Practice (1) Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following backup job types reset the archive bits of the files they back up?

Full

Incremental

Differential

Supplemental

A

Full

Incremental

Incremental and differential backup jobs both use the archive bit to determine which files have changed since the previous backup job. The files that have changed are the ones that need to be backed up. The primary difference between an incremental and a differential job is that incremental backups reset the archive bit so that unchanged files are not backed up in subsequent incremental jobs. Differential backups do not reset the archive bit. Full backups do not use the archive bit to select targets because they back up all the files. A full backup does reset the archive bit after the job is completed. There is no such thing as a supplemental backup job

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2
Q

You are a new hire at Adatum Corp., and this is your first day on the job. You are setting up your workstation, but you are unsure whether you are permitted to install your favorite software on the company’s computer. The Human Resources server has a large library of employee documents. Which of the following is a document that you might want to consult to determine whether personal software is allowed?

SLA

AUP

NDA

A

AUP

An acceptable use policy (AUP) specifies whether and how employees can use company-owned hardware and software resources. AUPs typically specify what personal work employees can perform while on the job, what hardware and software they can install, and what levels of privacy they are permitted when using company equipment. This is the document that will most likely include the information you seek. A service level agreement (SLA) is a contract between a provider and a subscriber. A nondisclosure agreement (NDA) specifies what company information employees are permitted to discuss outside the company. Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) is a policy that specifies how employees can connect their personal devices to the company network

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3
Q

You are working the help desk when a user calls and reports that she is unable to connect to the Internet. Which of the following steps would you be least likely to perform first when troubleshooting the problem?

Check the configuration of the router connecting the LAN to the Internet.

Ask the user if she can access resources on the local network.

Check to see if anyone else is experiencing the same problem.

A

Check the configuration of the router connecting the LAN to the Internet.

There are many possible causes for the problem that are more likely than a router configuration error, so this is not something you should check first. Asking if the user can access the local network attempts to isolate the problem. If she cannot, the problem could be in her computer; if she can, then the problem lies somewhere in the Internet access infrastructure. If other users are experiencing the problem, then the issue should receive a higher priority, and you will know for sure that the problem does not lie in the user’s computer. While the user’s job title might not be the first thing you check, it is a political reality that higher ranking users get preferential treatment

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4
Q

Which of the following is not a means of preventing unauthorized individuals from entering a sensitive location, such as a datacenter?

Key fobs

Motion detection

Biometric scans

A

Motion detection

Biometric scans, identification badges, and key fobs are all mechanisms that are designed to distinguish authorized from unauthorized personnel. Motion detection cannot make this distinction and is therefore not a means of preventing unauthorized access

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5
Q

You are an IT consultant who has been contracted to install new computers on a client’s Gigabit Ethernet network. You want the performance of the new computers to be as good as it can be, so you configure their network adapters to run at the full speed of 1 Gbps and to use full-duplex communication. You test the computers after installing them, and they function well. However, once the computers are in service, you begin getting complaints from the client of extremely poor network performance on the new machines. You return to the site that evening and run some ping tests, but you do not detect any problem. You call in a colleague to perform a packet analysis, and she detects large numbers of packet collisions, late collisions, cyclical redundancy check (CRC) errors, and runt frames. Which of the following could be the cause of the problem?

Damaged cables

TX/RX reversal

Duplex mismatch

A

Duplex mismatch

The problem is most likely the result of a duplex mismatch. There should be no collisions at all on a full-duplex network, so the problem is clearly related to the duplexing of the communications. A twisted pair Ethernet adapter, running in its original half-duplex mode, detects collisions by looking for data on both the transmit and receive pins at the same time. In full-duplex mode, however, data is supposed to be transmitted and received at the same time. When one side of a connection is configured to use full duplex, as the new computers are, and the other end is configured to use half duplex (as the network switches must be), the full-duplex communications on the one side look like collisions to the half-duplex side. The half-duplex adapter transmits a jam signal as a result of each collision, which causes the full-duplex side to receive an incomplete frame. Both sides then start to retransmit frames in a continuing cycle, causing network performance to diminish alarmingly. The ping tests do not detect a problem because ping transmits only a small amount of data in one direction at a time. All of the other options would likely cause the ping tests to fail. The solution to the problem is to configure the new computers to autonegotiate their speed and duplex modes

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6
Q

Which of the following is a wireless topology that does not require the use of an access point?

