Practice 4

Question 1

Which of the following items is NOT appropriately matched with its corresponding bodily system?

a. Kidneys; genitourinary system.
b. Heart; circulatory system.
c. Blood; endocrine system.
d. Diaphragm; respiratory system

Answer 1

C: The circulatory system circulates materials throughout the entire body. The heart, blood, and blood vessels are part of the circulatory system. The kidneys are part of the genitourinary system. The diaphragm is part of the respiratory system

Question 2

Which of the following describes the order food travels through the digestive system?

a. Trachea, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, rectum.
b. Mouth, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, rectum.
c. Stomach, large intestine, small intestine, rectum.
d. Esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, rectum.

Answer 2

D: Food enters the mouth and then is swallowed down the esophagus into the stomach, where stomach acids begin the break down process. Food then travels through the small intestine (where the pancreas, liver, and intestine release digestive juices to further break down the food), to the large intestine (where nutrients and water are absorbed, and waste is transformed from liquid to stool) and finally to the rectum.

Question 3

Which of the following structures is the natural pacemaker of the heart?

a. Sinoatrial node.
b. Submental node.
c. Atrioventricular node.
d. Scalene node.

Answer 3

A: The sinoatrial (SA) node is the natural pacemaker of the body. If the SA node is damaged or malfunctions, the impulse travels down the electrical conduction system to a group of cells further down the heart. This is called the atrioventricular node which will then take over as the pacemaker

Question 4

A patient’s heart rate is measured at 118 beats per minute (bpm). What is this condition called?

a. Tachycardia.
b. Apnea.
c. Bradycardia.
d. Tachypnea.

Answer 4

A: Tachycardia is a faster than normal heart rate at rest. A healthy adult heart normally beats 60 to 100 times a minute when a person is at rest. Apnea is the absence of respirations. Bradycardia is a slower than normal heart rate (less than 60 bpm). Tachypnea is the presence of rapid respirations.

Question 5

Which of the following items is NOT a primary function of a healthy immune system?

a. The immune system helps the body avoid infections.
b. The immune system detects infections.
c. The immune system eliminates infections.
d. The immune system creates infections

Answer 5

D: The immune system helps the body avoid, detect, and eliminate infections. A healthy immune system should not, however, create infections

Question 6

The spine and hips belong to which of the following bone types?

a. Curvy bones.
b. Irregular bones.
c. Flat bones.
d. Long bones.

Answer 6

B: The human body has 5 types of bone. The spine and hips are irregular bones because they do not fit the other major bone types, which are long, short, flat, and sesamoid. Choice A, curvy bones, does not describe one of the major bone types

Question 7

Long bones are one of the five major types of bone in the human body. All of the following bones are long bones, EXCEPT:

a. thighs.
b. forearms.
c. ankles.
d. fingers

Answer 7

C: Most bones in the limbs are long bones, including the thighs, forearms, and fingers. The ankles, however, are not long bones because they do not have a shaft that is longer than it is wide

Question 8

Which of the following is not a type of muscle tissue?

a. Skeletal.
b. Smooth.
c. Cardiac.
d. Adipose

Answer 8

D: Skeletal, smooth, and cardiac are al types of muscle tissue. Adipose tissue is fatty tissue, not a muscle

Question 9

When describing a part of the body that is in the front, which of the following anatomical location descriptors would be utilized?

a. Superior.
b. Anterior.
c. Inferior.
d. Posterior

Answer 9

B: Anterior means toward the front of the body. Posterior refers to the back side of the body. Superior refers to something that is above in relation to another element, whereas inferior refers to something that is below in relation to another element

Question 10

Which of the following statements is accurate?

a. The spine is located posteriorly, inferior to the pelvic bone.
b. The sternum is located anteriorly, superior to the pelvic bone.
c. The mandible is located superior to the nasal cavity, and inferior to the esophagus.
d. The femur is located inferior to the tibia.

Answer 10

B: The sternum is located anteriorly (in the front of the body), superior (above) the pelvic bone. The spine is located posteriorly (in the back of the body), superior, not inferior, to the pelvic bone. The mandible is located inferior to the nasal cavity, and superior to the esophagus. The femur is located superior to the tibia.

Question 11

Which of the following terms means close to the trunk of the body?

a. Superficial.
b. Sagittal.
c. Proximal.
d. Distal

Answer 11

C: Proximal means close to the trunk of the body, or torso. Superficial refers to externally located. The sagittal plane divides the body into left and right. Distal refers to something further from the torso

Question 12

Which part of the cell serves as the control center for all cell activity?

a. Nucleus.
b. Cell membrane.
c. Cytoplasm.
d. Mitochondria.

