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KA-400 > Power Plant > Flashcards

Power Plant Flashcards

1
Q

Thrust ratings

A

B1F - 57,900
B5F - 61,100
PW - 57,100

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2
Q

Which engine sections drives the accesroy gear box?

A

N2

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3
Q

How many igniters do the engines have?

A

2

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4
Q

How is the starter powered?

A

Pneumatically

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5
Q

What is the EEC?

A

Electronic Engine Control

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6
Q

If a center DU fails what will be displayed on the operative DU?

A

Primary EICAS

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7
Q

T/F: The N1 and N2 rotors are mechanically Independent.

A

True

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8
Q

The N2 Rotor Drives the __________.

A

Accessory Gearbox

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9
Q

Each engines ignition system has ____________ igniter(s).

A

2

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10
Q

Thrust levers are automatically positioned by the auto-throttles system or ____________.

A

Manually by the Pilots

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11
Q

What are the primary engine indications?

A

N1 and EGT

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12
Q

When will the secondary engine display be displayed automatically in flight?

A

Any fuel switch is moved to cutoff

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13
Q

When are EGT indications inhibited from changing color?

A

During takeoff and go-around for 5 minutes after the TO/GA switch is pressed.

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14
Q

What does a red box around a engine parameter indicate?

A

An engine parameter was exceeded but returned to normal

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15
Q

What does a magenta oil quantity indicate?

A

Low oil quantity or oil quantity differential is detected

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16
Q

What does the Command N1 indicator display?

A

Commanded N1 based on thrust lever position

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17
Q

N1 and EGT are ___________ indications.

A

Primary

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18
Q

When any Fuel Control Switch is moved to the CUTOFF position the __________ will automatically pop-up if not displayed.

A

Secondary Engine Indications Display

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19
Q

T/F: Primary EICAS ALWAYS has priority.

A

True

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20
Q

What is the route of fuel into the engine?

A

Spar Fuel Valve >
First Stage Pump >
Second Stage Pump >
Fuel/Oil Heat Exchanger >
Fuel Filter >
Fuel Metering Unit >
Engine Fuel Valve

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21
Q

What closes when the fuel cutoff switch is closed?

A

The engine fuel valve, fuel metering valve, and spar valve?

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22
Q

Where is fuel flow measured?

A

Past the engine fuel valve

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23
Q

After leaving the fuel tank the fuel for each engine passes through what valve first?

A

Spar Fuel Valve

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24
Q

T/F: A fuel Filter removes the contaminants before fuel goes through the Engine Fuel Valve.

A

True

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25
Q

T/F: During Autostart the fuel metering valve is additionally controlled by the EEC.

A

True

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26
Q

What is the flow of the engine oil system?

A

Reservoir>
Oil Pump>
Engine>
Scavenge pump >
Fuel/ Oil Heat Exchanger>
Oil Filter >
Reservoir

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27
Q

Where is oil pressure measured?

A

Upstream of the engine

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28
Q

Where is oil temperature measured?

A

Downstream of the engine

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29
Q

During cruise when will oil quantity display?

A

Whenever oil quantity on one engine differs from any other engine by a predetermined amount.

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30
Q

What could cause an increase in oil quantity?

A

Indicator malfunction or leaking fuel/oil heat exchanger

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31
Q

The oil is cooled as it flows through the _____/_____ heat exchanger.

A

Fuel, Oil

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32
Q

Oil Temperature is measured __________ of the engine.

A

Downstream

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33
Q

T/F: During Cruise oil quantity displays on the EICAS whenever oil quantity on the engine differs from any other engine by a predetermined amount.

A

True

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34
Q

The engine starter motors are _______ controlled and ________ powered.

A

Electrically, Pneumatically

35
Q

What can power the engine start motor?

A

APU
HP ground air
Another Engine

36
Q

How many igniters are normally used for ground start? Air Start?

A

1 ground
2 air

37
Q

What powers the ignitors with the standby ignition selector in NORM?

A

AC Power

38
Q

What powers the ignitors with the standby ignition selector in 1 or 2?

A

The Standby power system and the igniters will be powered continuously

39
Q

With the AUTP ignition selector in Single how will the igniters functions on the ground? In Flight?

A

Ground: Igniter will alternate after every start
Air: Both with ignite for air start or flameout

40
Q

When will ignition automatically occur on an engine?

A

-During start when the Start switch is out and the N2 RPM is less than 50%,
-Anytime the engine Nacelle anti-ice is ON
-An engine flameout is detected

41
Q

When will ignition automatically occur on all engines?

A

-The trailing edge flaps are out of the up position
-The Continuous Ignition switch is ON.

42
Q

When is continuous ignition required?

A

-Moderate to heavy rain
-Hail or sleet
-Moderate to severe turbulence
-Flight through volcanic ash
-Upon entering icing conditions.

43
Q

What does the Fuel On Command indicate?