Star

Ad hoc

Bus

A

Ad hoc

An ad hoc topology is one in which wireless computers communicate directly with one another without the need for an access point. A wireless access point is a device with a wireless transceiver that also connects to a standard cabled network. Wireless computers communicate with the access point, which forwards their transmissions over the network cable. This is called an infrastructure topology. Star and bus topologies are not used by wireless networks; they require the computers to be physically connected to the network cable

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7
Q

You want to create a network in which computers from different departments are assigned to separate virtual local area networks (VLANs). You also want to be able to forward traffic between the VLANs so that each computer is capable of accessing any other computer. Which of the following will enable you to perform all these functions with a single device?

Load balancer

Virtual router

Multilayer switch

A

Multilayer switch

A multilayer switch is a network connectivity device that functions at both layer 2 and layer 3 of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model. At layer 2, the data link layer, the device functions like a normal switch, providing an individual collision domain to each connected node and enabling you to create multiple VLANs. At layer 3, the network layer, the device also provides routing capabilities by forwarding packets between the VLANs. Virtual routers, load balancers, and broadband routers are strictly layer 3 devices that can route traffic but cannot create VLANs

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8
Q

Which of the following are standard terms used in data loss prevention to describe specific data states? (Choose all correct answers.)

Data-on-line

Data-at-rest

Data-in-motion

Data-in-use

A

Data-at-rest

Data-in-motion

Data-in-use

Data-at-rest is a data loss prevention term that describes data that is currently in storage while not in use. Data-in-motion is the term used to describe network traffic. Data-in-use describes endpoint actions. Data-on-line is not one of the standard data loss prevention terms

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9
Q

Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) is an encryption protocol that was introduced in the IEEE 802.11 wireless network standards to replace another protocol that was found to be easily penetrated. Which of the following 802.11 wireless security protocols uses TKIP for encryption?

AES

WEP

WPA

A

WPA

Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) is the wireless security protocol that was designed to replace the increasingly vulnerable Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) protocol. WPA added an encryption protocol called Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) that was more difficult to penetrate. However, over time TKIP too became vulnerable, and WPA2 was introduced, which replaced TKIP with the Advanced Encryption Standard protocol (CCMP-AES)

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10
Q

A multifactor authentication system consists of at least two different identifying criteria, typically falling into two of the following categories: something you have, something you do, something you know, and something you are. Which of the following authentication factors is an example of something you have?

A password

A fingerprint

A smartcard

A

A smartcard

The term something you have refers to a physical possession that identifies a user, such as a smartcard. This type of authentication is nearly always used as part of a multifactor authentication procedure because it is possible for a smartcard or other physical possession to be lost or stolen. A fingerprint would be considered something you are, a password something you know, and a finger gesture something you do

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11
Q

Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) is a framework for the encapsulation of authentication messages. Used on wireless networks and point-to-point connections, EAP supports dozens of different authentication methods. Which of the following EAP variants use tunneling to provide security for the authentication process? (Choose all correct answers.)

EAP-FAST

EAP-PSK

EAP-TLS

PEAP

A

EAP-FAST

PEAP

Protected Extended Authentication Protocol (PEAP) encapsulates EAP inside a tunnel created by the Transport Layer Security (TLS) protocol. Flexible Authentication via Secure Tunneling (FAST) also establishes a TLS tunnel to protect user credential transmissions. EAP-TLS uses TLS for encryption, but not for tunneling. EAP-PSK uses a preshared key to implement an authentication process that does not use encryption

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12
Q

At a garage sale, you purchase some 802.11a wireless network adapter cards for desktop computers at a very low price. Your plan is to use them to expand your 802.11g home network. After installing one of the adapters in a computer, you attempt to connect to the network, but you can’t see the SSID in the list of available networks. You try installing a different adapter, thinking the first one might be broken, but the second one does not work either. What can you do to resolve the problem and connect the computer to your network?

Move the computer closer to the access point.

Manually enter the SSID in the computer’s wireless network client software.

Nothing. 802.11a equipment cannot connect to an 802.11g network.

A

Nothing. 802.11a equipment cannot connect to an 802.11g network.

