PRACTICAL 1 Flashcards

1
Q

plasma

A

55%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

erythrocytes

A

45%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

leukocytes

A

3x larger than RBC, around body tissues and in blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

granulocytes

A

neutrophils eosinophils basophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

agranulocytes

A

lymphocytes monocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

neutrophil

A

abundant multilobed nuclei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

eosinophil

A

red or pink, bilobed nuclei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

basophil

A

black granules, bilobed nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

lymphocytes

A

large/round nuclei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

monocytes

A

kidney shaped nuclei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

sickle cell anemia

A

crescent shaped RBC inherited hemoglobin B chain mutation less O2 carrying capacity, lack production of RBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

sickle cell anemia hematocrit

A

less than normal because of decreased RBC production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

polycythemia

A

RBC more packed together, overactivity of EPO or testosterone/ decrease in plasma high bp or clots from viscosity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

infectious mononucleosis

A

atypical lymphocytes with abnormal nuclei, unusual shapes of cells, cytoplasmic skirting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

polycythemia hematocrit

A

higher than normal due to overproduction of RBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

leukemia

A

unregulated overproduction of immature leukocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

myelogenous leukemia

A

bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

lymphocytic leukemia

A

lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

leukemia hematocrit

A

lower than normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

compensated blood loss hematocrit

A

lower, plasma increases because of water retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

dehydration hematocrit

A

higher, less plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

doping hematocrit

A

higher, more RBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

codominance

A

A + B antigens can be present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

hemagglutination

A

antibodies bind to 2 RBC which creates clumping can cause hemolysis and mass immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

igG antibody

A

Rh blood; antigen-antibody, crosses placenta only AFTER exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

IgM antibody

A

doesn’t cross placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

hemolytic disease

A

mother does not have Rh antibody in 1st pregnancy; develops Rh antibody during delivery from hemorrhage; second child blood gets agglutinated from Rh-AB crossing placenta leads to anemia, jaundice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

hemoglobin levels

A

men: 13-18 women: 11-16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

hematocrit levels

A

men: 47 Women: 42

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

low hematocrit and low hemoglobin

A

anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

normal hematocrit and low hemoglobin

A

anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

tunica intima

A

endothelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

tunica media

A

smooth muscle for vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

tunica externa

A

areolar connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

lumen of arteries

A

narrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

lumen of veins

A

wide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

cross section of arteries

A

circular if cut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

cross section of veins

A

collapses when cut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

wall thickness of arteries

A

thicker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

wall thickness of veins

A

thinner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

elasticity of arteries

A

very elastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

elasticity of veins

A

not elastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

valves in arteries?

A

no valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

valves in veins?

A

yes:)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

normal cardiac tissue

A

branching, striations, centrally located nuclei, intercalated discs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

myocardial infarction

A

heart attack from one of the arteries being blocked loss of striation, dead myocytes lose nuclei, blood supply disrupted, lots of leukocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

atherosclerosis

A

large deposition of lipids and debris, impairs blood flow and oxygen to myocardium leading to coronary artery disease and heart attack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

atherosclerosis path

A

lipids –> fatty streaks + fibrous tissue and muscle –> fibrous plaques + calcium + cholesterol –> restricted flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

human electrocardiogram

A

measures electrical activities of the heart from the electrodes attached to the outer surface of the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

sinoatrial node

A

pacemaker cells that propagate AP through muscle fibers of atria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

AV node

A

connection between atria and ventricular muscle, serves as backup pacemaker, slow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

lead

A

pair of electrodes; each lead detects the projection of the actual wave from a different angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

ECG

A

electrical activities recorded from a lead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

positive vector

A

+ from - to + - from + to -

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

negative vector

A

+ from + to - - from - to +

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Einthoven’s triangle set up

A

negative: right arm
ground: right leg
positive: left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

mean electrical axis

A

can indicate myocardial damage + ventricular activation changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

why does the t wave have a positive deflection?

