Antimycobacterial Agents (Linger DSA) Flashcards

1
Q

what are the mechanisms by which mycobacterial cells confer resistance? and how does this effect the duration of drugs and number of different drugs used

A

a) the lipid-rich mycobacterial cell wall, which is not easily penetrated by drugs,
b) the tendency to hide as intracellular pathogens (primarily within macrophages),
c) an abundance of efflux pumps in the cell membrane, which pump drugs out of the mycobacterial cytoplasm back into the extracellular space, and
d) the ability to develop single-agent resistance.
e) As a result, treatment almost always includes more than one agent and is administered for months to years depending on which drugs are used.

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2
Q

what is the standard treatment for latent TB and how long is this treatment

what is an equivalent to this therapy

A

INH for 9 months daily or intermittently

INH and rifapentine given weekly for 12 weeks is an equal alternative

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3
Q

what should be used for INH resistant strains

A

rifampin alone for 4 months

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4
Q

what is the standard therapy of active TB

A

2 month initial phase and a continuation phase of either 4 or 7 months

initial therapy *until susceptibility results are in...
-INH
rifampin
pyrazinamide
ethambutol
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5
Q

when susceptibility results are in, what drug can be removed

A

ethambutol
(if the drug is susceptible to INH, rifampin, or pyrazinamide)

patients who can’t take pyrazinamide (those with severe liver disease) should take -INH, rifampin and ethambutol

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6
Q

for patients with drug susceptible infection and one or no risk factors (cavitary disease at presentation and a positive sputum culture taken at 2 months) should take what for continuation therapy and how long

A

INH
rifampin
4 months

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7
Q

for patients with both risk factors ((cavitary disease at presentation and a positive sputum culture taken at 2 months), the continuation phase therapy should include what

A

INH and rifampin for 7 months

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8
Q

if sputum cultures remain positive after 4 months of treatment , what should be considered

A

malabsorption, nonadherence to treatment, or infection with drug-resistant TB should be considered and treatment duration extended

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9
Q

why is it not useful to use single -agent therapy

A

b/c resistance mutants are readily selected out

(4) Two or more active agents should always be used to treat active TB to prevent emergence of resistance during therapy

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10
Q

the addition of pyrazinamide to an INH-rifampin combination for the first 2 months allows for what?

A

total duration of therapy to be reduced to 6 months without the loss of efficacy

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11
Q

what is the 4 drug therapy that is initiated first until susceptibility of clinical isolate has been determined

A

INH
rifampin
pyrazinamide
and either ethambutol or streptomycin

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12
Q

what is MD resistance TB resistant to

A

both INH and rifampin

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13
Q

what 3 first line drugs cause drug induced hepatitis and which one is the most hepatotoxic

A

INH, rifampin, and pyrazinamide (pyrazinamide is probably the most hepatotoxic)

(3) If hepatitis (serum AST >3x the upper limit of normal with symptoms or >5x the upper limit of normal with or without symptoms) occurs during the initial phase of treatment, isoniazid, pyrazinamide and rifampin should be stopped; when serum AST levels decrease to <2x the upper limit of normal and symptoms improve, rifampin, isoniazid, and pyrazinamide can be restarted sequentially, one week apart

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14
Q

ocular toxicity occurs from which first line therapy

A

ethambutol

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15
Q

what should you use to treat a patient with drug resistant TB to INH?

for patients who can’t take pyrazinamide?

A

(1) Treat with rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol for 6 months
(2) Rifampin and ethambutol for 12 months for patients who cannot take pyrazinamide
(3) A fluoroquinolone (levofloxacin or moxifloxacin) may be added as they are well tolerated in patients with drug-induced hepatic dysfunction

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16
Q

what should be used in patients with DR-TB to rifamycin

A

(1) At least 12 months of treatment with INH, ethambutol, and a fluoroquinolone
(2) Pyrazinamide should also be used during the initial 2 months of therapy

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17
Q

what is the empiric therapy for suspected MDR-TB

A

(5) Empiric therapy for suspected MDR-TB often includes isoniazid, rifampin, ethambutol, pyrazinamide, an aminoglycoside (streptomycin) or capreomycin, a fluoroquinolone and, if needed, cycloserine, ethionamide and/or p-aminosalicylic acid (PAS)

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18
Q

testing for what is recommended for all pt’s with TB

A

HIV

ii) Patients with HIV, once infected with M. tuberculosis, are at markedly greater increased risk of developing active TB disease

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19
Q

what is the problem with giving anti-TB drugs to patients who are taking antiretroviral therapy (ART) for HIV?f

A

rifamycins induce CYP450’s and can accelerate the metabolism of protease inhibitors (PI’s) and some NNRTI’s thus reducing their antiviral efficacy

rifampin is the MOST potent inducer

rifabutin is the LEAST

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20
Q

what is meant by the statement “TB is an AID’s defining illness”

in what patients (what CD4 level) should ART be started with TB treatment and when

A

(a) TB is an AIDS-defining illness, meaning that an HIV-positive patient who is relatively asymptomatic and not on ART progresses to an AIDS diagnosis when TB is confirmed, thus ART is recommended
(c) In patients with CD4 counts 50 cells/mm3) should probably wait until after the initial phase of TB treatment to begin ART in order to reduce the risk of adverse events and IRIS

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21
Q

what is the role of TNF in TB

A

plays a major role in the initial and long-term control of tuberculosis

so patients who have LTBI who are taking a TNF alpha inhibitor are at high risk for development of active TB disease

TNF alpha inhibitors are usually stopped in patients with active TB

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22
Q

for a pregnant patient with LTBI , when should you start treatment?

UNLESS WHAT

A

2-3 months after delivery due to risk of hepatotoxicity and lack of data on teratogenicity

UNLESS the woman is HIV positive or has been recently infected with TB (DO NOT DELAY)

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23
Q

what if a patient is pregnant and has active TB

A

treat!!!!

INH, rifampin, and ethambutol (all cross placenta but none are known to be teratogenic) for two months

followed by isoniazid and rifampin for seven months

vi) Pregnant or post-partum women receiving isoniazid for LTBI or active TB disease and their breastfeeding infants should take pyridoxine

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24
Q

what TB drugs should be avoided in prego mom’s

A

streptomycin – causes congenital deafness

(2) Kanamycin, amikacin, and capreomycin are assumed to share the toxicity of streptomycin

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25
Q

what is KatG

A

it is the mycobacterial catalase peroxidase that activates isoniazid prodrug into active drug

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26
Q

do you need to adjust the dose of INH for patients in renal failure

A

no

27
Q

what is the mechanism of action of INH

A

inhibits synthesis of mycolic acids (essential components of the mycobacterial cell wall)

(2) Active form of INH forms a covalent complex with an acyl carrier protein (AcpM) and a beta-ketoacyl carrier protein synthetase (KasA), which blocks mycolic acid synthesis and kills the cell

28
Q

what are the mechanisms of resistance against INH

inhA

katG

kasA

A

(1) Mutations that result in overexpression of inhA, which encodes an NADH-dependent acyl carrier protein reductase (low-level INH resistance and cross-resistance to ethionamide)
(2) Mutation or deletion of the katG gene (high-level INH resistance and often are not cross-resistant to ethionamide)
(3) Promoter mutations resulting in overexpression of ahpC, a putative virulence gene involved in protection of the cell from oxidative stress
(4) Mutations in kasA

29
Q

what are the adverse reactions of INH

A

INH-induced hepatitis
clinical hepatitis - stop drug right away, risk increases in alcoholics

peripheral neuropathy - at high doses can occur and is more likely to be seen in patients with predisposing conditions such as malnutrition, alcoholism, DM, AIDS, uremia

CNS effects- seizures, memory loss

30
Q

why does peripheral neuropathy occur in INH use and how can it be reversed

A

(6) Peripheral neuropathy is due to a relative pyridoxine (vitamin B6) deficiency: INH promotes the excretion of pyridoxine; pyridoxine supplementation reverses neuropathy and other CNS effects

31
Q

what are the contraindications for INH use

A

in people who develop INH - induced hepatitis or have had serious rxn (drug fever, chills, arthritis) to isoniazid

32
Q

what is the MOA of rifampin

A

binds to the β-subunit of bacterial DNA-dependent RNA polymerase and inhibits RNA synthesis

(2) Readily penetrates most tissues, penetrates into phagocytic cells, and can kill organisms that are poorly accessible to other agents (e.g., intracellular organisms and those sequestered in abscesses and lung cavities)

33
Q

what are the mechanisms of resistance of rifampin

A

several point mutations exist in the rpoB gene that encodes the β-subunit of RNA polymerase that confer resistance (reduce rifampin binding to RNA polymerase)

34
Q

when can rifampin be given as a single drug?

A

(c) May be given as a single drug in patients with latent TB only (alternative to INH) who are unable to take INH, or who have had exposure to active TB caused by an INH-resistant, rifampin-susceptible strain

35
Q

what are some other indications for rifampin besides TB

A

(a) Meningococcal carriage – elimination of meningococci from the nasopharynx in asymptomatic carriers
(b) Prophylaxis in contacts of children with Haemophilus influenza type b
(c) Staphylococcal carriage (in combination with a second agent)
D. serious staph infections (osteomyelitis, prosthetic valve endocarditis)

36
Q

how does rifampin affect P450

A

inducer!

37
Q

in what patients should extreme care with taking rifampin be taken?

A

(a) Rifampin should be used with extreme caution in patients with HIV who are taking protease and nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs), see below
(b) Half-lives of agents metabolized by CYP450s are reduced (e.g., digoxin, propranolol, ketoconazole, metoprolol, verapamil, methadone, corticosteroids, oral contraceptives)

38
Q

what are some adverse side effects of rifampin

A

HARMLESS red/orange color to urine, feces, saliva, sweat, tears, CSF, contacts

Rashes
GI disturbance

thrombocytopenia

nephritis

hepatotoxicity (less common than INH)

if administered less than 2x/week it can cause flu-like syndrome

39
Q

how does pH affect Pyrazinamide

A

inactive at neutral pH

inhibits tubercle bacilli and other mycobacteria at pH 5.5 in vitro

40
Q

how does pyrazinamide prodrug get to its active form pyrazinoic acid

A

by mycobacterial pyrazinamidase (encoded by pncA)

41
Q

should you adjust the dose of pyrazinamide in pt’s with poor renal function?

A

yes

42
Q

what is the MOA of pyrazinamde

A

the exact MOA is unknown

but the drug is taken up by macrophages where it is converted to pyrazinoic acid (POA-) which is then transported to the extracellular millieu by efflux pump

disrupts mycobacterial cell membrane synthesis and transport functions

43
Q

what are the mechanisms of resistance of bugs to pyrazinamide

A

impaired uptake

mutations in pncA that impair biotransformation to active form

44
Q

what are the 4 adverse rxns of pyrazinamide

A

(1) Hepatotoxicity (1-5% of patients, probably the most hepatotoxic of first-line agents)
(2) GI upset (nausea, vomiting) is fairly common
(3) Hyperuricemia (may provoke gouty arthritis)
(4) Most common cause of drug rash among the first-line agents

45
Q

should you adjust dose of ethambutol for renal abnormal patients

A

yes

46
Q

what is the MOA of ethambutol

embCAB

A

inhibits mycobacterial arabinosyl transferases, which are encoded by the embCAB operon

(2) Arabinosyl transferases are involved in the polymerization reaction of arabinoglycan, an essential component of the mycobacterial cell wall

47
Q

what are the mechanisms of resistance of bugs against ethambutol

A

mutations resulting in overexpression of emb gene products

mutations within the embB gene

48
Q

what is the clinical use of ethambutol

A

(1) Given in four-drug initial combination therapy for TB until drug sensitivities are known
(2) Higher dose is recommended for treatment of TB meningitis
(3) Also used for atypical mycobacterial infections

49
Q

what are the adverse reactions of use of ethambutol

in what patients is ethambutol contraindicated

A

(1) Retrobulbar neuritis, resulting in loss of visual acuity and red-green color blindness, is the most common serious adverse event and is dose-dependent
(2) Relatively contraindicated in children too young to permit assessment of visual acuity and red-green color discrimination

