen deprivation in the skeletal muscle. It does not primarily operate in the heart.
D. The heart is highly sensitive to oxygen deprivation, and requires a steady oxygen supply for adenosine triphosphate (ATP) production by oxidative phosphorylation during aerobic respiration.

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17
Q
Which of the following arteries directly supplies oxygenated blood to the reproductive system?
A.	Common carotid artery
B.	Gonadal artery
C.	Femoral artery
D.	Subclavian artery
A

Option B is correct. The gonadal artery is the primary artery that supplies oxygenated blood to the gonads and male reproductive system. It is called the testicular artery in males and the ovarian artery in females.
A. The common carotid artery supplies oxygenated blood to the head.
C. The femoral artery supplies oxygenated blood to the lower limbs.
D. The subclavian artery supplies oxygenated blood to the upper limbs.

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18
Q
Which of the following options represents the chromosomal composition of a normal human zygote?
A.	23 chromosomes
B.	46 chromosomes
C.	69 chromosomes
D.	92 chromosomes
A

Option B is correct. The fusion of a sperm with 23 chromosomes and an egg with 23 chromosomes would result in a zygote with 46 chromosomes.
A. The unfertilized egg and the sperm each contain 23 chromosomes. This is the haploid chromosome number for a human.
C. 69 chromosomes represent the fusion of a diploid human cell with a haploid human cell. This is not the diploid chromosome number for a normal human zygote.
D. 92 chromosomes represent the fusion of
two diploid human cells. This is not the chromosome number for a normal human zygote.

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19
Q
Which of the following produces progesterone to prepare the uterus for pregnancy?
A.	Endometrium
B.	Cervix
C.	Corpus luteum
D.	Fallopian tubes
A

Option C is correct. The corpus luteum refers to the remnant of the Graafian follice. It secretes progesterone to prepare the uterus for the pregnancy.
A. The endometrium is the highly vascularized tissue of the uterine lining. It does not produce progesterone following ovulation.
B. The cervix is the external opening of the uterus and does not produce progesterone.
D. The fallopian tube carries the egg from the ovary to the uterus and does not produce progesterone.

20
Q
Which of the following cell types provides a waterproofing function for the outer layers of skin?
A.	Melanocytes
B.	Keratinocytes
C.	Merkel cells
D.	Langerhans cells
A

Option B is correct. Keratinocytes contain the protein keratin. They are produced in the epidermis and migrate upwards. The tight junctions between cells prevent water entry.
They eventually form a layer of dead cells on the skin surface, which produces a waterproofing effect.
A. Melanocytes are pigment cells found in the lowest layer of the epidermis of the skin, the basal layer. They produce melanin, a pigment that absorbs UV light. They do not provide a waterproofing function for the skin.
C. Merkel cells are integumentary cells that work as mechanoreceptors and sense touch and pressure. They do not provide a waterproofing function for the skin.
D. Langerhans are dendritic cells of the immune system and are found in the lower layers of the epidermis. They immunologically process material that enters through the skin. They do not provide a waterproofing function for the skin.

21
Q
Stores of subcutaneous fat can be found in which of the following layers of the skin in the human body?
A.	Epidermis
B.	Dermis
C.	Hypodermis
D.	Dermal papillae
A

Option C is correct. The hypodermis contains stores of subcutaneous fat as well as deeper blood vessels.
A. The epidermis contains living and dead keratinocytes, melanocytes, as well as dendritic and tactile cells. It does not contain stores of subcutaneous fat.
B. The dermis is a layer of skin that contains blood capillaries, hair shafts, nail roots, and sweat glands. It does not contain stores of subcutaneous fat.
D. Dermal papillae are wavy projections of the dermis into the epidermis that lock the two layers together. It does not contain stores of subcutaneous fat.

22
Q
Which of the following glands primarily supplies hair shafts and skin with oily secretions?
A.	Eccrine gland
B.	Apocrine gland
C.	Sebaceous gland
D.	Ceruminous gland
A

Option C is correct. Sebaceous glands produce sebum, which supplies hair shafts and skin with oily secretions.
A. Eccrine, or merocrine, glands are distributed across the surface of the skin and produce a dilute, salty sweat. They do not supply hair shafts and skin with oily secretions.
B. Apocrine glands are usually found in the groin and armpits and produce sweat and scent. These glands do not supply hair shafts and skin with oily secretions.
D. Ceruminous glands produce a waxy secretion in the ear canals. Although they produce sebum, they do not primarily supply hair shafts and external skin with oily secretions.

