Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

FCOM > Power plant > Flashcards

Power plant Flashcards

1
Q

Aircraft fitted with:

A

– two Pratt &Whitney, PW 127 F (72-212A), E (42-500) or M (42-500/72-212A)
– two, six blades propellers (Hamilton)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

LOW PRESSURE and HIGH PRESSURE COMPRESSORS are the … type

A

Centrifugal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

LOW PRESSURE and HIGH PRESSURE TURBINES are the … type

A

Axial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

REDUCTION GEAR BOX

These equipments are fitted on the RGB:

A 
– the ACW generator
– the Propeller Valve Module (PVM)
– the propeller pump (HP) and overspeed
governor
– the auxiliary feathering pump
– the propeller brake (on RH engine only)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

ACCESSORY GEAR BOX driven by the HP spool, drives the:

A

– the DC starter/generator
– the HP fuel pump
–the engine oil pumps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The COMBUSTION CHAMBER is the … type

A

ANNULAR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

RTO (Reserve Take Off) (maximum power), used in case of an engine flame out during take off (up trim) or in case of go-around (ramp)

A
  • ATR 72-500: 2750 SHP

- ATR 42-500: 2400 SHP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

MCT (Maximum continuous)

A
  • ATR 72-500: 2500 SHP

- ATR 42-500: 2400 SHP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

TO (Take Off 0,9 RTO)

A
  • ATR 72-500: 2475 SHP

- ATR 42-500: 2160 SHP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Climb

A
  • ATR 72-500: 2192 SHP

- ATR 42-500: 2160 SHP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Cruise

A
  • ATR 72-500: 2132 SHP

- ATR 42-500: 2132 SHP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Power (PWR) =

A

Torque (TQ) x NP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Power setting is characterized by constant …

A

Power lever (PL) and condition lever (CL) positions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The EEC (Engine Electronic Control) controls the …

A

Fuel flow to the engine, with input coming from the PWR MGT and the position of the PL.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

PL’s to the WALL, TQ up to …

A

115%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

PL’s to the RAMP, TQ up to …

A

100%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The PEC (Propeller Engine Control) controls the … using input from …

A

NP (propeller speed) by changing the blades angle / the PWR MGT and the position of the CL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

CL on 100% OVRD the NP is at …

A

100%, regardless of the PWR MGT position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

With the CL’s in the AUTO position …

A
  • Blade angle governing mode. The NP is regulated by the PEC (Blade angle change).
  • PWR MGT in:
    TO → NP = 100%
    MCT → NP = 100%
    CLB → NP = 82%
    CRZ → NP = 82%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

On FTR (Feather position) the fuel governing mode is …

A

cancelled (No ACW generator)

21
Q

TQ values:

  • RTO
  • TO
  • MCT
A
  • TQ = 100% (ATR 72-500) / TQ = 100% (ATR 42-500)
  • TQ = 90% (ATR 72-500) / TQ = 90% (ATR 42-500)
  • TQ = 90.9% (ATR 72-500) / TQ = 100% (ATR 42-500)
22
Q

TORQUE ind. white bug is …

A

manually selected

23
Q

TORQUE ind. INTERNAL BUG …

A

computed by FDAU; shows RTO MGT on T/O, otherwise max TQ depending on PWR MGT selection

24
Q

TORQUE ind. (DC EMER)

A

2 probes located on the reduction gear box shafts
sends signal to the AFU (Auto Feathering Unit) and to
the EEC (Engine Electronic Control) which supply the
torque indicator.
The AFU controls the pointer and the EEC controls the
digital display.

25
Q

NP ind.

A

DC ESS from 0 to 120%

26
Q

ITT ind.

A 
(DC ESS) from 0 to 1200°C
Red point: 20’’ max
Red point + S: 5’’max on start
H: limite for hotel mode
operation
27
Q

ITT ind. ALERT

A

ALERT
When ITT > 800°C or 715°C
in hotel mode Lt CAP

28
Q

ITT ind. TEST

A

TEST

1150°C (blue dot)

29
Q

NH /NL ind
(DC ESS) NH actual display
from

30
Q

NH /NL ind - TEST

A

TEST

115 % (blue dot)

31
Q

OIL LOW PRESS Lt

32
Q

OIL TEMP (Main DC BUS) from

A

0 to 130°C

33
Q

CRANK means …

A

dry motoring (no ignition)

34
Q

STARTER - ON

A

Starter engaged. At 45% NH, light goes off and the starter is disconnected

35
Q

STARTER - FAULT

A 
Illuminates when:
– remains ON with NH >45% or
– GCU failure during start or 
– starter failure or 
– ENG 2 only: ENG START selector on start position
\+ PROP BRK ON + GUST lock not engaged
36
Q

MAN IGN ON

A 
Continuous ignition (both A and B exciters). 
Memo panel light.
37
Q

PROP BREAK READY

A

engagement or disengagement conditions are met:
– A/C on ground
– gust lock engaged
– CL on FTR or FUEL S/O
– blue hyd press available on the prop brake input >2100psi
– Fire handle not pulled

38
Q

PROP BRAKE UNLOCK

A 
PROP BRAKE not fully locked or not fully released.
After 15 sec: CAP alarm. 
Also used to check lock/unlock time:
– 5 sec. to unlock
– 10 sec. to lock
39
Q

START A OR B

A
  • On ground, only exciter A or B is supllied (except for the position A and B)
  • In flight regardless of start selection (A, B or A+B) both
    exciters are energized
40
Q

ATPCS

A

– ARM on ground = uptrim + auto FTR (2.15’’ delay)

– ARM in flight (In case of go around) = auto FTR only

41
Q

LO PITCH

A

blade angle

42
Q

UP TRIM

A

signal sent to respective eng during ATPCS sequence.

Eng power = RTO

43
Q

ATPCS TRIGGER

A
  • one TQ below 18%

Cancel: PWR MGT out of TO or ATPCS pb OFF or at least one PL retarded below 49° or both TQ

44
Q

EEC FAULT flashing

A

EEC failure. The fuel flow is frozen to maintain the power

  • FAULT steady: EEC failure, HMU base law = reversion
  • FAULT flashing, never deselect the EEC. Retard first, the PL in the green sector (FAULT become steady: PL
45
Q

PEC SGL CH illuminates when …

A

one channel is lost (2’’ for self test when advancing CL from FTR to AUTO)

46
Q

PEC FAULT illuminates when …

A

both PEC channels are lost. CAP

47
Q

PEC OFF

A

PEC is deactivated and NP is limited at 102,5% if power is sufficient

48
Q

IDLE GATE FAIL light illuminates amber and the CCAS

is activated when the gate

A

does not engage automatically in flight or does not retract at landing

FCOM (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions