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KA-400 > OKE Study Guide > Flashcards

OKE Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q
  1. When is a takeoff alternate required?
A

If weather conditions at departure airport are below landing minimums for that airport. (including CA high mins) [GOM 5-72]

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2
Q
  1. What requirements and distance does the takeoff alternate need to comply with?
A

2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. [GOM 5-72]

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3
Q
  1. What phases of flight require use of headsets and boom microphones?
A

Anytime below 18,000’ [GOM 5-21]

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4
Q
  1. If an approach requires TACAN equipment, may that procedure be used if it is in the FMS database?
A

TACAN approached may only be used if entire procedure can be loaded from FMS database, including MAP’s [GOM 5-133]

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5
Q
  1. What are the domestic and international holding speeds? When is the earliest you may slow to the appropriate maximum holding speed?
A

Domestic (FAA): [GOM 5-45]
up to and including 6000’: 200 knots
above 6000’ up to 14000’: 230 knots
above 14000’: 265 knots
International (ICAO): [GOM 5-45]
up to 14000’: 230 knots
above 14000’ up to 20000’: 240 knots
above 20000’ up to 34000’: 265 knots
above 34000’: mach 0.83
You may slow 3 minutes prior to entering hold
Jeppesen airway manuals have individual country requirements

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6
Q
  1. Where are the touchdown zone lights located on the runway and how far do they extend?
A

Begin 100’ from threshold and extend in 100’ intervals to 3000’ [AOM1 A2-6]

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7
Q
  1. Above what altitude must one pilot don and use oxygen when the other pilot is absent from his duty station?
A

Above FL410 [FIB 20-63]

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8
Q
  1. When must one pilot be on oxygen at all times? Should Normal or 100% oxygen be used?
A

Normal [GOM 5-9]

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9
Q
  1. What is the maximum distance from the airport you may accept a visual approach?
A

35 miles [GOM 5-138]

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10
Q
  1. What is the maximum speed when conducting a procedure turn course reversal maneuver in the US?
A

200 knots [AIM 5-4-31]

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11
Q
  1. What is the only scenario that allows you to begin an approach (prior to the final approach fix) when reported visibility is below published minimums (excluding PIC emergency authority)?
A

AAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAA

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12
Q
  1. On a Cat III approach, to continue below AH what conditions must be met?
A

No autothrottle faults and “land 3” must be displayed [GOM 5-155]

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13
Q
  1. Are you authorized to conduct circling approaches or circling maneuvers? If so, under what conditions?
A

Circling maneuver is approved. Weather must be at least 1000’ and 3sm or higher published minimums [GOM 5-137]

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14
Q
  1. If visual reference is lost during a circling maneuver, describe the missed approach procedure.
A

Make initial turn towards landing runway and continue turn until established on published missed approach procedure. [GOM 5-137]

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15
Q
  1. What is the maximum distance from the runway you may fly during a circling maneuver?
A

2.3 miles [GOM 5-137]

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16
Q
  1. What is the validity period for the FDE summary on the flight release?
A

20 minutes prior to 2 hours after scheduled departure [GOM 9-46]

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17
Q
  1. When may a flight depart early
A

Coordination must occur with flight follower unless AMC, you may depart up to 20 minutes early. [GOM 5-3, GOM 7-11]

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18
Q
  1. If a First Officer has less than 100 hours in type can He/She perform the Take Off when the reported RVR is 1800?
A

No, unless with a check airman, a FO cannot make a T/O or landing with visibility below 4000RVR or 3/4sm. [GOM 4-18]

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19
Q
  1. Who is jointly responsible for initiating, continuing, diverting, and/or terminating Company flights IAW the FARs, Company procedures, and Company OPSPECS?
A

The Director of Operations and the PIC. [GOM 5-1]

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20
Q
  1. If the Director of Operations delegates the functions for initiating, continuing, diverting, and terminating flights to flight following personnel, does flight following also bear the responsibility of those functions?
A

No, the Director of Operations may delegate functions for flight followers but not responsibility. [GOM 5-1]

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21
Q
  1. The PIC has full control and authority for the operation and safety of the aircraft, without limitation. True or false?
A

True [GOM 5-1]

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22
Q
  1. What is the GOM’s definition of standardization of flight procedures?
A

Standardization is crucial in maximizing flight safety and reducing pilot confusion in the cockpit. [GOM 5-6]

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23
Q
  1. What is the purpose of the aircraft loading checklist and who can review and sign the document?
A

Used to inform pilots the aircraft has been loaded correctly and is configured for departure. It is signed by the loadmaster/station representative and then signed by the PIC. [GOM 5-62]

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24
Q
  1. After the weight and balance computations are generated on the computer, what steps must be completed once the forms are printed?
A

Captain signs the load sheet, circles ZFW, TOGW and takeoff CG, compares TOGW is no more than 10000lb less than PTOW or more than PTOW PLUS (TLR). [AOM1 NP-57]

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25
Q
  1. What FAA approved computerized runway analysis system is used to compute real time takeoff and landing data for air crews and flight following personnel?
A

Aerodata [AOM1 PERF-3]

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26
Q
  1. What are the limitations on the use of the CMV (converted meteorological visibility)?
A