A

repolarization process are assigned a negative charge, and the direction of repolarization is negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what is the relationship b/w ECG and start of pulse wave and maximum height of pulse?

A

start occurs during ventricular repolarization and max occurs during atrial depolarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

relationship between ECG and pulse rate

A

time is the same, starts and ends at atrial depolarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

blood flow in heart

A

blood into the vena cava, right atria, right ventricle, pulmonary arteries, pulmonary veins to left atria, left ventricle to aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

blood flow from ascending aorta

A

aortic arch brachiocephalic trunk left common carotid left subclavian artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

descending thoracic aorta

A

celiac trunk superior mesenteric artery inferior mesenteric artery right and left renal arteries common iliac arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

>100 bpm

A

tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

<60bpm

A

bradycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

ST interval above isoelectric

A

myocardial infarction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

ST interval below isoelectric

A

cardiac ischemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

No p wave, no QRS

A

V fib with A systole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

No p wave, wide irregular QRS

A

aberrant AF ventricular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

No P wave, wide regular QRS

A

ventricular rhythm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

No P wave, narrow irregular QRS

A

atrial fibrilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

no p wave, narrow regular QRS

A

atrial junctional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

abnormal P wave 300bpm

A

atrial flutter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

normal p wave, QRS never related

A

3* AV block ventricular standstill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

normal p wave, sometimes QRS related

A

2* AV block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

normal p wave, related to QRS, long PR interval

A

1* AV block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

normal p wave, related to QRS, normal PR interval

A

normal sinus rhythm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

subclavian artery

A

supplies blood to arms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

axillary artery

A

supplies blood to pectoral muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

brachial artery

A

supplies blood to arm and elbow

81
Q

common carotid

A

supplies blood to head and neck (left not in sheep)

82
Q

celiac trunk

A

supplies blood to stomach, duodenum, liver, spleen

83
Q

superior mesenteric artery

A

supplies blood to small intestine, pancreas, some large intestine

84
Q

renal arteries

A

supplies blood to kidneys for filtering

85
Q

internal iliac arteries

A

supplies blood to pelvic area

86
Q

external iliac arteries

A

supplies blood to lower limbs

87
Q

inferior mesenteric artery

A

supplies blood to large intestine

88
Q

why do the R wave and the maximum height of finger pulse not overlap?

A

the electrical signal precedes the mechanical event and then it takes time for the signal to reach the fingertip

89
Q

P wave and T wave above the baseline?

A

myocardial infarction

90
Q

what distinguishes the left & right brachiocephalic vein?

A

left is longer because crosses body to the right atrium

91
Q

what does the groove on the internal jugular vein indicate?

A

HELP

92
Q

where does the subclavian artery end & the axillary artery begin

A

armpit

93
Q

what is the vessel to the right of the ascending aorta?

A

pulmonary trunk - delivers deoxy blood to the lungs

94
Q

what are the white spots at the bifurcation of the descending aorta into the common iliacs?

A

fat deposits that suggest atherosclerosis of descending aorta

95
Q

differences in frog and human heart

A

human: 4 chambers frog: 3 human: SA and AV node frog: SV node

96
Q

trabeculae

A

muscle strands & cords, give ventricle a spongy texture, provide site of attachment for papillary muscles, reduces suction, limits blood mixing

97
Q

spiral folds

A

help guides blood flow from the atria to the systemic and pulmocutaneous arteries

98
Q

deoxy blood in frogs

A

goes to lungs and skin

99
Q

oxy blood in frogs

A

goes to brain and internal tissues

100
Q

temperature with cardiac function

A

Q10

101
Q

Q10

A

temperature coefficient measure of how much the rate of a biological process increases with temperature change of 10* usually between 2-3

102
Q

increase in ex. K+

A

depolarizes slightly, increased HR then decrease

103
Q

increase in ex. Ca2+

A

obvious increase in force, little to no inc. in HR

104
Q

sympathetic innervation

A

norepinephrine/ isuprel

105
Q

isuprel

A

increased HR + contractile force (B1AR)

106
Q

parasympathetic innervation

A

Ach

107
Q

Ach

A

decreased HR + contractile force (M2)

108
Q

atropine

A

cholinergic antagonist (prevents activation of M2)

109
Q

atropine then Ach

A

normal HR & force (plant alkaloid blocks M2)

110
Q

frank-sterling law

A

length-tension of an intact heart; with additional blood, volume stretches the muscle tissue so the heart contracts more forcefully & ejects

111
Q

why is there a delay between the atrial and ventricular contractions?