50
Q

what is the MOA of streptomycin

A

irreversible inhibitor of protein synthesis, but exact mechanism for bactericidal activity is not known

(2) Binds to the S12 ribosomal protein of the 30S subunit
(3) Poorly penetrates cells and is active mainly against extracellular tubercle bacilli

51
Q

what are the mechanisms of resistance of bugs against streptomycin

rpsL
rrs

A

(1) Mutations in either the rpsL gene encoding the S12 ribosomal protein or the rrs gene encoding 16S ribosomal rRNA, which alter the ribosomal binding site

52
Q

what mycobacterium are susceptible to streptomycin

A

m. tuberculosis
m. avium complex
m. kansasii

53
Q

what is the clinical use of streptomycin

A

(1) Used when an injectable drug is needed or desirable – patients with severe or life-threatening forms of TB (e.g., meningitis and disseminated disease) and in the treatment of infections resistant to other drugs

54
Q

what are the adverse reactions of streptomycin

in what pt’s is streptomycin contraindicated

A

ototoxicity- vertigo and hearing loss
nephrotoxicity

pregnancy CT - causes deafness in the newborn

55
Q

which 1st line agent is ethionamide related to

A

INH

blocks synthesis of mycolic acids

single agent therapy results in rapid resistance

seriously adverse side effects (hepatotoxicity, intense gastric irritation, thyroid and neuro effects)

56
Q

capreomycin

MOA

uses ?

A

i) Peptide protein synthesis inhibitor antibiotic obtained from Streptomyces capreolus
ii) IM injections at appropriate levels inhibit many mycobacteria, including multidrug-resistant strains of TB (MDR-TB)

most like streptomycin

57
Q

cycloserine

A

inhibitor of cell wall synthesis

2nd line agent

similar to INH mechanism

58
Q

kanamycin and amikacin

A

aminoglycosides similar to streptomycin

protein synthesis inhibitors

ii) Kanamycin has previously been used to treat streptomycin-resistant TB but due to the availability of less toxic alternatives (capreomycin, amikacin) its use is less common
iii) Amikacin is a semisynthetic derivative of kanamycin; it is less toxic than the parent compound
iv) Most multi-drug resistant and streptomycin-resistant TB strains (indications for use) are susceptible to amikacin; most atypical mycobacteria are also susceptible to amikacin

59
Q

fluoroquinolones

A

block bacterial DNA synthesis by inhibiting bacterial DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV

iii) Resistance is due to the development of point mutations in the gyrase A subunit and occurs rapidly when fluoroquinolones are used as a single agent

used in pt’s with TB resistant to first line agents

60
Q

linezolid

A

used with other 2nd line agents to treat MDR-TB

ii) Significant (and potentially treatment-limiting) adverse effects include bone marrow suppression and irreversible peripheral and optic neuropathy

61
Q

rifabutin

A

related to rifampin

active against m. tuberculosis, MAC, and m. fortuitum .

inducer of CYP450 (less potent than rifampin)

v) Indicated in preference of rifampin in patients with HIV who are receiving concurrent antiretroviral therapy with a protease inhibitor or nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (e.g., efavirenz), which are also substrates of CYP450s

effective in prevention and treatment of disseminated atypical mycobacterial infection in patients with AIDS

62
Q

M. leprae is treated with what drug combo

A

dapsone
rifampin
clofazimine

63
Q

dapsone

A

b) Dapsone and other sulfones
i) Similar to sulfonamides, sulfones inhibit folate synthesis
ii) Well absorbed from the GI tract and widely distributed; excreted in the bile; typically acetylated
iii) Hemolysis and methemoglobinemia are common
iv) May also be used to prevent and treat Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia in AIDS patients

64
Q

clofazimine

A

i) Half-life may be up to 2 months because it is stored in reticuloendothelial tissues and skin
ii) Unknown mechanism of action
iii) Indicated for sulfone-resistant leprosy or when patients are intolerant to sulfones
iv) Adverse effects include skin discoloration ranging from red-brown to black; gastrointestinal intolerance occasionally occurs