Should not be used when reported RVR is available, for calculating T/O minima or for other RMR minima less than 800m [GOM 5-77]

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27
Q
  1. Under what circumstances can you select DRY for Dispatch Landing performance?
A

Smooth or grooved surface and runway reported dry with scattered showers forecast
Runway is grooved and reported dry with:
Drizzle no greater than moderate forecast prior to ETA
Light rain above freezing forecast prior to ETA
Light snow with surface temps below -2.25C forecast prior to ETA [GOM 5-78]

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28
Q
  1. What are the required documents in the trip envelope at the completion of a trip?
A

Aircraft flight log (yellow/pink copies)
Flight release/plan
Fuel tickets/receipts
Hazmat form
Aircraft security reports
Air Waybill
COMAT form
Bill of Lading
Permit to Proceed
Plotting charts
SAFA report
W&B load sheet
Livestock form
Event logs (hand written)
[GOM 5-158]

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29
Q
  1. Can a flight be released based on a METAR?
A

Yes, conditions must be above minimums and METAR’s indicate a reasonable trend of weather at or above minimums. Must be able to land prior to next scheduled METAR [GOM 5-79]

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30
Q
  1. Pertaining to alternate airport weather minimums, can aircraft without baro-VNAV use the minimums contained in the LNAV/VNAV column for computations?
A

No [GOM 5-80]

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31
Q
  1. Minimum required fuel calculations are based on what 4 factors?
A

Destination fuel, additional fuel, alternate fuel and reserve fuel [GOM 5-84]

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32
Q
  1. When determining that the aircraft gross weight is suitable for takeoff, which 3 weight limits must be considered?
A

Maximum structural takeoff weight, TOGW limited by takeoff performance and TOGW which will permit a landing at or the maximum landing weight. [GOM 5-112]

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33
Q
  1. How much “shiny strut” needs to be showing?
A

Polished area needs to be showing [AOM1 NP-47

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34
Q
  1. Recite the Exterior Safety Inspection?
A

Chocks in place, Gear door positions, APU fire handle stowed (APU OFF), Condition/position of flight controls, APU exhaust area clear (APU OFF). [AOM1 NP-22]

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35
Q
  1. Recite the Cockpit Safety Inspection?
A

Battery master-on, standby power selector-auto, Hydraulic demand pumps-off, windshield wipers-off, gear handling-down, flap lever and indicator-agree, alternate flaps-off, radar-test, transponder-standby [AOM1 NP-22]

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36
Q
  1. Minimum Oxygen limits for dispatch; passenger, crew and walk around bottle?
A

Crew/PAX-1400PSI, Walk around bottles-1200PSI [AOM1 NP-30]

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37
Q
  1. Must you carry and use a flashlight for preflight during daylight hours?
A

Yes [AOM1 NP-45]

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38
Q
  1. Do additional preflight procedures exist for cold weather operations? If so, where can they be found?
A

Yes, found in [AOM1 SP-104]

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39
Q
  1. For DHL flights, who assumes responsibility for accomplishing the final walk-around?
A

The loadmaster [AOM1 NP-59]

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40
Q
  1. When operating outside of the United States, International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) standard procedures apply, except where a country files a Statement of Differences with the ICAO. Where can these differences be found?
A

Jeppesen Airway Manuals [GOM 6-1]

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41
Q
  1. What are the international basic fuel requirements?
A

Destination burn+ 10% of destination burn+ alternate burn+ 30 minutes holding 1500’ HAA [GOM 5-85]

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42
Q
  1. What are B-43 fuel requirements?
A

Destination burn+ 10% of destination burn while in class II navigation+ alternate burn+ 45 min normal cruising consumption [GOM 5-86]

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43
Q
  1. What are B-44 fuel requirements?
A

Destination burn+ rerelease point to destination burn+ 10% of rerelease point to destination burn+ alternate burn+ 30 minutes holding 1500’ HAA [GOM 5-88]

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44
Q
  1. What are the international No Suitable Alternate fuel requirements?
A

Kalitta does not utilize this fuel provision [GOM 5-87]

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45
Q
  1. Under B43 and B44, what deviations from flight plan must be reported to flight following?
A

ETA +15 minutes, Altitude deviation of 4000’ or more or 100 miles off planned route. [GOM 5-87]

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46
Q
  1. At US stations when is it acceptable to open the cargo doors upon arrival?
A

When cleared to do so by CBP [GOM 6-5]

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47
Q
  1. At US stations when is it acceptable to leave the aircraft upon arrival?
A

After CBP clearance unless required by a specific station procedure [GOM 6-5]

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48
Q
  1. While taxiing into a stand a ground crewman begins to move the light wand in his right hand in a rapid horizontal figure-eight motion while pointing at the ground below your right wing with his left arm. What is the problem?
A

You have a brake fire [Safety Manual 4-7]

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49
Q
  1. WARNING: IF NO CLIMB GRADIENT IS PUBLISHED FOR A DEPARTURE, A MINIMUM CLIMB OF ______ FEET PER NAUTICAL MILE MUST BE MAINTAINED.
A

200 feet per nautical mile [GOM 5-116]

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50
Q
  1. If a flight is vectored off of a noise abatement procedure what crew action is required?
A

You should note is on the flight release [GOM 5-112]

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51
Q
  1. When are you considered “established” on course?
A

For RNAV operations: When you are within the accuracy of segment (IE RNP 2: When you are within 2nm of course centerline) [GOM 2-11]
For approach: ½ full scale deflection [GOM 6-66]

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52
Q
  1. What navigation errors in the Long Range Navigation Units need to be recorded after landing?
A

Residual groundspeed in greater than 21 knots and position errors that exceed 2nm/hr or greater than the table in [AOM NP-102]

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53
Q
  1. Are flight crews required to review the information in the Aeronautical Information Publication prior to operating in a particular host country, or is it sufficient that Operations Control Center personnel have reviewed the information?
A

Yes, flight crews are required to operate in accordance with the rules of the country they are in. [GOM 6-1]

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54
Q
  1. Where can the entry requirements (required permits, customs and immigration procedures, etc.) for a particular host country be found?
A

The entry section of the Jeppesen Airway Manual and OCC personnel [GOM 6-3]

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55
Q
  1. When arriving into a foreign country by commercial airline, your passport was stamped for entry. If you are departing the country as an operating crewmember, does your passport need an exit stamp, or may you depart using a General Declaration form?
A

If you get a stamp coming into/out of a country you must get a corresponding stamp for the opposite procedure. [GOM 6-3]

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56
Q
  1. When do you need a permit to proceed?
A

When you make a tech stop and the detailed entry inspection for the cargo will be completed at the final destination. [GOM 5-63]

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57
Q
  1. If disinfection is required prior to entry into a particular country, who is recommended to disperse the spray?
A

It is preferred that a supernumerary perform the dispersal of the spray [GOM 6-7]

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58
Q
  1. How must a flight crew determine the appropriate holding speeds for a given country?
A

The Jeppesen Airway Manual, ATC section for the specific country [GOM 5-45]

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59
Q
  1. When should flight crews default to ICAO holding speeds for a given host country?
A

All international countries except where an applicable statement of differences is published [GOM 6-1]

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60
Q
  1. When operating outside the U.S., and cleared to a point with no routing specified, what action must be taken by the flight crew?
A

Clarify the routing with specific phraseology [GOM 6-15]

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61
Q
  1. If a flight is approaching an FIR boundary and has been unable to establish communication with the appropriate controller, what action should be taken?
A

Either hold at the boundary (not recommended as it could cause a separation issue), continue in and attempt to establish communications as soon as possible or consider a broadcast to other aircraft. [GOM 6-16]

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62
Q
  1. Is Kalitta Air authorized to operate in areas designated as “No FIR”? If so, what special procedures should be utilized?
A

Kalitta is not authorized to operate in “No FIR” areas. [GOM 6-10]

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63
Q
  1. When verifying routing on a flight plan consisting of Class II segments, what specific check is required in addition to the checks performed on all international flights?
A

Plotting charts required. Fuel reasonableness check. 2/10 minute check. [GOM 6-50]

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64
Q
  1. List some of the approved methods for a reasonableness check prior to entry and after exiting MNPS airspace.
A

Select and tune VOR/DME and compare present position with displayed bearing and distance
Overfly a VOR and verify needle swing and DME bottom out coincide with FMS leg change
Obtain an ATC radar fix overhead a station or intersection and verify FMS leg change occurs simultaneously [6-45]

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65
Q
  1. When should 2000 be set in the transponder?
A

When leaving an area which transponder has not been used and entering an area in which the transponder will be used. In the absence of any ATC instruction or Regional Air Navigation Agreements [GOM 6-21]
30 minutes after coast out fix

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66
Q
  1. What is ‘SLOP’ or Strategic Lateral Offset Procedure, and what are the 3 positions the Aircraft can be flown in?
A

An offset of up to 2nm to the right of course centerline to obtain lateral spacing from nearby aircraft for wake turbulence and reduce the risk of head on collision when outside of radar coverage. [GOM 6-61]

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67
Q
  1. Can a Kalitta Air 747-400 be flown in the ‘NAT Tracks’ with 1 HF radio deferred?
A

Yes but SATCOM must be operational [GOM 6-35]

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68
Q
  1. What is the Worldwide Air to Air frequency?
A

123.45 [GOM 6-40]

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69
Q
  1. What are the Maximum holding speeds International (ICAO)?
A

0-1400: 230
14001-20000: 240
20001-34000: 265
Above 34000: Mach .83 [GOM 5-45]

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70
Q
  1. What are the Maximum holding speeds International (PANS-OPS)?
A

AAAAAAAAAAAAA

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71
Q
  1. What are the standard holding pattern times based on altitude?
A

14000’ and below: 1 minute legs, above 14000: 1.5 minute legs [AIM 5-3-8]

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72
Q
  1. List three examples of observed or encountered phenomena requiring a special air report to ATS.
A

Moderate or severe turbulence
Severe mountain wave
Moderate or severe icing
Volcanic ash cloud [GOM 6-62]

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73
Q
  1. At airports that have approved ‘SMGCS’ procedures, below what RVR will the procedures go into effect?
A

1200 RVR [GOM 5-101]

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74
Q
  1. You are at your re-release point and you were unable to communicate with the company to coordinate your re-release when dispatched under B044, what do you do?
A

It is mandatory to divert to the released airport [GOM 5-24]

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75
Q
  1. Unless otherwise listed on the chart, the maximum speed for IFR turning departures is ____, with a minimum bank angle of ____°.
A

290 knots, 15 degrees bank [GOM 6-33]

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76
Q
  1. Should a crew member suspect they may have exceeded any local noise restrictions, what action should be taken?
A

Pilots must submit an event log [GOM 5-112]

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77
Q
  1. Whenever a clearance is received en-route during non-radar operations, what flight plan annotations must be made by the flight crew?
A

Revised clearance should be noted on the plotting chart and master flight plan with the time and frequency in which it was received. [GOM 6-43/52]

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78
Q
  1. During Class II operations, within ___ minutes of each waypoint, both pilots should verify that the subsequent waypoint in the navigation display agrees with the current ATC clearance. What specifically must be checked?
A

2 minutes, must check next two waypoints coordinates and the heading and distance match the flight release. [GOM 6-50]

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79
Q
  1. Described the check required after passing a waypoint in Class II airspace. What is being determined by this check?
A

10 minutes after waypoint passage you must plot LRNS position to determine aircraft is headed towards the next waypoint. [GOM 6-50]

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80
Q
  1. Does a straight line drawn on a Jeppesen Lambert Conformal en-route or plotting chart represent a great circle or rhumb line?
A

Great circle [GOM 6-51]

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81
Q
  1. ICAO criteria for approaches list a range of speeds for aircraft in the various segments of an approach. What is the ICAO range of speeds for a category D aircraft on final approach?
A

130-185 knots [GOM 6-65]

82
Q
  1. Describe one of the four generally recognized maneuvers related to course reversal procedures, as outlined in GOM Ch. 6.
A

If within 30 degrees of base turn or outbound track, cross the fix outbound on the specified track and descend as necessary, make the course reversal as depicted [GOM 6-66]

83
Q
  1. In the event a missed approach is initiated prior to arriving at the missed approach point, what is expected of the pilot in regards to vertical and lateral maneuvering?
A

You may climb immediately but must continue to the MAP before flying the missed approach procedure [GOM 6-68]

84
Q
  1. When are you required to complete a plotting chart?
A

When route segment between NAVAID service volume exceeds 725nm [GOM 6-51]

85
Q
  1. Can a Kalitta Air crew except a land and hold short clearance when (LAHSO) is in effect?
A

No [GOM 5-146]

86
Q
  1. You Depart Leipzig Germany for Cincinnati, you request your oceanic clearance and a random route has been filed by the company. ATC issues the same route in your oceanic clearance. Do you need to perform the SLOP procedure?
A

You should. You are outside of radar coverage and it may reduce the risk of collision [GOM 6-61]

87
Q
  1. What deviation is considered to be a GNE within NAT airspace?
A

10 miles off cleared track [GOM 6-44]

88
Q
  1. In several areas, such as over the Andes in South America, the MEAs for en-route segments may be well above the engine out capabilities of the particular aircraft and weight. Is Kalitta Air authorized to traverse such route? If so, are there any special provisions that must be met? Explain.
A

You can, however, you must be able to maintain a diversion procedure to drift down beyond limiting obstacles. If an escape route is not available or defined, these routes should not be flown. [GOM 6-48]

89
Q
  1. While flying in less developed areas, and after receiving a “direct via” off airway routing, what altitude should be consulted on the enroute chart to ensure obstacle clearance requirements can be met? What type of terrain clearance does that altitude afford?
A

Must consider the grid minimum off route altitude (MORA), provides 1000’ terrain clearance in non-mountainous areas and 2000’ in mountainous areas [GOM 6-48]

90
Q
  1. If operating in RVSM airspace and the flight encounters turbulence resulting in an altitude deviation of 350 feet, what actions are required?
A

You must notify ATC immediately and file an event log [GOM 5-123, GOM 8-75]

91
Q
  1. Often the transition level is shown on Jeppesen Approach Charts as “by ATC”. Although the controller should announce the transition level in these circumstances, often they do not. What are some indicators that a flight has been cleared through a transition level?
A

When cleared to maintain an altitude instead of a flight level or when given an altimeter setting along with an altitude. [GOM 6-23]

92
Q
  1. When temperature is colder than ISA, true altitude will be _____ than indicated altitude.
A

Lower [GOM 5-36]

93
Q
  1. Under what conditions should the altitude correction procedures found in GOM Ch. 6 be followed?
A

US airports: Temperature is at or below published cold temperature restriction on approach chart.
International airports: at or below -30C [GOM 5-36]

94
Q
  1. Generally speaking, to which altitudes should the altitude correction procedures of GOM Ch. 6 be applied? What altitudes should not be corrected?
A

All designated segment altitudes except those on STAR’s, SID’s, ODP’s and MVA’s. [GOM 5-37]

95
Q
  1. When operating at high altitude airports, increases of approximately ___% higher True Airspeed (TAS) is achieved in the 8,000 to 10,000 feet range.
A

20% [GOM 6-25]

96
Q
  1. According to GOM Ch. 6, what are some of the effects of operating at the high-than-normal true airspeeds associated with high-altitude airport operations?
A

Greater turn radius, higher landing and takeoff speeds, hot brake issues and missed approach climb capabilities [GOM 6-25]

97
Q
  1. What is the minimum fuel temperature and what should be done if the fuel temperature decreases below the limit?
A

3C above the freezing point for the particular fuel being used, fly faster or climb/descend into warmer air. [AOM1 L-17]

98
Q
  1. How do you identify the Fuel Freeze point for the type of fuel being used?
A

The table in [AOM1 L-17]

99
Q
  1. Describe the ICAO ground-handling signal for a brake fire.
A

Move right hand in fanning (figure 8) motion while pointing at brakes with left hand [Safety Manual 4-6

100
Q
  1. If the SELCAL does not test on initial contact, what steps shall the flight crew take prior to initiating a constant listening watch?
A

Verify proper SELCAL code, that the VHF/HF selector is in HF, HF squelch is MIN of OFF, HF gain set to MAX or INCR and/or request a new test [GOM 6-41]

101
Q
  1. In regard to communicating with controllers outside of the U.S., what four recommendations should be used by crew members in order to avoid miscommunications?
A

Use proper ICAO phraseology, speak slowly and clearly, anticipate the controller, obtain assistance/verification [GOM 6-42]

102
Q
  1. What is the minimum required information to be included in a position report?
A

Aircraft ID, position, time, altitude, next position and time over, ensuing significant point and pertinent remarks [GOM 5-127]

103
Q
  1. What does IC mean on the TAKEOFF REPORT LAYOUT? What does the N below it mean?
A

Improved climb, N means “no” [AOM1 PERF-20]

104
Q
  1. Is the planned landing weight (PLDW) on the TLR, the weight we use for ACARS landing weight performance entry? What is the number/weight we enter?
A

No, we enter the ZFW and landing fuel, the ACARS will calculate the planned landing weight [AOM1 PERF-97]

105
Q
  1. With the use of CPDLC/ADS-C, separation of aircraft will be?
A

25nm [GOM 6-55] 23nm [NAT DOC 007-27]

106
Q
  1. After receipt of a “Conditional Clearance” the PNF should?
A

Either print the clearance or leave it displayed on the MCDU [AOM1 SP-69]

107
Q
  1. Under what condition would you select ADS OFF?
A

If requested to do so by ATC [AOM1 SP-58]

108
Q
  1. When reporting by ADS-C only, can flight crews remove non-compulsory ATC waypoints?
A

No

109
Q
  1. What must supernumeraries be briefed on, and who must brief them?
A

The captain is responsible to brief all supernumeraries on: Smoking, seatbelt use, passenger information signs, seatbacks for T/O and landing, electronic devices, emergency procedures, sterile cockpit, oxygen use, carry on items and MDSS [GOM 5-16]

110
Q
  1. What are the wind limits when operating the Main Cargo Door?
A

Operating: 40 knots, Open: 65 knots [AOM1 L-2]

111
Q
  1. When do the NO SMOKING and FASTEN SEAT BELT sign automatically illuminate regardless of switch position?
A

Passenger O2 on [AOM2 1-49]

112
Q
  1. Can the APU provide bleed air in flight? If so, up to what altitude?
A

Yes, if started on the ground it can provide bleed air to one pack up to 15000’ [AOM2 7-36]

113
Q
  1. What is the Max. Differential Pressure (Relief Valve), Takeoff and Landing?
A

In flight: 9.4PSI, On ground: 0.11PSI [AOM1 L-15]

114
Q
  1. Under what condition may the #1 or #2 window heat be inoperative?
A

Flight is not into known icing, remaining window heat is operational and the window air is operational [AOM1 L-19]

115
Q
  1. While in flight, Nacelle Anti-Ice must be on when?
A

When TAT is 10C or less and visible moisture in any form (1 mile visibility or less) unless SAT is less than -40C. Also, prior to reducing thrust for descent in icing conditions including temperatures below -40C [AOM1 L-19]

116
Q
  1. When are the 4 pitot-static probes heated?
A

After first engine start [AOM2 3-9]

117
Q
  1. Are the TAT probes heated? When?
A

Yes, in flight only [AOM2 3-9]

118
Q
  1. When can the autopilot be engaged after takeoff?
A

400’ AGL [AOM1 L-15]

119
Q
  1. What are the minimum and maximum glideslope angles?
A

For Autoland: 2.5-3.25 [AOM1 L-15]

120
Q
  1. On takeoff, prior to 65 KIAS, the Flight Director roll bar commands wing level while the pitch bar commands a fixed attitude of:
A

8 degrees nose up [AOM2 4-26]

121
Q
  1. What is the restriction on the center VHF with an operational ACARS system?
A

It must not be used for ATC voice communications [AOM1 L-16]

122
Q
  1. When should HF radios not be used?
A

During fueling operations [AOM1 L-16]

123
Q
  1. With 121.5 selected in the R VHF, can the receiver volume control for that radio be turned off?
A

No [AOM2 5-2]

124
Q
  1. How can we tune DATA into the C VHF?
A

Selecting a frequency higher or lower than the allowable VHF range [AOM2 5-22]