A

because the depol wave starts in the SV and first travels through the atria. then the depol is transmitted to the AV which slows spread of depol due to limited connections and small fiber diameters

112
Q

what effects do isuprel and ach have on the heart?

A

opposite; isuprel increases HR and contractile force, Ach decreases HR and contractile force

113
Q

what receptor does atropine block to increase HR?

A

M2

114
Q

digitalis

A

increases force of contraction because increases ca2+ concentrations intracellularly

115
Q

beer’s law

A

linear relationship between concentration of a solute in a sample and the absorbance of light

116
Q

absorbance =

A

e x l x c

117
Q

e

A

molar extinction coefficient

118
Q

l

A

optimal path through cuvette

119
Q

c

A

concentration of sample

120
Q

intensity equation

A

I = Io (10^-elc)

121
Q

I

A

light final intensity

122
Q

Io

A

light initial intensity (incident light)

123
Q

tense hemoglobin

A

low affinity, less receptive to O2

124
Q

relaxed hemoglobin

A

high affinity, more receptive to O2

125
Q

cooperativity

A

gives sigmoidal curve; each successive bound O2 changes conformation of subunit, making it more receptive; allows more efficient unloading and loading of O2 within the physiological range of partial pressures

126
Q

P50

A

when hemoglobin is 50% saturated with oxygen

127
Q

right shift

A

lower affinity for O2, O2 release, P50 increase

128
Q

right shift conditions

A

increase CO2 increase acidity increase DPG increase exercise increase temperature

129
Q

calculating % hemoglobin saturation

A

(A-B)/(A-C) x 100

130
Q

A

A

absorbance at deoxy

131
Q

B

A

absorbance at each pressure reduction

132
Q

C

A

absorbance at oxy

133
Q

what does a higher absorbance value mean for blood

A

the saturation of hemoglobin is increased, therefore it is more deoxygenated

134
Q

lymphatic system functions

A

maintain fluid balance participate in immune responses absorption of lipids from digestive tract

135
Q

lymphatic system circulation

A

capillaries to vessels to ducts to blood circulation at subclavian veins

136
Q

primary lymph organs

A

where immune cells are generated and mature bone marrow and thymus

137
Q

bone marrow

A

b cell maturation

138
Q

thymus

A

t cell maturation

139
Q

secondary lymph organs

A

sites where mature cells aggregate and initiate immune response spleen and lymph nodes

140
Q

thymus

A

lobules and hassall’s corpuscles

141
Q

lobules: dark outer cortex

A

developing T cells, clonal expansion

142
Q

light medulla

A

hassall’s corpuscles and epithelia that select against self-reactive T-cells

143
Q

spleen

A

largest mass of lymphoid tissue, storage site for platelets

144
Q

spleen functions

A

filters blood (removes old RBC and platelets from circulation) helps initiate immune response (reacts to blood borne antigens by producing antibodies from local b cells)

145
Q

spleen: capsule and trabeculae

A

connective tissue and smooth muscle which provide support

146
Q

spleen: red pulp

A

vascular (sinusoid capillaries), allows old blood cells to leak out; old and damaged cells are phagocytosed by macrophages

147
Q

spleen: white pulp

A

contains lymphoid aggregations, mostly lymphocytes and macrophages around arteries; lymphocytes are Th cells and AB producing B cells

