Drugs for the treatment of Resp infections (Kinder - lecture) Flashcards

1
Q

what patients are excluded from the general guidelines of management of community acquired pneumonia ?

A

Immunocompromised patients

Solid organ, bone marrow, or stem cell transplant

Those receiving chemotherapy

Long-term high dose corticosteroids (> 30 days)

Congenital or acquired immunodeficiency

HIV with CD4 count < 350 cells/mm3

Children ≤ 18 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the CURB-65 score based on? what criteria?

A

it is a tool to assess pneumonia severity

Confusion

Uremia (BUN > 19 mg/dL)

Respiratory rate (≥ 30 breaths/min)

Low blood pressure

SBP < 90 mmHg, DBP ≤ 60 mmHg

Age (≥ 65 Years)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

CURB-65 score of 0-1

A

treat as outpatient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

score of 2 (CURB-65)

A

admit to hospital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Score of >3 (CURB-65)

A

admit to ICU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are the minor criteria that are included with CURB - 65 score to determine need for ICU admission (x3)

A

WBC < 4000 cells/mm3
PLT < 100,000 cells/mm3
Core temperature < 36 ˚C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

2 absolute indications for ICU admission

A

mechanical ventilation

septic shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Clinical findings of Community aquired pneumonia?

what if a CXR is negative?

A

cough
fever
sputum production
pleuritic chest pain

demonstratable infiltrate on CXR is required ***

If negative but CAP suspected, initiate antibiotics and repeat CXR in 24-48 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are the atypical bacteria in CAP

3

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

Chlamydophila pneumoniae

Legionella spp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are the most common outpatient bugs in CAP

5

A
Streptococcus pneumoniae (diplococci)
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Haemophilus influenzae
Chlamydophila pneumoniae
Respiratory viruses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

most common bugs in inpatient CAP (non-ICU) ‘

7

A
S. pneumoniae 
M. pneumoniae
C. pneumoniae
H. influenzae
Legionella spp
Aspiration
Respiratory viruses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are the most common bugs in inpatient ICU

5

A
S. pneumoniae
Staphylococcus aureus
Legionella spp
Gram-negative bacilli
H. influenzae
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

infecting organisms and disease state of underlying bronchopulmonary disease?

3

A

H. influenzae
Moraxella catarrhalis
+ S. aureus during an influenza outbreak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

patient on chronic oral steroids or severe underlying bronchopulmonary disease, alcoholism, frequent antibiotic use? what bugs are frequent in them

2

A

Enterobacteriaceae

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Classic aspiration pleuropulmonary syndrome in alcohol/drug overdose or in seizures with gingival disease or esophageal motility disorders

1

A

anaerobes (aspiration of the common mouth bugs that leads to pneumonia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are common viruses in CAP *4

A

Influenza
RSV
Adenovirus
Parainfluenza virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Drug resistant s. pneumoniae (DRSP) is more common in what groups…

5

A

Age < 2 years or > 65 years

B-lactam use within previous 3 months*** (amoxicillin?)

Alcoholism

Immunosuppressive illness or therapy

Exposure to child at day care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

for a previously healthy patient what would you use for CAP

A

Macrolide PO (***azithromycin)

Doxycycline PO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what patients are at risk for drug resistant strep pneumoniae

what would you use to treat patients

one drug

OR

two drugs

A
Comorbidities
age 65
use of antimicrobials (beta lactams) within 3 months
alcoholism
immunosuppressive illness or therapy
exposure to child at day care

Respiratory fluoroquinolone PO (levofloxacin***, moxifloxacin)

B-lactam PO [high dose amoxicillin* or amoxicillin-clavulanate* preferred (alternates: ceftriaxone, cefuroxime)]
PLUS** a macrolide PO (azithromycin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

inpatient, non ICU
what do you use to cover CAP

one drug

OR

one drug PLUS one drug

A

Respiratory FQ IV or PO (levofloxacin***, moxifloxacin)

B-lactam IV (ceftriaxone, cefotaxime, or ampicillin preferred)
PLUS macrolide IV (azithromycin
*)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

inpatient ICU patient . what would you use for coverage for CAP

A

B-lactam IV (ceftriaxone***, cefotaxime, or ampicillin/sulbactam preferred)

PLUS macrolide (azithromycin) IV OR a respiratory FQ (levofloxacin***, moxifloxacin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are the risk factors for pseudomonas?