125
Q
  1. What buses are powered with # 1 & 2 external power available but not on?
A

1 powers the ground handling bus and #2 powers the main deck cargo handling bus [AOM2 6-13/14]

126
Q
  1. What electrical bus isolation occurs during autoland?
A

AC/DC bus 1,2 and 3 [AOM2 6-7]

127
Q
  1. Before starting engines with the APU inop, what must be done to pressurize the #4 hydraulic system?
A

You must place the #4 demand pump selector to Auto [MEL 49-11-1]

128
Q
  1. Before starting engines with the APU inop, what must be done to pressurize the #4 hydraulic system?
A

You must place the #4 demand pump selector to Auto [MEL 49-11-1]

129
Q
  1. With an EEC in Alternate Mode (ALTN), when should takeoff thrust be set?
A

Takeoff thrust must be set after brake release. (GE) [AOM1 L-23]

130
Q
  1. When will stby ignition turn on if the switch is in NORM?
A

Loss of all AC power [AOM2 7-32]

131
Q
  1. If the EGT limit is exceed what is indicated? On takeoff?
A

When EGT reaches continuous limit it turns amber, when it reaches takeoff/start limit it turns red and box remains red after exceedance. Amber limit is inhibited for 5 minutes after takeoff and go around. [AOM2 7-4]

132
Q
  1. With a main cargo fire, arming the Main Deck fire switch does what?
A

Enables depressurization
Shuts off two packs, remaining back goes to low flow
E/E goes to closed loop mode
Shuts off all airflow to main deck and heat and airflow to cargo compartments
Closes master trim valve [AOM2 8-4]

133
Q
  1. After a fire test pass, what two systems are no longer being monitored by the AC?
A

Wheel well fire detection and bleed air duct leak loops [AOM2 8-12]

134
Q
  1. How many over heat loops are installed for the APU?
A

No overheat. One, dual loop fire detection is installed. Operates in “OR” logic. [AOM2 8-9]

135
Q
  1. While operating below maneuvering speed (Va) is it permissible to make rapid or large alternating control inputs?
A

No [AOM1 L-16]

136
Q
  1. The flaps are not to be extended above what altitude?
A

20,000’ [AOM1 L-16]

137
Q
  1. When are the stab trim switches on the control wheel inhibited?
A

Multiple autopilots engaged [AOM2 9-17]

138
Q
  1. What is the maximum allowable in-flight difference between Captains and F/O’s altitude display for RVSM operations?
A

200’ [AOM1 L-16]

139
Q
  1. What is the maximum allowable on-the-ground altitude display differences for operations in RVSM?
A

5000’ and below: 35’
5001’ to 10000’: 40’
Must be within 75’ of field elevation [AOM1 L-16]

140
Q
  1. From engine start to shutdown, what is the primary means of alerting crews to non-normal conditions or improper configurations?
A

EICAS alert messages [AOM2 15-17]

141
Q
  1. Operations for using QFE are?
A

Kalitta Air policy prohibits use of QFE [GOM 6-22]

142
Q
  1. What is the minimum equipment required for a coupled CAT I ILS approach?
A

1 GS/LOC receiver, 1 Autopilot [AOM1 L-20]

143
Q
  1. When must the CWT override/jettison pumps be switched off?
A

When there is less than 17000lb of fuel in the CWT or when the FUEL LOW CTR message is displayed [AOM1 NP-62/83]

144
Q
  1. What is the fuel freeze point of Jet A?
A

-40C [AOM1 L-17]

145
Q
  1. What is the Conditional Minimum Ramp Fuel (Excluding Ballast)?
A

53000lb (requires approval) [AOM1 L-18]

146
Q
  1. What is the Standard Minimum Ramp Fuel (Excluding Ballast)?
A

72000lb [AOM1 L-18]

147
Q
  1. Once activated, how long will the scavenge pump operate?
A

Low pressure sensed or 120 minutes [AOM2 12-15]

148
Q
  1. With the loss of systems 2 & 3, why is there a speed additive for the approach?
A

To alleviate control forces with a loss of stabilizer trim [QRH 13-11]

149
Q
  1. What is the minimum hydraulic quantity for dispatch? Where do you read that value?
A

0.8 no RF, it is read on the STAT or HYD page. [AOM1 NP-30]

150
Q
  1. With the # 4 Aux pump on and providing pressure, will the HYD SYS fault light be off or on?
A

Off [AOM2 13-1]

151
Q
  1. What is the maximum takeoff weight when operating with gear extended?
A

720,000lb [AOM1 L-13]

152
Q
  1. On takeoff roll, when does RTO arm? What kind of braking is provided?
A

When groundspeed is 85 knots, RTO provides maximum braking [AOM2 14-14]

153
Q
  1. What does the brake torque limiting system do?
A

Detects excessive torque per wheel and anti-skid system releases brake pressure to that wheel (or pair of wheels in alt braking) [AOM2 14-13]

154
Q
  1. What range must be selected to use the GPWS – Look Ahead Terrain Alerting system?
A

Any range selection, terrain mode must be selected on EFIS control panel [AOM2 15-35]