Wireless LAN equipment built to the 802.11a standard can only use the 5 GHz frequency band. However, an 802.11g access point can only use the 2.4 GHz frequency band. Therefore, the network adapters cannot be made connect to your access point by any means

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13
Q

Parity is a fault tolerance technique used by disk storage arrays in which an additional parity bit is stored for a specified number of data bits. By using the parity information, the storage subsystem can calculate the values of bits that have been lost due to a disk failure, enabling the system to re-create the lost data. Redundant array of independent disks (RAID) is a type of storage array that sometimes uses parity to provide fault tolerance. Which of the following RAID levels provide fault tolerance by using parity data? (Choose all correct answers.)

RAID 0

RAID 1

RAID 5

RAID 6

RAID 10

A

RAID 5

RAID 6

RAID is a technology for storing data on multiple hard disk drives, providing fault tolerance, increased performance, or both. The various RAID levels provide different levels of functionality and have different hardware requirements. RAID 5 and RAID 6 both combine disk striping with distributed storage of parity information. RAID 5 enables recovery from a single disk failure. RAID 6 uses redundant parity to enable recovery from a double disk failure. RAID 1 and RAID 10 both use disk mirroring to provide fault tolerance, which does not require parity data. RAID 0 uses data striping only (blocks written to each disk in turn), which does not provide any form of fault tolerance

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14
Q

You are setting up an 802.11n wireless network using the 2.4 GHz frequency band. You plan to install three wireless access points. Which of the following channels should you use for your access points to avoid channel overlap that can result in interference? (Choose all correct answers.)

1

4

6

8

11

A

1

6

11

The 2.4 GHz band used by wireless LANs (WLANs) consists of channels that are 20 (or 22) MHz wide. However, the channels are only 5 MHz apart, so it is possible for channel overlap to occur between the access points, which can result in interference. Channels 1, 6, and 11 are the only channels that are far enough apart from each other to avoid any overlap with the adjacent channels. Channels 4 and 8 are susceptible to overlap

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15
Q

our supervisor has asked you to increase the security of the servers on your network. Which of the following procedures can be considered to be server hardening techniques? (Choose all correct answers.)

Upgrading firmware

Disabling unnecessary services

Creating privileged user accounts

Disabling unused TCP and UDP ports

A

Disabling unnecessary services

Creating privileged user accounts

Disabling unused TCP and UDP ports

Disabling services and ports that are not in use is a server hardening technique that reduces the attack surface of a server. Creating privileged user accounts that are only used for tasks that require those privileges reduces the chance that the administrative accounts will be compromised. These, therefore, are all forms of server hardening. Upgrading the UEFI or BIOS firmware on a server typically does not enhance its security, so it cannot be considered a form of server hardening

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16
Q

Which of the following are typically examples of the Internet of Things (IoT)?

A television remote control

A key fob that unlocks your car

A smartphone home automation app

A remotely monitored cardiac pacemaker

A

A smartphone home automation app

A remotely monitored cardiac pacemaker

A home automation app running on a smartphone and a remotely monitored cardiac pacemaker are both examples of IoT devices because they both have IP addresses and use the Internet to communicate with a controller or monitoring station. Key fobs that unlock cars and TV remote controls are typically short-range radio or infrared devices that do not use the Internet for their communications

17
Q

When an internal Windows user logs on to an Active Directory domain, which of the following protocols authenticates the user?

Kerberos

WPA2

RADIUS

A

Kerberos

Windows networks that use Active Directory Domain Services authenticate clients using the Kerberos protocol, in part because it never transmits passwords over the network, even in encrypted form. RADIUS is an authentication, authorization, and accounting service for remote users connecting to a network. Windows does not use it for internal clients. WPA2 is a security protocol used by wireless LANs. It is not used for AD DS authentication. EAP-TLS is a remote authentication protocol that AD DS networks do not use for internal clients

18
Q

You are installing an ADSL router for your company’s new branch office. The router has a switch module containing four Ethernet ports, all of which are assigned to the default VLAN1. When you plug a laptop into one of the Ethernet ports, you can access the Internet with no difficulties. You now need to connect the ADSL router to the company network so that the wireless access points on the network can provide users with Internet access through the ADSL router. However, when you plug the router into a network switch port that is assigned to VLAN4, the switch starts generating “Native VLAN mismatch detected” errors once every minute. Which of the following steps should be part of the solution you implement to stop the error messages from appearing? (Choose all correct answers.)

Create a VLAN1 on the network switch.

Configure the network switch port connected to the router to use VLAN1.

Create a VLAN4 on the ADSL router’s switch module.

Configure the router port connected to the network switch to use VLAN4.

A

Create a VLAN4 on the ADSL router’s switch module.

Configure the router port connected to the network switch to use VLAN4.

The solution requires you to create a VLAN on the ADSL router that matches the VLAN the network switch port is using. Therefore, you should create a VLAN4 on the router’s switch module and assign an Ethernet port to it, which will be the port you use to connect the ADSL router to the network switch. There is no need to create a VLAN1 on the network switch, because all switches already have a default VLAN called VLAN1. Modifying the VLAN assignments on the network switch is not a good idea, because it might interfere with the existing VLAN strategy in place

19
Q

Which of the following steps will not help to prevent war driving attacks from compromising your wireless network? (Choose all correct answers.)

Configure your clients and access point to use WEP security.

Configure your clients and access point to use WPA2 security

Configure your access point not to broadcast its SSID.

Configure your access point to use a longer SSID.

A

Configure your clients and access point to use WEP security.

Configure your access point to use a longer SSID.

Changing the length of the SSID will be no help in preventing a war driving attack. The SSID is just an identifier; its length has no effect on security. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) is a security protocol that has been found to have serious weaknesses that are easily exploitable. It is not a satisfactory way to avoid attacks. On the other hand, configuring the access point not to broadcast its SSID will prevent a war driving attacker from seeing the network. Configuring your equipment to use Wi-Fi Protected Access II (WPA2) security will make it difficult for a war driver who detects your network to connect to it

20
Q

You have just created a new virtual machine using remote controls provided by a cloud service provider on the Internet. You then install Windows Server 2016 on the virtual machine and configure it to function as a web server. Which of the following cloud architectures are you using when you do this? (Choose all correct answers.)

IaaS

PaaS

SaaS

Public cloud

Private cloud

Hybrid cloud

A

IaaS

Public cloud

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) provides consumers with processing, storage, and networking resources that they can use to install and run operating systems and other software of their choice. In the public cloud model, one organization functions as the provider, and another organization—in this case, you—consumes the services of the provider. Platform as a Service (PaaS) provides consumers with the ability to install applications of their choice on a server furnished by the provider. Software as a Service (SaaS) provides consumers with access to a specific application running on the provider’s servers, but the consumers have no control over the operating system, the servers, or the underlying resources. In a private cloud, the same organization that uses the cloud services is also the sole owner of the infrastructure that provides those services. A hybrid cloud is a combination of public and private infrastructure so that the consumer organization is only a partial owner of the infrastructure

21
Q

Which of the following well-known ports do you use to configure outgoing mail on a POP3 email client?

110

25

143

A

25

The default port for the Post Office Protocol (POP3) is 110, but that is used for incoming mail. The default port for the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP), which is used for outgoing mail, is 25; 143 is the default port for the Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP), a different email mailbox protocol that clients never use with POP3; and 80 is the default port for the Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP), which is not used by email clients

22
Q

You are a consultant who has been hired to extend a network by a client that is still running thin Ethernet. Which of the following cable types will you have to bring with you to add thin Ethernet network segments?

RG-8

RG-58

RJ45

A

RG-58

The cable type used for Thin Ethernet segments is a coaxial cable called RG-58. RG-8 coaxial is used exclusively on Thick Ethernet segments. RJ45 is a type of connector used in twisted pair cabling for data networks. RJ11 is a connector type used in twisted pair cabling for telecommunications networks

23
Q

Which of the following are examples of a packet-switched network connection, as opposed to a circuit-switched network connection? (Choose all correct answers.)

Two wireless computers using an ad hoc topology

A landline voice telephone call

A smartphone connecting to a cellular tower

Computers connected by a wired LAN

A

Two wireless computers using an ad hoc topology

Computers connected by a wired LAN

Wireless computers in an ad hoc topology and computers connected to a wired LAN use packet switching. Their transmissions are divided into packets that are transmitted individually and then reassembled at the destination. A circuit switched network connection requires a dedicated physical connection between the communicating devices. In a landline telephone call, a dedicated circuit is established between the two callers, which remains in place for the entire duration of the call. A smartphone connection uses cell switching