Pneumonia and TB CIS Kinder Flashcards

1
Q

dry cough
hemorrhage bullous myringitis (inside ear)

cold agglutinins

A

mycoplasma pneumonia

no cell wall so can’t be treated with penicillin

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2
Q

when you have had a splenectomy what are you most at risk for …

A

encapsulated organisms

these patients need to have a pneumococcal vaccination

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3
Q

rust colored sputum

A

strep pneumoniae

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4
Q

current jelly sputum

A

klebsiella

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5
Q

air conditioning systems

low pulse

grows on charcoal yeast extract (requires cysteine and iron)

gram negative

A

legionella

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6
Q

homeless shelter worker

A

TB

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7
Q

cave explorer

A

histoplasma capsulatum

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8
Q

foamy alveolar exudates
small hat shaped lesions on BAL
predisposing condition –> AIDS

fever, non productive cough, hypotension

A

pneumocystis jirovecii

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9
Q

with sickle cell disease –> these patients are most at risk for what organisms

A

strep pneumoniae

encapsulated

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10
Q

what is clindamycin good for

A

anaerobes

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11
Q

lancet shaped

A

strep pneumoniae

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12
Q

methenamine silver stain of lung tissue

A

pneumocystis jirovecii

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13
Q

at what CD4 level do you start prophylaxis for fungal infection

A

Less than 200

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14
Q

croup

A

parainfluenza

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15
Q

which antibiotic is most appropriate for legionella

A

erythromycin (Azithromycin) - macrolide

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16
Q

bactrim DS used against what organism

A

pneumocystis jirovecii

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17
Q

clindaymcin is used to treat what?

A

anaerobes - aspiration pneumonia

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18
Q

methicillin or nafcillin is used to treat what

A

staph

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19
Q

small, painful rash and red bumps on his lower legs

A

erythema nodosum

seen in coccidiodes immitis

also seen in sarcoidosis

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20
Q

green sputum

HAP

A

pseudomonas aeruginosa

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21
Q

pyocyanin

A

pseudomonas aeruginosa

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22
Q

transmitted by flea bites

A

yersinia pestis

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23
Q

fungus ball

A

aspergillus flavus

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24
Q

AFB culture and stain

A

tuburculosis diagnosis

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25
gram stain of sputum
diagnosis for typical pneumonia
26
if a patient just has a positive ppd test but no active disease... what would you do next...
INH for 6 months
27
bilateral rales, wheezing and intercostal retractions with grunting child at daycare
RSV
28
kidney shaped diplococci capsule seen in elderly usually
moraxella catarrhalis
29
TB medication that causes vertigo sensation/visual impairment
ethambutol
30
orange discolored urine body fluids
rifampin
31
weight loss, fatigue, cough, sputum production, hemoptysis, dyspnea, fever, night sweats
TB
32
broad based buds Louisiana
blastomycosis
33
5 mm or more positive PPD skin test is positive in what patients
HIV positive recent close contacts with TB persons with nodular or fibrotic changes on CXR more...
34
10 mm or positive PPD skin test is positive in what patients
patient traveling from TB endemic country prisons, nursing homes, hospitals injection drug users
35
peripheral neuropathy adverse effect of this TB drug
isoniazid can also be caused by streptomycin and ethambutol
36
rabbits skin manifestations ***
tularemia
37
MAC
CD4 count < 50 abdominal pain and diarrhea
38
most common cause of post-influenzal bacterial pneumonia
staph aureus
39
thumb sign on lateral neck X-ray
h. influenzae causing epiglottitis
40
deer mouse is the primary reservoir rodents shed the virus through urine, droppings and saliva
hanta virus febrile phase:Symptoms include fever, chills, sweaty palms, explosive diarrhea, malaise, headaches, nausea, abdominal pain, back pain, and SOB. Lasts 3-7 days hypotensive phase oliguric phase diuretic phase convalescent phase
41
when you look at a PPD what do you look at ? Induration or erythema?
induration! it has to be 5 mm of induration
42
roth spots, osler's nodes janeway lesions splinter hemorrhages seen in what condition
endocarditis so a patient who has used IV drugs/prostitute with staph endocarditis leading to staph pneumonia
43
35 year old sheep*** rancher, who for the last 10 days has had a high fever of 104.5F***, headache, chills, myalgias, malaise, and dry, non-productive cough. This came on suddenly, and persisted. There are decreased breath sounds bilaterally. The chest x-ray reveals a patchy infiltrate with multiple round, segmental opacities. There is a large area of left lower lobe consolidation. Hepatomegaly is noted, along with elevated AST and ALT levels. Is this caused by? A. An intracellular pathogenic bacteria similar to rickettsia, but with genetic and physiologic differences. B. An aerobic gram positive bacteria that forms spores. C. An alpha-hemolytic gram positive organism D. An organism that stains acid fast E. An organism without a cell wall
A. An intracellular pathogenic bacteria similar to rickettsia, but with genetic and physiologic differences. gram negative this is coxiella burnetii sheep and goats!! Q fever has splenomegaly and hepatomegaly
44
5% of endocarditis cases Normal flora Common Cause of endocarditis in non-IV drug users Difficult to diagnose- often takes 3 months
HACEK organisms ``` Haemophilus spp Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans Cardiobacterium hominis Eikenella corrodens Kingella spp ```
45
most common cause of bronchiolitis and pneumonia in children under 1 year of age in the US
RSV
46
``` Which organism listed below is among the most common causing an exacerbation of COPD and patients who have smoked for a very long time? A. Myocoplasma pneumoniae B. Moraxella catarrhalis C. Chlamyida pneumoniae D. TWAR E. Pseudomonas aeruginosa ```
moraxella catarrhalis common cause of pneumonia in elderly and patients with COPD
47
brain abscess causing in HIV patients -ring enhancing brain lesion on CT/MRI cats tachyzoites that stain with H and E
toxoplasma gondii
48
a disorder that begins with a flu symptoms stage that resolves and comes back affecting the liver, lungs, kidneys going to renal failure associated with animal urine
leptospirosis - spirochete
49
strep pneumonia has what type of response by the immune system?
humoral immunity with encapsulated organism antibody mediated
50
CD4 count < 200
PCP
51
CD4 count < 100
toxoplasmosis
52
CD4 count < 50
MAC CMV cryptococcus meningitis
53
in a patient who gets classic pneumonia who has no spleen, how do they acquire the infection?
no longer has the full ability to produce opsonzing IgG antibody to the encapsulated organism
54
dapsone
for patients who are allergic to sulfa
55
bird and bat guano
histoplasma capsulatum
56
Gram stain demonstrates the presence of a gram negative coccus that has a prominent polysaccharide capsule and grows on “ chocolate” agar. can cause petechiae, purpura
n. meningitides
57
what drug do you use as prophylaxis if you have been exposed to n. meningitides
rifampin
58
orange urine
rifampin
59
treat aspiration pneumonia with what
clindamycin
60
Spore forming gram-positive non motile rod that is aerobic or facultatively anaerobic, catalase positive, hemolysis negative Grows on sheep agar Zoonotic infection from goats, sheep, cattle, antelope, kudu, pigs, horses, zebu, and other animals. Animal related products include meat, wool, hides, bones, and hair Soil contaminated with spores
bacillus anthracis
61
what are the signs on EKG of PE?
Most common finding--> sinus tachycardia other finding: S1 Q3 T3 S wave in lead I Q in lead III inverted T wave in lead III