23
Q
Which of the following glands is the primary producer of insulin?
A.	Thyroid
B.	Adrenal
C.	Pituitary
D.	Pancreas
A

Option D is correct. The pancreas produces insulin.
A. The thyroid gland produces thyroid hormone.
B. The adrenal glands produce cortisol and stress hormones.
C. The pituitary gland secretes hormones that control other glands.

24
Q
Type I diabetes is a disease associated with which of the following hormones?
A.	Estrogen
B.	Insulin
C.	Testosterone
D.	Thyroxine
A

Option B is correct. Type I diabetes is a disease that is caused by the absence of insulin.
A. Estrogen production is affected by diseases that harm the uterus and ovaries.
C. Testosterone production is affected by diseases that harm the testes.
D. Thyroxine production is associated with goiters and diseases that affect the thyroid gland.

25
Q
Which of the following connects the kidneys to the bladder?
A.	Capillaries
B.	Ureters
C.	Urethras
D.	Arteries
A

Option B is correct. Ureters connect the kidney to the bladder.
A. Capillaries connect veins to arteries.
C. Urethras connect the bladder to the outside of the body.
D. Arteries carry blood away from the heart.

26
Q
Which of the following organs is the site of blood filtration?
A.	Kidney
B.	Heart
C.	Lung
D.	Brain
A

Option A is correct. The kidneys filter blood.
B. The heart pumps blood but does not filter it.
C. The lung oxygenates blood but does not filter it.
D. Some drugs can cross the blood-brain barrier, but it does not actually filter the blood.

27
Q
Kidneys remove which of the following from the blood?
A.	Platelets
B.	Salts
C.	Oxygen
D.	Fat
A

Option B is correct. Salts are removed by the kidneys.
A. Platelets are removed by the spleen and liver.
C. Oxygen is used in every cell in the body, not filtered by the kidneys.
D. Fat in the blood is ta ken up by cells or metabolized in the liver.

28
Q
In which part of the body do T-cells mature?
A.	Bone marrow
B.	Thymus
C.	Adrenal glands
D.	Thyroid
A

Option B is correct. The thymus is the location of maturation for T-cells.
A. T-cells are produced in the bone marrow, but they are not matured there. B-cells are matured in the bone marrow.
C. Adrenal glands produce several hormones, but they do not produce parts of the immune system.
D. The thyroid produces the thyroid hormone.

29
Q
Which of the following is classified as a flat bone?
A. Tarsal
B. Vertebrae
C. Rib
D. Humerus
A

Option C is correct. The rib is a flat bone.
A. The tarsal is a short bone.
B. The vertebrae are irregular bones.
D. The humerus is a long bone.

30
Q
Which of the following connects two bones together?
A.	Ligament
B.	Tendon
C.	Marrow
D.	Muscle
A

Option A is correct. Ligaments connect bones together.
B. Tendons connect muscle to bones.
C. Marrow is inside the bone and does not connect to other bones.
D. Muscle is not typically a connective tissue.

31
Q
Which of the following are sesamoid bones?
A.	Phalanges
B.	Patellae
C.	Scapulae
D.	Metatarsals
A

Option B is correct. Patellae are sesamoid bones, which develop in response to strain. Patellae are also considered short bones.
A. Phalanges are long bones because their length is greater than their width.
C. Scapulae are flat bones because they do not have a bone marrow cavity.
D. Metatarsals are long bones because their length is greater than their width.

32
Q

The shape of villi and microvilli facilitates which of the following?
A. Pushing food along the intestine via ciliary motion of villi
B. Creating barriers to food movement to increase digestion time
C. Decreasing surface area for absorption
D. Increasing surface area for absorption

A

Option D is correct. The folds increase the surface area, allowing more nutrients to be absorbed and delivered to the blood stream.
A. Movement of food is aided by smooth muscle contractions, not by villi projections.
B. Movement of food is aided by smooth muscle contractions, not impeded by villi projections.
C. The folds increase the surface area, allowing more nutrients to be absorbed and delivered to the blood stream.

33
Q
Ca + H2SO4 Which of the following statements correctly describes the product of the reaction
above?
A.	Calcium sulfate
B.	Hydrogen sulfide
C.	Calcium sulfide
D.	Hydrogen sulfate
A

Option A is correct. Calcium and sulfuric acid react to produce calcium sulfate and hydrogen gas.
B. Hydrogen sulfide is not produced by this reaction. Hydrogen sulfide is produced by iron sulfide reacting with hydrochloric acid.
C. Calcium sulfide is not produced by this reaction. Calcium sulfate can be reduced to calcium sulfide using carbon.
D. Hydrogen sulfate is not produced by this reaction. Hydrogen sulfate (bisulfate ion) is the conjugate base of sulfuric acid.