A

The minimum N2 the Fuel Control Switch should be moved to RUN in a manual start

44
Q

What does pulling the engine start switch do, during an autostart?

A

Arms the start valve and opens engine bleed air valve

45
Q

What does selecting a fuel control switch to RUN do, during an auto start?

A

Opens the spar fuel valve, engine fuel valve, and EEC will initiate auto start sequence.

46
Q

When will the START switch release?

A

at 50% N2

47
Q

What is the EEC monitoring during engine auto start?

A

EGT and N2

48
Q

When will the EEC abort an Auto-start?

A

Hot-Start
Hung Start
No EGT Rise

49
Q

What happens if there is not light off during the first auto-start attempt?

A

The auto-start system will purge the fuel and make another start attempt.

50
Q

How many start attempt will the EEC make during an auto-start?

A

3

51
Q

What happens if a hot or hung start is detected before starter cutout?

A

The auto-start system provides corrective action and up to three start attempts are made. The engine is motored for 30 seconds before the start and bleed air valves close.

52
Q

What happens if a hot or hung start is detected after starter cutout?

A

The auto-start aborts all start attempts and the engine is not motored.

53
Q

In flight what will display if a fuel control switch is moved to cutoff?

A

In-flight start envelope on primary EICAS and the secondary EICAS will be displayed

54
Q

What does the EICAS In-flight Start envelope display?

A

Airspeed range ton ensure engine start at current flight level. If current altitude is above max start altitude the max altitude will be displayed.

55
Q

In-flight what does a magenta “X-BLD” next to the shutdown engine N2 indicate?

A

That a cross-bleed of pneumatic air is necessary to operate the starter

56
Q

How is an in-flight autostart normally initiated?

A

By moving the fuel control switch to ON with the AUTOSTART system ON

57
Q

How is an in-flight autostart initiated with X-BLD displayed?

A

By pulling the start switch

58
Q

How many attempts will the auto start system make in-flight?

A

No limit

59
Q

How is a flameout detected?

A

Rapid decrease in N2 or N2 is below idle

60
Q

What does pulling the engine start switch do, during a manual start?

A

Opens start and engine bleed air valves

61
Q

What does moving the fuel control switch to RUN do, during a manual start?

A

spar valve, fuel metering, and engine fuel valves to open and the selected igniter energizes.

62
Q

The Fuel On Indicator displays the minimum _______ at which the fuel control switch should be moved to RUN during the manual start

A

N2

63
Q

What powers the EEC?

A

Aircraft electrical system or
An alternator on the accessory gearbox

64
Q

When is maximum thrust availble?

A

Any time by moving thrust levers to full forward

65
Q

What happens when an EEC transfers to alternate mode?

A

The Auto-throttle will disconnect

66
Q

How can the auto-throttles be re-engaged after an EEC switches to alternate mode?

A

By selecting all EECs to alternate mode

67
Q

When manually selecting EEC alternate mode what is a concern with thrust?

A

It will increase so the respective thrust lever must be reduced prior to switching to alternate mode

68
Q

When will the EEC select approach idle in flight?

A

-Nacelle anti—ice is ON,
-Flaps are in landing position, or
-Continuous Ignition switch is ON.

69
Q

When does the EEC provide overspeed protection?

A

In normal or alternate

70
Q

How does the EEC prevent overspeed?

A

By commanding the fuel metering unit to reduce fuel flow

71
Q

T/F: An engine will not operate without the associated EEC operating.

A

True

72
Q

Both Normal and Alternate modes of the EEC use _____ RPM as the controlling parameter for setting thrust.

A

N1

73
Q

T/F: The Alternate Mode does not provide the engine protection of limiting the thrust at maximum N1.

A

True

74
Q

T/F: The EEC provides over-speed protection for the N1 and N2 in Normal mode but not Alternate mode.

A

False

75
Q

T/F: The Thrust Reverse System is only available for operation on the ground.

A

True

76
Q

If an engine is not running the thrust reverser can or cannot operate?

A

Cannot

77
Q

T/F: While the Reverser deployment is in transit the Reverse Thrust Lever is locked in the Interlock position.

A

True

78
Q

The Thrust Levers can only be moved forward after ________.

A

The reverse thrust levers are fully down

79
Q

What are the four vibration sources?

A

Fan
LPT (Low Pressure Turbine)
N2
BB (Broad Band)

80
Q

What BB in the engine vibration?

A

Broad Band, displayed when the source can not be detected

81
Q

What are ways airframe vibration can be reduced?

A

Descending or reducing airspeed

82
Q

There are _____ possible sources for engine vibration.

A

4

83
Q

T/F: Transitioning from Cruise to Landing; there can be multiple regions of altitudes and airspeeds where vibration levels can become severe.

A

True

84
Q

Generally if descending and reducing airspeed does not help or worsens the vibrations. What may help?

A

Slight Increase in airspeed

KA-400 (33 decks)

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