148
Q

spleen: white pulp: germinal center

A

mature B cell proliferation, differentiation, AB production somatic hypermutation and isotype switching center

149
Q

antigen

A

molecule on surface of pathogens specific to that pathogen

150
Q

pathogens

A

any infectious agent the immune system recognizes as foreign to self

151
Q

bacteria

A

salmonella; can have adhesion molecule on surface or secrete exotoxins

152
Q

viruses

A

HIV, flu; glycoproteins on surface

153
Q

fungi

A

candida albicans

154
Q

parasites

A

protozoa, worms

155
Q

lymphocytes

A

T cells B cells

156
Q

T cells

A

helper T cells cytotoxic T cells

157
Q

Th (CD4)

A

secrete cytokines that regulate the functions of cells of the immune system

158
Q

Tc (CD8)

A

directly kill cells infected with viruses and tumor cells

159
Q

B cells

A

produce circulating antibodies

160
Q

antibody pathway

A
  1. infection of pathogen 2. b cells detect antigen on pathogen in lymphoid organs 3. b cells differentiate into plasma cells and produce and secrete antibodies
161
Q

indirect ELISA

A

detects antibodies made in response to pathogen uses 2* antibody conjugated to signal generating enzyme

162
Q

indirect ELISA examples

A

HIV, lyme disease, systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

163
Q

direct ELISA

A

detects antigens directly uses a 1* antibody conjugated to a signal generating enzyme

164
Q

direct ELISA examples

A

HCG pregnancy test, E.Coli, animal feeds, human stool

165
Q

hemolytic plaque assay

A

detects antibody producing plasma cells

166
Q

hemolytic plaque assay proceure

A

inject sheep red blood cells into mouse remove spleen harvest cells SRBC + complement pokes holes in membrane (upon binding to anti-sheep antibody, complement protein pokes holes to kill cells)

167
Q

complement system pathway

A

C3B protein membrane attack protein complex (MAC)

168
Q

C3B

A

allows macrophage attachment to pathogen, facilitating phagocytosis, initiates formation of MAC

169
Q

MAC

A

large pore that inserts into the membrane of the pathogen and promotes lysis by allowing cellular contents to spill out death of RBC, visible gaps/plaques in blood smear

170
Q
A

basophil

171
Q
A

neutrophil

172
Q
A

eosinophil

173
Q
A

lymphocyte

174
Q
A

monocyte

175
Q
A

sickle cell anemia

176
Q
A

infectious mononucleosis

177
Q
A

polycythemia

178
Q
A

leukemia

179
Q

1

A

right atria

180
Q

2

A

left atria

181
Q

3

A

right ventricle

182
Q

4

A

left ventricle

183
Q

5

A

aorta

184
Q

6

A

chordae tendinae

185
Q

7

A

bicuspid valve

186
Q

8

A

tricuspid valve

187
Q

9

A

septum

188
Q

10

A

pulmonary semilunar valve

189
Q

11

A

aortic valve

190
Q
A

myocardial infarction

191
Q

blood flow from the heart

A

pulmonary trunk

pulmonary arteries

aortic arch

brachiocephalic trunk

left common carotid

descending thoracic aorta

192
Q

blood flow to upper limbs

A

subclavian arteries

axillary arteries

brachial arteries

radial arteries

193
Q

abdominal blood flow

A

descending abdominal aorta

celiac trunk

superior mesenteric artery

inferior mesenteric artery

194
Q

blood flow to lower limbs

A

common iliac arteries

internal iliac, external iliac

femoral arteries

195
Q

venous return to the heart

A

internal jugular veins

brachiocephalic veins

superior and inverior vena cava

196
Q

venous return to upper limbs

A

subclavian veins

axillary veins

brachial veins

basilic veins

cephalic veins

197
Q

venous return from the abdomen

A

hepatic portain vein

hepatic veins

inferior vena cava

renal veins

198
Q

venous return from lower limbs

A

common iliac veins

internal iliac veins

external iliac veins

femoral vein

great saphenous vein