34
Q
Which of the following classes of biomolecules can influence the rate of specific chemical reactions within the living cell?
A.	Nucleic acids
B.	Proteins
C.	Lipids
D.	Carbohydrates
A

Option B is correct. Some proteins fold into shapes that allow them to function as biochemical catalysts or enzymes within a cell.
A. These contain genetic information for the synthesis of proteins.
C. These molecules, which repel water, function in cellular membranes and in the storage of excess energy.
D. This “sugar and starch” molecules function in energy input and storage, as weII as in some structural capacities.

35
Q
Which of the following terms describes a sample composed of particles condensed into a small space and having vibrational, but not translational, motion?
A.	Solid
B.	Liquid
C.	Gas
D.	Plasma
A

Option A is correct. Solids have little space between particles, and the particles vibrate within a fixed lattice structure.
B. Liquid particles move about in a fluid manner due to translational motion
C. Gas particles are widely separated by empty space and move about randomly due to translational movement
D. Atoms in a plasma state move so rapidly that their electrons separate from the rest of the atom; it is a fluid as a gas.

36
Q
An atom has 3 protons, 4 neutrons, and 3 electrons. Which of the following is the atom's mass number?
A.	3
B.	6
C.	7
D.	10
A

Option C is correct. The mass of an atom is the sum of protons and neutrons in its nucleus.
A. This is the atomic number of the atom, not the mass.
B. The sum of protons and electrons in an atom is not the atomic mass number,
D. The sum of protons, neutrons, and electrons is not the atomic mass number.

37
Q
Which of the following substances will dissolve in water?
A.	CH4
B.	CCl4
C.	CH3OH
D.	C8H18
A

Option C is correct. CH3OH is a polar molecule, because oxygen is highly electronegative and draws electrons towards itself. Because water molecules are polar, water acts as a solvent for polar molecules.
A. CH4 is a nonpolar molecule. Because water molecules are polar, water does not act as a solvent for nonpolar molecules.
8. CCI4 is a nonpolar molecule. Because water molecules are polar, water does not act as a solvent for nonpolar molecules.
D. Octane is a nonpolar molecule. Because water molecules are polar, water does not act as a solvent for nonpolar molecules.

38
Q
On an imaginary planet called Alpha Vega, purple eyes (F) are dominant over pink eyes (f). Which of the following combinations will produce only offspring with pink eyes?
A.	Ff x ff
B.	Ff X Ff
C.    FF x ff
D.    ff X ff
A

Option D is correct. Since there is no F, alt the offspring wilt have pink eyes.
A. Since the F is dominant, half the offspring
will have purple eyes.
8. Since the F is dominant, three quarters of the offspring will have purple eyes.
C. Since the F is dominant, all the offspring will
have purple eyes.

39
Q

A pregnant woman who is a chain smoker has just been diagnosed with lung cancer. Her biggest concern is if she has passed on the lung cancer to her child. Which of the following statements is correct regarding this situation?
A. Children do not use their lungs until they are born, so the cancer cannot pass to the child before birth.
B. The cancer could pass from mother to fetus through blood, but anticancer medications can prevent the child from developing cancer.
C. If the pregnant mother undergoes treatment for lung cancer, both she and the child can be cured.
D. The cancer will not be transmitted to the child.

A

Option D is correct. Only germline mutations are transmitted, so the lung cancer, a somatic mutation, will not be passed to the child.
A. Somatic mutations, such as lung cancer, are not passed on in this manner.
B. Somatic mutations, such as lung cancer, are not transmitted through the blood.
C. Somatic mutations, such as lung cancer, are not passed on in this manner. The child does not require treatment for lung cancer.

40
Q

In Mendelian inheritance, the dominant allele is for tall plants and the recessive allele is for short plants. Which of the following statements is correct in terms of phenotype and genotype?
A. Tt is a phenotype that gives 50% short and 50% tall genotype.
B. TT and Tt are both genotypes for the homozygous recessive phenotype.
C. TT is the dominant phenotype, and tall plants is the resulting genotype.
D. TT and Tt are both genotypes for the tall plant phenotype.

A

Option D is correct . The T allele is dominant and encodes the tall plant phenotype, and it requires only one dominant allele to express the dominant trait.
A. The use of the terms phenotype and genotype is incorrect. Phenotype refers to physical attributes and genotype refers to genetic makeup.
B. TT and Tt both code for dominant phenotypes. Phenotype refer to physical attributes and genotype refers to genetic makeup.
C. The use of the terms phenotype and genotype is incorrect. Phenotype refers to physical attributes and genotype refers to genetic makeup.