A

Structural lung disease (bronchiectasis)

Repeated COPD exacerbations
Frequent corticosteroid and/or antibiotic use

Prior antibiotic therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

how do you treat patients with pseudomonas?

2 drugs

OR

1 drug plus 2 drugs

A

Anti-pseudomonal B-lactam IV (piperacillin-tazobactam, cefepime, meropenem)

PLUS FQ–> either ciprofloxacin or levofloxacin

Or

 B-lactam PLUS:
An aminoglycoside (gentamicin) AND azithromycin (covers atypicals)

An aminoglycoside (gentamicin) AND anti-pseudomonal fluoroquinolone (ciprofloxacin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

CA methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus (CA-MRSA) risks….

4

A

End-stage renal disease (dialysis)
Injection drug abuse
Prior influenza
Prior antibiotic use (especially FQ)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

treatment for CA-MRSA

A

Add vancomycin (Glycopeptide- inhibits cells wall synthesis) IV or linezolid (binds P site of 50S ribosome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what criteria allow you do transition from IV to oral therapy?

what are the signs (7) that a person is improving clinically

A

Hemodynamically stable

Improving clinically:
Temperature ≤ 37.8 ˚C
HR ≤ 100 bpm
RR ≤ 24 breaths/min
SBP ≥ 90 mmHg
Arterial 02 saturation ≥ 90% 
Ability to maintain oral intake
Normal mental status

Tolerating oral medications

Normal functioning GI tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is the duration of therapy for antibiotics for CAP

A

Minimum of 5 days treatment

Most patients receive 7-10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what are the criteria for ending of therapy….

what is the exception?

A

Must be afebrile for 48-72 hours
No more than 1 CAP-associated sign of clinical instability

Exception:
Pseudomonas – 8 day course led to more relapse compared to 15 day course

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is the definition of Hospital acquired pneumonia?

A

occurs 48 hours or more after admission

2nd most common nosocomial infection in the U.S.

Increases hospital LOS ~7-9 days

Incidence: 5-10 cases per 1000 admissions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is ventilator associated pneumonia

A

arises 48-72 hours after endotracheal intubation

Occurs in 9-27% of all intubated patients
Incidence increases with longer ventilation duration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Health care associated pneumonia ?

A

associated with history of hospitalization or exposure to healthcare settings

exposure to health care setting

chemo
hemodialysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is early onset of HAP, VAP, HCAP?

late onset?

A

early onset is <4 days

5+ or more days after admission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what are the common pathogens in HAP, VAP, HCAP?

A
Aerobic gram-negative
P. aeruginosa
E. coli
K. pneumoniae
Acinetobacter spp

GPCs (gram positive)
MRSA (more common in diabetes, head trauma, those hospitalized in ICUs)

Oropharyngeal
Viridans group streptococci
Coagulase-negative staphylococci
Neisseria spp
Corynebacterium spp
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Pseduomonas aeruginosa mechanisms for being drug resistant?

A

multiple efflux pumps **

Decreased expression of outer membrane porin channel

Increasing resistance to: piperacillin (b-lactamase inhibitor), ceftazidime (third generation cephalosporin), cefepime (fourth generation cephalosporin), imipenem, meropenem (carbapenem), aminoglycosides, fluoroquinolones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

MRSA (staph aureus)…. resistance mechanisms?

DRSP resistance mechanisms?

A

> 50% of ICU infections caused by S. aureus methicillin resistant

PBPs with reduced affinity for B-lactams

Concern for linezolid resistance but still rare

DRSP:
altered PBP
All MDR strains in US currently susceptible to vancomycin and linezolid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

early onset associated pathogens in HAP

and no known risk factors for MDR pathogens

A

S. pneumoniae
H. influenzae
MSSA

Sensitive gram-negative: E. coli, K. pneumoniae, Enterobacter spp, Proteus spp, Serratia marcescens

37
Q

treatment of early onset HAP

4 stand alone drug classes

A

Ceftriaxone (third generation cephalosporin)