Answer 12

A: The nucleus is the control center for the cell. The cell membrane surrounds the cell and separates the cell from its environment. Cytoplasm is the thick fluid within the cell membrane that surrounds the nucleus and contains organelles. Mitochondria are often called the powerhouse of the cell because they provide energy for the cell to function

Question 13

What are the cellular functions of cilia and flagella?

a. Cilia and flagella are responsible for cell movement.
b. Cilia and flagella synthesize proteins.
c. Cilia and flagella help protect the cell from its environment.
d. Cilia and flagella have enzymes that help with digestion.

Answer 13

A: Cilia and flagella are responsible for cell movement. Ribosomes are organelles that help synthesize proteins within the cell. The cell membrane helps the cell maintain its shape and protects it from the environment. Lysosomes have digestive enzymes

Question 14

What is the process by which simple cells become highly specialized cells?

a. Cellular complication.
b. Cellular specialization.
c. Cellular differentiation.
d. Cellular modification

Answer 14

C: Cellular differentiation is the process by which simple, less specialized cells become highly specialized, complex cells. For example, humans are multicellular organisms who undergo cell differentiation numerous times. Cells begin as simple zygotes after fertilization and then differentiate to form a myriad of complex tissues and systems before birth

Question 15

How does meiosis differ from mitosis?

a. Meiosis is used to repair the body. Mitosis is used to break down the body.
b. Meiosis is used for asexual reproduction of single-celled organisms. Mitosis is used for sexual reproduction of multicellular organisms.
c. Meiosis only occurs in humans. Mitosis only occurs in plants.
d. Meiosis produces cells that are genetically different. Mitosis produces cells that are genetically identical

Answer 15

D: Meiosis produces cells that are genetically different, having half the number of chromosomes of the parent cells. Mitosis produces cells that are genetically identical; daughter cells have the exact same number of chromosomes as parent cells. Mitosis is useful for repairing the body while meiosis is useful for sexual reproduction

Question 16

Which of the following is NOT a function of the integumentary system?

a. Protects internal tissues from injury.
b. Waterproofs the body.
c. Helps regulate body temperature.
d. Returns fluid to the blood vessels.

Answer 16

D: The integumentary system (skin) protects internal tissues from injury, waterproofs the body, and helps regulate the body’s temperature. The lymphatic system, not the integumentary system, returns fluid to the blood vessels

Question 17

What are groups of cells that perform the same function called?

a. Tissues.
b. Plastids.
c. Organs.
d. Molecules.

Answer 17

A: Groups of cells that perform the same function are called tissues

Question 18

Which of the following correctly matches the tissue to its function?

a. Epithelial: movement, contraction, support and positioning.
b. Nervous: transmission and reception.
c. Muscular: support, protection, separation and connection.
d. Connective: protection, sensation, absorption, and secretion

Answer 18

B: Epithelial tissue is that found in the skin, and its function is to protect, sense, absorb and secrete. Nervous tissue transmits and receives impulses. Muscular tissue controls movement and contraction, supports the skeletal structure and controls positioning. Connective tissue supports and protects skeletal structures and organs, provides separation between organs, and connects various structures together.

Question 19

The function of the adrenal glands is to:

a. produce hormones that stimulate the thyroid, therefore influencing metabolism.
b. produce hormones that regulate the salt and water balance and control blood pressure and heart rate.
c. regulate the release of insulin in response to glucose.
d. regulate the release of oxytocin, an important hormone in reproduction and childbirth

Answer 19

B: The adrenal glands are part of the endocrine system. They sit on the kidneys and produce hormones that regulate salt and water balance and influence blood pressure and heart rate. The pituitary glands release thyroid stimulating hormones, which influence metabolism. Insulin is produced and released by the pancreas in response to glucose. The hypothalamus regulates the release of oxytocin, which serves important functions in reproduction and childbirth

Question 20

What functions do genes serve in the relationship between parents and offspring?

a. Genes enable hereditary information to be passed from parents to offspring.
b. Genes prohibit hereditary information from being passed from parents to offspring.
c. Genes enable environmental factors to affect parents and offspring.
d. Genes serve no function in the relationship between parents and offspring

Answer 20

A: Genes store hereditary information and thus allow hereditary traits to be passed from parents to offspring. Genes do not prohibit hereditary transmission, and genes are not known to enable any type of environmental factors

Question 21

Which of the following inappropriately describes hemoglobin?

a. Hemoglobin transports oxygen from the lungs to the rest of the body.
b. Hemoglobin is the ratio of red blood cells to total blood volume.
c. Hemoglobin is a type of protein found in red blood cells of all mammals.
d. Hemoglobin is the portion of the red blood cell that contains iron, to which oxygen binds

Answer 21

B: Hemoglobin is a type of protein found in the red blood cells of all mammals. It is the portion of the red blood cell that contains iron, to which oxygen binds and then is transported from the lungs to the rest of the body. Hematocrit is the ratio of red blood cells to the total blood volume.