41
Q

In a well-controlled experiment, researchers show that a common topical antibiotic called chloramphenicol halts a deadly fungal growth on the skin of amphibians. Which of the following is the best inference for how the antibiotic works to limit a fungal disease?
A. The antibiotic causes a mutation in the skin tissue that makes it resistant to the fungus.
B. The antibiotic acts as a physical barrier that interferes with fungal growth.
C. The antibiotic kills a bacterial partner that is essential in the fungal infection.
D. The antibiotic activates white blood cell production in amphibians.

A

Option C is correct. If an essential bacterial partner is killed by the antibiotic, then the disease-causing potential will be reduced. This is the best inference.
A. Mutations occur in DNA, and antibiotics do not cause mutations in DNA.
B. Antibiotics work on cellular action rather than by creating a physical barrier.
D. White blood cell production is increased by infection, not by antibiotics.

42
Q
A defining characteristic of a scientific hypothesis is that it is
A.	testable.
B.	unexpected.
C.	correct.
D.	predictable.
A

Option A is correct. A testable and falsifiable hypothesis is the hallmark of scientific investigation. Experiments can only be used to accept or discard hypotheses. Only some scientific predictions are supported by evidence; other predictions are refuted by testing.
B. Unexpected experimental results lead to the formulation of new, different hypotheses.
C. However, this is not a defining principle of scientific hypo theses.
D. A scientific hypothesis will either be supported or refuted by the evidence, but it is never considered correct or incorrect.

43
Q
The use of an electron microscope would most benefit the study of
A.	the structure of atoms.
B.	the structure of cellular organelles.
C.	the structure of skeletal joints.
D.	chemical bonds in molecules.
A

Option B is correct. Electron microscopy has significantly improved the ability to see and understand the workings of these organelles because electron wavelengths are short enough to resolve the structure of organelles, which are around 100 times larger than the wavelengths of an electron.
A. Electron wavelength in electron microscopy is of the same order of magnitude as the size of an atom. This is too small to visualize because electron waves cannot resolve particles that are of the same order of magnitude.
C. The structure of skeletal joints can be effectively examined using an X-ray machine, rather than an electron microscope.
D. The bonds between atoms use electrons, which cannot be visualized with an electron microscope because they cannot resolve particles that are of the same order of magnitude.

44
Q

Which of the following observations refutes the hypothesis that characteristics acquired during the parents’ lifetime are inherited by offspring?
A. Changes in neck length in giraffe populations are due to genetic mutations.
B. Finches that live on different sources of food become unable to mate with one another after many generations.
C. Peppered moths turn from gray to white or black depending on the color of the tree bark on which they live.
D. Primates that have been taught sign language pass that ability to their offspring.

A

Option A is correct. The neck length of giraffes was once thought to be an acquired characteristic (due to stretching to reach food) that was passed on to offspring. Further study determined that mutations in DNA actually caused the increase in neck length, which was preferentially passed on to offspring through selection.
B. While this is an example of natural selection, it does not present any evidence that would dismiss the possibility that acquired characteristics can be passed on to offspring.
C. While this is an example of natural selection, it does not present any evidence that would dismiss the possibility that acquired characteristics can be passed on to offspring.
D. This observation would support, not refute, the hypothesis that acquired characteristics are passed on to offspring. Inherited aptitude is a better indicator of learning language than parental training.

45
Q

In a population that is growing, which of the following must be true?
A. Immigrants + Births = Deaths + Emigrants
B. Emigrants + Deaths > Immigrants + Births
C. Immigrants + Births > Emigrants + Deaths
D. Emigrants + Immigrants = Births + Deaths

A

Option C is correct. If immigration (people joining a population) and births are greater than emigration (people leaving a population)and deaths, then the population will grow.
A. This equation describes a stable population.
B. This equation describes a decrease in population.
D. This equation describes a stable population.

46
Q

Two researchers note that when Weeds A and B grow next to each other, the roots of Weed A stop growing when they enter the root zone of Weed B. Since activated charcoal is known to absorb organic compounds, the researchers apply activated charcoal to the soil around Weed B. They note that the roots of Weed A then grow into the root zone of Weed B. Which of the following hypotheses is being tested by the addition of activated charcoal to the soil?
A. Weed A absorbs activated charcoal, which enhances root growth for Weed A.
B. Weed B grows best in soil that contains few organic compounds.
C. Weed A is attracted to soil that contains activated charcoal.
D. Weed B produces an organic compound that inhibits root growth for Weed A.

A

Option D is correct. Since activated charcoal is known to absorb organic compounds, its use indicates that the hypothesis being tested is that Weed B produces an organic compound that inhibits root growth for Weed A.
A. This is not the hypothesis being tested.
B. This is not the hypothesis being tested .
C. This is not the hypothesis being tested.