155
Q
  1. When is the Windshear alert system active?
A

Reactive windshear is active from rotation to 1500’
Predictive windshear is active from takeoff thrust (or WXR selection) to 2300’ but will only give an alert below 1200’. Warnings are inhibited from 100 knots- 50’. Cautions are inhibited from 80 knots to 400’. [AOM2 15-41/43]

156
Q
  1. When are the Fire Bell and master Warning lights inhibited?
A

V1 to V1+25 seconds OR 400’ whichever occurs first [AOM2 15-49]

157
Q
  1. With the Lower Lobe Conditioned Airflow Rate Selector (LLCAFR) switch in the OFF position, what is the temperature range available with the Lower Lobe Temperature Selector?
A

The lower lobe cargo temperature selectors do nothing if the LLCAFR switch is off. AFT cargo heat is the only provided to keep the floor temperature above freezing. [AOM2 2-19]

158
Q
  1. What determines when the packs will go to Normal Flow?
A

In cruise, unless a high flows is selected on or you use a mode other than off on the LLCAFR switch. [AOM2 2-17]

159
Q
  1. When the Engine Bleed Air Switch is selected off, what valves close?
A

The engine bleed valve, PRV valve and HP valve [AOM2 2-13]

160
Q
  1. With the Engine Bleed Air Switch off, and no fault detected, what components are available?
A

NAI and the thrust reverser [AOM2 2-13]

161
Q
  1. Under what circumstances must Nacelle Anti Ice be selected ON on the ground?
A

When icing conditions exist: OAT 10C or less with visible moisture or contaminated surfaces. [AOM1 L19]

162
Q
  1. What are the engine run up procedures with Nacelle Anti Ice selected ON?
A

30 seconds at 60% N1 in 15 minute intervals and before takeoff [AOM1 SP-106]

163
Q
  1. What is required if operation is conducted in moderate to severe icing conditions for prolonged periods with the N1 less than 70%?
A

Increase thrust one engine at a time to 70% N1 for 10 to 30 seconds every 10 minutes [AOM1 SP-106]

164
Q
  1. What does the careted EICAS message “>ANTI ICE” mean?
A

NAI/WAI is on and TAT is greater than 12C with no ice detected [AOM2 3-10]

165
Q
  1. On descent into Delhi with convective activity in all quadrants, what steps must be taken to improve engine flameout margins with TAT below 10 degrees C?
A

Turn pack high flow on, NAI and WAI (below 22000’). [AOM1 SP-112]

166
Q
  1. What does the careted EICAS message “>Autopilot” mean?
A

Selected autopilot operating in a degraded mode, active roll/pitch mode may have failed [AOM2 4-34]

167
Q
  1. On a go around, what should the FMA indications be after one push of the TOGA buttons, and what do the indications mean?
A

THR (thrust to give 2000FPM climb) TOGA (track) TOGA (MCP window speed or current speed, whichever is more). [AOM2 4-31]

168
Q
  1. During an approach and landing, when does TOGA arm and disarm?
A

Arms when flaps are out of up or GS capture.
Disarms 2 seconds after RA decreases through 5’ and rearms 3 seconds after RA increases through 5 feet (in the event of a rejected landing) [AOM2 4-31]

169
Q
  1. With VNAV armed for takeoff, when passing 400 feet what changes will occur with your FMA, FMC commanded speed, and EICAS N1 Indicators?
A

You will see THR REF and VNAV SPD populate in the FMAs, commanded speed will jump to V2+10-25 and throttles will be set to reference thrust which turns magenta to represent FMC target thrust [AOM2 4-26]

170
Q
  1. If a TOGA throttle switch is not pressed prior to 50 knots, what will the autothrottle system do on takeoff?
A

The system cannot be engaged until 400’ [AOM2 4-26]

171
Q
  1. What does the Offside Tuning Light indicate?
A

Either the RTP is being used to tune or being tuned by a radio not normally associated with that RTP. [AOM2 5-3]

172
Q
  1. At 30 west you spill coffee on your audio control panel, rendering it inoperative. What do you do?
A

Use the OBS audio system switch to use the observers audio panel [AOM2 5-8]

173
Q
  1. How is the oxygen mask microphone activated and deactivated on A/C N740CK and N741CK?
A

You must select the switch to “BOOM” on the Audio Panel [AOM2 16-42-3]

174
Q
  1. How do you listen to the Inner Marker when conduction an “RA Not Authorized” Category II approach?
A

Select MKR on the Audio Panel and adjust the APP volume knob [AOM2 5-2]

175
Q
  1. The left PFD, ND, and FMC are normally powered by?
A

APU Standby Bus which is normally powered by the CA Transfer Bus, powered by AC 3/1 [AOM2 6-15]

176
Q
  1. Under normal operation, what powers the main and APU Standby busses?
A

The Main Standby Bus is normally powered by AC3/1, the Standby Bus is powered by the CA Transfer Bus (powered by AC3/1) [AOM2 6-14]

177
Q
  1. What causes DISC to illuminate in the CSD Disconnect Switch?
A

High oil temperature, low oil pressure or GCB open due to an uncorrectable frequency fault [AOM2 6-6]

178
Q
  1. Do the AC BTBs and DCIRs open at any time when there is no cockpit annunciation?
A

Yes, during Autoland AC and DC busses 1-3 isolate [AOM2 6-14]