Question 22

All of the following belong together EXCEPT:

a. thyroid.
b. stomach.
c. intestines.
d. pancreas.

Answer 22

A: The thyroid does not belong in this grouping. The pancreas, intestines, and stomach all play important roles in the digestive system. The thyroid is part of the endocrine system. It secretes hormones that help regulate the heart rate, blood pressure, body temperature, and metabolism

Question 23

What is the purpose of conducting an experiment?

a. To test a hypothesis.
b. To collect data.
c. To identify acontrol state.
d. To choose variables.

Answer 23

A: The purpose of conducting an experiment is to test a hypothesis. Answer choices b, c, and d are steps in conducting an experiment designed to test a hypothesis.

Question 24

The valve that allows blood flow from the right atria into the right ventricle is the:

a. tricuspid valve.
b. pulmonic valve.
c. mitral valve.
d. aortic valve.

Answer 24

A: The tricuspid valve allows deoxygenated blood flow from the right atria to the right ventricle. The pulmonic valve opens to allow blood flow from the right ventricle to the pulmonary system.
The mitral valve allows oxygenated blood flow from the left atria to the left ventricle. The aortic valve allows oxygenated blood flow from the left ventricle to the rest of the body

Question 25

What are substances that stimulate adaptive immunity called?

a. Peptides.
b. Phagocytes.
c. Prions.
d. Platelets.

Answer 25

B: Phagocytes are specialized white blood cells that kill pathogens and initiate an immune response. They display the ingested pathogen to the B cells or memory cells which help the body “remember” the pathogen in the future.

Question 26

Enzymes are ____ molecules that serve as _____ for certain biological reactions.

a. irrelevant; suppressors
b. acidic; catalysts
c. lipid; catalysts
d. protein; catalysts

Answer 26

D: Enzymes are protein molecules that serve as catalysts for certain biological reactions. Enzymes are not acids or lipids. Enzymes are definitely relevant for living organisms and do not suppress reactions

Question 27

Which of the following has the least number of sweat glands?

a. Back.
b. Palms.
c. Axilla.
d. Forehead

Answer 27

A: Sweat glands are distributed almost all over the human body, in varying amounts. Their primary purpose is to help the body cool off. They are primarily concentrated in the axilla and perianal area but are present in high concentrations in the forehead, palms, soles, and groin. The back and the legs have much lower concentrations of glands.

Question 28

What type of chemical bond connects the oxygen and hydrogen atoms in a molecule of water?

a. Static bond.
b. Aquatic bond.
c. Ionic bond.
d. Covalent bond

Answer 28

D: A covalent bond is one in which atoms share valence electrons. Within a water molecule, one oxygen atom and two hydrogen atoms share valence electrons to yield the H20 structure

Question 29

Which of the following statements describes a chemical property of water?

a. Water has a pH of 1.
b. A water molecule contains 2 hydrogen atoms and 1 oxygen atom.
c. A water molecule contains 2 oxygen atoms and 1 hydrogen atom
d. The chemical formula for water is HO2

Answer 29

B: A water molecule contains 2 hydrogen atoms and 1 oxygen atom. Therefore, the chemical formula for water is H20. The pH of water is 7

Question 30

Which of the following is needed for an experiment to be considered successful?

a. A reasonable hypothesis.
b. A well-written lab report.
c. Data that others can be reproduced
d. Computer-aided statistical analysis.

Answer 30

C: For an experiment to be considered successful, it must yield data that others can reproduce. Answer choice a may be considered part of a well-designed experiment. Answer choices b, and d may be considered part of an experiment that is reported on by individuals with expertise.

Question 31

An atom has 2 protons, 4 neutrons, and 2 electrons. What is the approximate atomic massof this atom?

a. 2.
b. 4.
c. 6.
d. 8.

Answer 31

C:The atomic mass of an atom is approximately equal to the number of protons plus the number of neutrons, in this case, 6. The weight of the electrons has little effect on the overall atomic mass.

Question 32

Which of the following is true regarding T cells?

a. They are only seen in those with leukemia.
b. They are a specialized type of red blood cel.
c. They mature in the thyroid.
d. They play a role in the immune response.

