Practical 1 Lecture review (Blood and Endocrine) Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 types of cell communication?

A

Gap junctions, neurotransmitters, paracrines, hormones

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2
Q

What is the main difference between endocrine and exocrine glands?

A

Endocrine secrete into blood and exocrine secrete into ducts

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3
Q

What are the similarities and differences of the endocrine and nervous system?

A

Similarity: Some chemical messengers can be both endocrine and nervous.
Difference: Endocrine has long lasting effects and is slow to start. Nervous is fast and very specific with its target.

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4
Q

Which part of the pituitary is an outgrowth from the pharynx in the embryo?

A

Anterior pituitary comes from pharynx

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5
Q

Which part of the pituitary is nervous tissue?

A

Posterior pituitary comes from brain

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6
Q

Where are ADH and OT made?

A

ADH is made in supraoptic nuclei and OT is made in paraventricular nuclei of hypothalamus

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7
Q

What is the correct pathway of oxytocin (OT) and ADH from hypothalamus to hypophysis?

A

Hypothalamus creates OT and ADH then they are transported through the Hypothalamo-Hypophyseal tract to the posterior pituitary where they are stored until needed

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8
Q

What triggers prolactin (PRL) release from the pituitary?

A

TRH is released from the hypothalamus travels through hypophyseal portal to anterior pit to trigger release of TSH and PRL

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9
Q

What type of feedback controls oxytocin release during labor?

A

Positive feedback

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10
Q

What type of feedback controls most endocrine hormones?

A

Most hormones regulated through negative feedback

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11
Q

What hormones pass through the hypophyseal portal?

A

Stimulating or Inhibiting hormones going from the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary (CRH, TRH, GnRH, GHRH, PIH, somatostatin)

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12
Q

What is the target organ of the hypothalamic releasing and inhibiting hormones?

A

Anterior pituitary

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13
Q

What hormones do the different cells in the pancreas produce?

A

Alpha cells secrete Glucagon.
Beta cells secrete insulin.
Delta cells secrete Somatostatin.
PP cells secrete Pancreatic polypeptide.

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14
Q

What is the cause of type 1 diabetes mellitus?

A

Destruction of beta cells so lack of insulin production

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15
Q

What is the cause of type 2 diabetes mellitus?

A

Insulin insensitivity

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16
Q

What is the cause of gestational diabetes?

A

Hormones of pregnancy suppress insulin

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17
Q

What is the cause of diabetes insipidus?

A

Hyposecretion of ADH

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18
Q

How is an endemic goiter different from Grave’s disease?

A

Grave’s disease is autoantibodies causing hypersecretion of TSH.
Endemic goiter is hyposecretion of TSH from iodine deficiency.

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19
Q

Which adrenal hormone is a glucocorticoid?

A

Cortisol

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20
Q

Which adrenal hormone is a mineralocorticoid?

A

Aldosterone

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21
Q

Which zone of the cortex produces glucocorticoids?

A

Zona Fasciculata

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22
Q

What does hyposecretion mean?

A

Too little of a hormone

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23
Q

What does hypersecretion mean?

A

Too much of a hormone

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24
Q

How are hydrophilic hormones transported in the blood?

A

Transported freely/unbound in blood and their receptors are on the cell surface

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25
Q

How are hydrophobic hormones transported in the blood?

A

Require a transporter and receptors inside cell

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26
Q

What does it mean if a hormone has a permissive effect?

A

One hormone enhances target organ’s response to a second later hormone

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27
Q

What does it mean if a hormone has an antagonistic effect?

A

Hormones that have opposite effects

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28
Q

What does it mean if a hormone has a synergistic effect?

A

Hormones work together

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29
Q

What is metabolic clearance rate?

A

Rate of hormone removal from the blood measured in half life

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30
Q

What type(s) of hormones are hydrophilic?

A

Monoamines and Peptides

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31
Q

What type(s) of hormones are hydrophobic?

A

Steroids and Thyroid Hormones

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32
Q

What are the three stages of general adaptation syndrome?

A

Alarm reaction, State of resistance, State of exhaustion

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33
Q

How do SAIDs differ from NSAIDs in their ability to block pain?

A

SAIDs block release of arachidonic acid stopping all production.
NSAIDs block Cyclooxygenase stopping the production of Prostacyclin, Thromboxanes, Prostaglandins (PG)

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34
Q

What can develop if cortisol is overused as a pain reliever?

A

Cushing’s syndrome

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35
Q

What are the 3 main functions of the circulatory system?

A

transport, protect and regulate fluids

36
Q

What are the 3 major plasma proteins?

A

albumin, globulin, fibrinogen

37
Q

What are the nonprotein components of plasma?

A

dissolved gases, nitrogenous waste, nutrients, electrolytes, water

Sodium (Na) is the most abundant electrolyte.

38
Q

What is hemopoiesis?

A

production of blood, especially its formed elements RBC, WBC, platelets

39
Q

Where does hemopoiesis predominantly occur after birth?

A

Red bone marrow

40
Q

What are erythrocytes?

A

red blood cells

41
Q

What is the function of erythrocytes?

A

Transporting gases

42
Q

What is the structure of erythrocytes?

A

Doesn’t have organelles, biconcave disc shape

43
Q

What measurements are used to determine how much oxygen blood can carry?