179
Q
  1. You are being released to a destination where a Category III approach is to be conducted. Enroute, the number 4 Generator has been disconnected. Can you still conduct a category III approach?
A

Yes, you only need three generators for a CAT III [QRH AP-8]

180
Q
  1. The aircraft is dark. External power is connected to the left receptacle. Can you light your path to the cockpit? How?
A

Yes, the button next to door L1 will connect the ground handling bus to the service bus and allow the flight deck access lights to function [AOM2 6-12]

181
Q
  1. The number 1 EEC has gone to alternate mode. Which line no longer appears on the number 1 N1 indicator?
A

Max N1 (amber) [AOM2 7-27]

182
Q
  1. When will the engine oil quantity appear magenta when the oil quantity is in the normal range?
A

Oil differential is reached [AOM2 7-23]

183
Q
  1. With autostart functioning normally, under what conditions must the start be manually aborted?
A

No N1 rotation, No oil pressure and engine fire [AOM1 NP-66]

184
Q
  1. When will the EICAS Memo Message APU RUNNING be displayed?
A

When APU selector is on and N1 is above 95% [AOM2 7-37]

185
Q
  1. What is the total time of fire suppression available to the lower lobe cargo compartments? What are the immediate action items for an Engine Fire in flight?
A

BCF: 334 minutes Freighter: 180 minutes [QRH 8-2]
Affected engine thrust lever: Confirm, Idle
Affected engine fuel control switch: Confirm, Idle
Affected engine fire switch: Confirm, pull
Rotate (1sec)
If after 30sec fire indications persist, rotate to other bottle (1sec) [QRH 8-5]

186
Q
  1. There is a fire. Now what happens when the PNF pulls the Engine Fire Switch?
A

Arms associated fire bottles
Closes the engine fuel valve and spar fuel valve
Closes the hydraulic SOV and depressurizes engine driven pump
Trips generator circuit breaker
Closes engine bleed valve [AOM2 8-1]

187
Q
  1. If the EICAS message “FLAPS PRIMARY” is displayed, what protection is provided?
A

Asymmetry protection for the trailing edge flaps [AOM2 9-24]

188
Q
  1. You may have noticed that the line and number on the flap indicator turn magenta when the PF selects reverse thrust. Why does this happen?
A

The inboard and midspan leading edge flaps retract when reverse thrust is applied. [AOM2 9-25]

189
Q
  1. When does the rising runway symbol on the PFD appear? When does it start to rise?
A

Displays below 1000’ RA with localizer pointer in view, starts to rise at 200’ RA [AOM2 10-10]

190
Q
  1. You are conducting a Category III approach. You have captured the localizer and the expanded scale is displayed in the PFD. At what localizer deflection is a go-around required? What is the indication on the PFD?
A

1/3 dot deflection below 500’ [AOM1 A4-4]
A rectangle on the expanded scale= ½ dot deflection [AOM2 10-10]

191
Q
  1. On what selected range of the ND can you see all waypoints, all stations and all three segments of the position trend vector visible?
A

40nm range [AOM2 10-29/68]

192
Q
  1. You have been asked to intercept the CVG 033 radial and track it outbound. How do you do this?
A

Type CVG033 and place it in L1 [AOM2 11-31]

193
Q
  1. Your departure procedure’s initial instruction is a heading vector. It is displayed as a Conditional Waypoint heading on the CDU, followed by the term VECTORS. Can LNAV be used to fly the heading
A

Yes, if it is coded in the departure procedure as a conditional waypoint, LNAV will fly it. [AOM2 11-30]

194
Q
  1. What CDU pages are available in standby navigation after both FMS units have failed?
A

Legs, Prog and NAVRAD [AOM2 11-51]

195
Q
  1. On the NAV RAD page of the CDU, a VOR identifier is followed by a letter in small font. What are the possible letters? What do they mean? What must be displayed in order to enter a course?
A

P: Procedural autotuning for approach or departure procedure guidance
R: Route tuning for active route (previous VOR or down path VOR W/I 250nm)
A: Autotuning for best position orientation
M: Manual tuning
Manually enter VOR ID or VOR ID/Course [AOM2 11-72]

196
Q
  1. When will the fuel system automatically balance itself?
A

When jettisoning fuel, system will automatically control fuel balancing between main tanks 2&3 [AOM2 12-16]

197
Q
  1. You are fully configured for takeoff. What are the positions of the number 2 and 3 crossfeed valves? What are the cockpit indications?
A

The FSMCs automatically close crossfeed valves 2&3 when flaps are in the takeoff position on the ground. The stripes on the overhead switches will remain illuminated because the system is operating according to its logic [AOM2 12-14]

198
Q
  1. You are starting the APU. External power is not available. How and from where is fuel supplied to the APU?
A

DC pump in main two [AOM2 12-14]

199
Q
  1. The Auxiliary Hydraulic Pump(s) are powered by what bus or busses?
A

Ground Handling bus [AOM2 6-13]

200
Q
  1. What is the maximum speed for landing gear extension? Operation?
A

VLOE 270/.82
VLE 320/.82 [AOM1 L-11]

KA-400 (33 decks)

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