Answer 32

D: T cells are a specialized type of white blood cells that play an important role in the immune response of all humans. They help destroy pathogens in the body and initiate the body’s immune response to fight the infection. T cells are produced in the bone marrow, but they mature in the thymus gland

Question 33

What type of bond is formed when electrons are transferred between atoms?

a. Transfer bond.
b. Static bond.
c. Covalent bond.
d. Ionic bond

Answer 33

D: lonic bonds are formed when electrons are transferred between atoms. For instance, the sodium and chlorine atoms in salt have ionic bonds because electrons are transferred from sodium to chlorine

Question 34

What is the primary function of antibodies?

a. Production of white blood cells.
b. Initiates gluconeogenesis.
c. Promotes the intracellular storage of lipids.
d. Facilitate the breakdown of antigens

Answer 34

D: Antibodies are specialized proteins that are important to immune system efficacy. They are recruited by the immune system to identify and destroy foreign pathogens like bacteria and viruses. Each antibody has a unique target known as the antigen present on the invading organism. Once the antibody identifies its target it helps the immune system neutralize it

Question 35

Which statement below best describes the process of condensation?

a. Condensation is the process of changing from a gas to a liquid.
b. Condensation is the process of changing from a liquid to a gas.
c. Condensation is the process of changing from a solid to a liquid.
d. Condensation is the process of changing from a solid to a gas

Answer 35

A: Condensation is the process of changing from a gas to a liquid. For instance, gaseous water molecules in the air condense to form liquid rain drops. Vaporization describes changing from liquid to gas. Melting is the process of changing from solid to liquid and sublimation describes changing from solid to gas

Question 36

Which of the following lists the normal blood flow through the heart?

a. Left ventricle, left atria, body, right ventricle, right atrium, lungs.
b. Left atrium, left ventricle, lungs, right atrium, right ventricle, body.
c. Right atrium, right ventricle, lungs, left atrium, left ventricle, body.
d. Right ventricle, right atria, body, left atrium, left ventricle, lungs

Answer 36

C: The right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from the body which flows into the right ventricle. From there, the blood goes to the lungs where it becomes oxygenated. The left atrium receives oxygenated blood and pumps it to the left ventricle which distributes it to the rest of the body.

Question 37

Which of the following functions is not controlled by the autonomic nervous system?

a. Digestion.
b. Walking.
c. Heartbeat.
d. Temperature regulation

Answer 37

B: Walking is not controlled by the autonomic nervous system. The autonomic nervous system regulates involuntary body processes such as heartbeat, blood pressure, respirations, digestion, metabolism, and elimination of toxins. Walking is controlled by the somatic system which helps control skeletal muscle voluntary control

Question 38

Every child in a certain family suffers from autism. Based on this evidence, what possible conclusion can be drawn about autism?

a. Autism may be lethal.
b. Autism may be genetic.
c. Autism is related to traditional nuclear family structures.
d. No conclusion can be drawn based on this evidence.

Answer 38

B: The evidence says that every child in a certain family suffers from autism. All of these children have genetic commonalities. Therefore, autism may be genetic. The evidence does not mention whether the children died from autism. Therefore, no conclusion can be drawn that autism may be lethal. Furthermore, the sample size of the evidence is much too small to suggest that autism is related to traditional nuclear family structures.

Question 39

Women were more likely to die in childbirth in the 18” century than in the 21st century. What is a possible explanation for why women are less likely to die in childbirth in the present age?

a. Doctors are better equipped to perform cesarean sections.
b. Doctors have more tools to monitor mothers during childbirth, so complications can be detected much earlier.
c. Doctors wash their hands well to avoid transferring germs and infections.
d. All of the statements above offer reasonable explanations for decreases in mortality during childbirth.

Answer 39

D: Decreased mortality during childbirth could be explained by any or all of the statements presented. Safer cesarean sections, health monitoring tools, and hand washing could all improve a woman’s chances of surviving childbirth

Question 40

A dietitian wants to convince a patient to lose weight. Which statement below best communicates a scientific argument that justifies the need for weight loss?

a. Losing weight can lower blood pressure, increase energy level, and promote overall health.
b. Society tends to treat overweight people unfairly.
c. Members of the opposite sex are more interested in people who maintain a healthy weight.
d. Losing weight is easy to do

Answer 40

A: A scientific argument should discuss outcomes that are objective and measurable, such as blood pressure, energy level, and overall health. The other choices present arguments that are subjective and based on emotions instead of facts

Question 41

A researcher wants to investigate the relationship between family income and quality of medical care. Which statement provides the best reason to conduct this investigation?

a. The researcher can learn more about wealthy people and ask them for money.
b. The investigation can help target healthy people so that they can remain healthy.
c. Results of this investigation may identify a group ofpeople who do not receive quality medical care so that these people could receive better medical treatments.
d. There is no reason to conduct this investigation

Answer 41

]C: Conducting this investigation may reveal a group of people who need higher quality medical care. Asking wealthy people for money does not help the researcher learn more about their quality of medical care. Although helping healthy people to stay healthy is important, helping those with poor medical care is more critical.