A

hematocrit, hemoglobin concentration of whole blood, RBC count

44
Q

Why would a female have hematocrit values lower than a male?

A

women have more body fat, women menstruate, androgens like testosterone are higher in men and promote RBC formations

45
Q

What are the steps of erythropoiesis?

A

Hematopoietic stem cell → Erythrocyte colony forming unit (CFU) → Erythroblast → Reticulocyte → RBC (Erythrocytes)

46
Q

What are the nutritional needs for erythropoiesis?

A

Dietary Iron (Ferric Fe3+ & Fe2+, most important), vitamin C, folic acid, copper

47
Q

What would increase erythropoiesis?

A

Blood loss/low RBC count, high altitude, increased exercise, loss of lung tissue in emphysema

48
Q

What is erythropoietin and where is it produced?

A

hormone from kidney that changes Erythrocyte CFUs into Erythroblasts

49
Q

Where are RBC broken down?

A

spleen and liver

50
Q

What is anemia?

A

deficiency of either RBCs or hemoglobin

51
Q

What is sickle-cell disease?

A

hereditary hemoglobin defect altering RBC shape to half moon and sticky

52
Q

What is polycythemia?

A

RBC excess due to cancer of erythropoietic line in bone marrow

53
Q

What blood type could you have if a blood sample agglutinated with anti-A serum?

A

A+, A-, AB+, AB-

54
Q

What blood type could you have if a blood sample did NOT agglutinate with anti-B serum?

A

A+, A-, O+, O-

55
Q

What blood type contains anti-A antibodies?

A

type B and O

56
Q

What blood type has no antigens?

57
Q

What would happen if an A+ person received O- blood?

A

This transfusion would be fine; O RBC have no antigens

58
Q

What happens when an O- person receives blood from an O+ person?

A

Agglutination due to anti-D antibodies

59
Q

What happens when a B+ person receives plasma from an AB- person?

A

Agglutination due to anti-D antibodies

60
Q

What happens when an O- person receives plasma from an A+ person?

A

nothing because O- doesn’t have antigens

61
Q

What is hemolytic disease of the newborn?

A

Occurs with an Rh- Mother and Rh+ baby

62
Q

How do we prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn?

A

Giving mom RhoGAM prevents formation of D-antibodies

63
Q

What organelle(s) is lacking in an erythrocyte?

A

Nucleus and mitochondria

64
Q

What are the 5 leukocytes?

A

Neutrophils, Lymphocytes, Monocytes, Eosinophils, Basophils

65
Q

When are neutrophils elevated? What is their function

A

Increase in bacterial infection
Release antimicrobial chemicals

66
Q

When are lymphocytes elevated? What is function

A

with infections
Destroy cancer, and viral infected cells
Provide immune memory (memory cell lines)

67
Q

When are monocytes elevated? What is their function?

A

Increase number with infection
Become macrophages
Phagocytize pathogen and immune clearance
Antigen presenting cells (APCs)

68
Q

When are eosinophils elevated? What is their function

A

Increase with parasite infection and allergies
Phagocytize antibody complexes, allergens, inflammatory chemicals
Release enzyme to destroy parasites

69
Q

When are basophils elevated? What is their function

A

Initiate immune response
Increased with chickenpox, sinusitis, diabetes,
Secrete histamine(vasodilator) and heparin(anticoagulant)

70
Q

Which WBC is the most abundant?

A

Neutrophils

71
Q

Which WBC is the least abundant?

72
Q

What is leukemia?

A

cancer of hematopoietic tissue usually producing excessive leukocytes

73
Q

What is leukopenia?

A

leukocyte disorder characterized by low WBC count

74
Q

What is leukocytosis?

A

leukocyte disorder characterized by high WBC count

75
Q

What is hemostasis?

A

process to stop bleeding

76
Q

What are the mechanisms involved in hemostasis?

A
  1. Vascular spasm, 2. Platelet plug formation, 3. Blood clotting
77
Q

What is included in a complete blood count (CBC)?

A

Hematocrit, Hemoglobin concentration, Total count for RBCs, reticulocytes, WBCs, and platelets, Differential WBC count, RBC size and hemoglobin concentration per RBC

78
Q

What is thrombopoiesis?

A

production of platelets

79
Q

What triggers thrombopoiesis?

A

Thrombopoietin

80
Q

Which clotting pathway allows the body to take the fewest steps to stop bleeding?

A

Extrinsic mechanisms

81
Q

How are blood clots dissolved after tissue repair is complete?

A

Fibrinolysis produces plasmin to dissolve clot

82
Q

What are the mechanisms to prevent inappropriate clotting?

A
  1. Platelet repulsion, 2. Dilution, 3. Anticoagulants
83
Q

What is heparin?

A

Naturally occurring anti-coagulant

84
Q

What is hemophilia?

A

failure of blood to clot due to missing a clotting factor

85
Q

What are the coagulation disorders?

A

Thrombosis, Hemophilia

86
Q

How do we clinically prevent clots?

A

Vitamin K antagonists such as coumarin, warfarin (Coumadin)

87
Q

How do we clinically dissolve existing clots?

A

Streptokinase, Tissue plasminogen activator (TPA), Hementin