Question 42

Which of the following best describes the primary function of Bartholin’s glands?

a. Secretes hormones that help the body respond to stress.
b. Provide lubrication for the vagina.
c. Helps control growth and development of the body.
d. Stimulate the development of T cells.

Answer 42

B: Bartholin’s glands also known as greater vestibular glands play a role in female reproduction. The Bartholin’s glands lie on either side of the vaginal opening. They produce a mucoid substance, which provides lubrication for intercourse

Question 43

Mildly elevated levels of thyroxine will do what to the heart rate?

a. Stop the heart rate.
b. No effect.
c. Decrease the heart rate.
d. Increase the heart rate

Answer 43

D: Diseases of the thyroid gland can directly alter the normal function of the heart causing symptoms and resulting in significant complications. Increased levels of thyroxine can cause tachycardia. Low levels of thyroxine can cause bradycardia. Significantly elevated levels of thyroid hormone, seen in thyroid storm, can cause atrial fibrillation and cardiac arrest

Question 44

Which nervous system controls voluntary motor movement?

a. Parasympathetic.
b. Sympathetic.
c. Autonomic.
d. Somatic.

Answer 44

D: The somatic nervous system helps control skeletal muscle voluntary control. The automatic nervous system controls involuntary functions in the body like breathing. The autonomic nervous system had two subdivisions: the sympathetic nervous system which controls “fight or flight” response, and parasympathetic nervous system which controls “rest and digest” functions

Question 45

Which of the following functions would be most affected by laryngeal damage?

a. Eating.
b. Walking.
c. Singing.
d. Hearing

Answer 45

C: The larynx also known as the voice box, contains the vocal folds that produce the sounds of speech and singing. It is a hollow, tubular structure connected to the proximal aspect of the trachea. While eating may be impacted by laryngeal damage, the damage would more directly inhibit singing

Question 46

A researcher is studying the response of bacteria to a certain chemical. In three experiments, the bacteria swim towards the chemical, and in one experiment the bacteria swim away from it. What would be the most appropriate next step for the researcher?

a. Report only the first three experiments.
b. Report all the experiments, but refrain from making any conclusions.
c. Repeat the experiment several more times and apply a statistical analysis to the data.
d. Repeat the experiment, adding a new chemical to determine its effect on the bacteria

Answer 46

C: By repeating the experiment, the researcher could determine whether the instance of the bacteria swimming away from the chemical was simply due to chance. Observing the same results would allow the researcher to make conclusions with more certainty, and statistical analysis would help determine the significance of the data. Researchers must report all data (A), and reaching a conclusion is a vital part of any experiment (B). Adding a new chemical would completely change the experiment, so it would not be helpful (D).

Question 47

How many different types of tissue are there in the human body?

a. 4.
b. 6.
c. 8.
d. 10.

Answer 47

A: There are four different types of tissue in the human body: epithelial, connective, muscle, and nerve. Epithelial tissue lines the internal and external surfaces of the body. It is like a sheet, consisting of squamous, cuboidal, and columnar cells. They can expand and contract, like on the inner lining of the bladder. Connective tissue provides the structure of the body, as well as the links between various body parts. Tendons, ligaments, cartilage, and bone are all examples of connective tissue. Muscle tissue is composed of tiny fibers, which contract to move the skeleton. There are three types of muscle tissue: smooth, cardiac, and skeletal. Nerve tissue makes up the nervous system; it is composed of nerve cells, nerve fibers, neuroglia, and dendrites.

Question 48

What is the name of the outermost layer of skin?

a. Dermis.
b. Epidermis.
c. Subcutaneous tissue.
d. Hypodermis

Answer 48

B: The epidermis is the outermost layer of skin. The thickness of this layer of skin varies over different parts of the body. For instance, the epidermis on the eyelids is very thin, while the epidermis over the soles of the feet is much thicker. The dermis lies directly beneath the epidermis. It is composed of collagen, elastic tissue, and reticular fibers. Beneath the dermis lies the subcutaneous tissue, which consists of fat, blood vessels, and nerves. The subcutaneous tissue contributes to the regulation of body temperature. The hypodermis is the layer of cells underneath the dermis; it is generally considered to be a part of the subcutaneous tissue.