OR FQ (levofloxacin, moxifloxacin, ciprofloxacin) = inhibits DNA gyrase

OR ampicillin/sulbactam

OR ertapenem (Carbapenem)

38
Q

what are the potential pathogens in late onset HAP

A

P. aeruginosa
K. pneumoniae (ESBL+)
Acinetobacter
MRSA

39
Q

treatment of late onset HAP or known risk factors for MDR pathogens

3 drug classes (Or’s)

Plus one drug class or another drug class

Plus one drug class or another drug class

A
Antipseudomonal cephalosporin (cefepime, ceftazidime) 
OR antipseudomonal carbapenem (imipenem, meropenem) 
OR  B-lactam/B-lactamase inhibitor (piperacillin-tazobactam) 
PLUS 
Antipseudomonal FQ (ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin) 
OR aminoglycoside (gentamicin) 

PLUS
Linezolid OR vancomycin

40
Q

why use combination therapy ?

A

Combination therapy recommended to ensure at least one agent is active against the often MDR pathogen

Has been recommended to prevent resistance
Evidence not well documented
Or to add synergy for treatment of P. aeruginosa

Only proven valuable in neutropenia or bacteremia

Use monotherapy when possible

41
Q

duration of therapy of VAP

what do prolonged courses lead to?

A

Good clinical response after 6 days

Prolonged courses leads to MDR pathogen colonization so keep the duration SHORT

Shorten duration to as short as 7 days (traditional 14-21 days)
Unless P. aeruginosa (8 days led to relapse  requires longer treatment course)

42
Q

drugs of choice for streptococcus pneumoniae

non resistant?
resistant?

A

Non-resistant
Penicillin G, amoxicillin

Resistant
Chosen on basis of susceptibility:
cefotaxime, ceftriaxone, levofloxacin, moxifloxacin,

alternatives–> vancomycin, linezolid

43
Q

drugs for haemophilus influenzae

non-Beta lactamase producing bug (1 drug)

b-lactamase producing bug (2 drug classes)

A

Non-B-lactamase producing
Amoxicillin

B-lactamase producing
2nd or 3rd generation cephalosporin, amoxicillin/cluvulanate

44
Q

drugs for mycoplasma pneumoniae

2 drug classes

A

Macrolide (azithromycin, clarithromycin)

tetracycline (doxycycline)

45
Q

chlamydophila pneumoniae drugs of choice (2 drugs)

A

first choice–> tetracycline (doxycycline)

2nd choice–> Macrolide (azithromycin, clarithromycin),

46
Q

drugs for chlamydophilia psittaci

A

Doxycycline

47
Q

legionella spp drugs of choice

2 drugs

1 alternative

A

Fluoroquinolone, azithromycin,

alternative –> doxycycline

48
Q

drugs of choice for enterobacteriaceae

Klebsiella, E. coli, Enterobacter, Proteus

A

3rd or 4th generation cephalosporin, carbapenem (if ESBeta Lactamase producer)

49
Q

drugs of choice for pseudomonas aeruginosa

1 drug class PLUS 1 of 2 other drug classes

A

Antipseudomonal B-lactam (piperacillin-tazobactam) (ampicillin- sulbactam) (amoxicillin-clavulante)

PLUS FQ (ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin) , or an aminoglycoside (gentamicin)

50
Q

drugs of choice for Anaerobe (aspiration): Bacteroides, Fusobacterium, Peptostreptococcus

A

B-lactam/B-lactamase inhibitor,

clindamycin (causes diarrhea- 50S inhibitor of translocation)

51
Q

drugs of choice for staph aureus

A
Methicillin-sensitive
Antistaphylococcal penicillin (nafcillin, oxacillin, dicloxacillin)

Methicillin-resistant
Vancomycin or linezolid

52
Q

drugs for Pneumocystis jiroveci (P. carinii pneumonia)

A

Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (sulfonamides)

53
Q

drugs for bordetella pertussis

A

Azithromycin, clarithromycin

54
Q

drugs for influenza virus

A

Oseltamivir, zanamivir

55
Q

drugs for coccidioides spp

A

No treatment necessary if normal host

Itraconazole, fluconazole

56
Q

drugs for Histoplasmosis and Blastomycosis

A

Itraconazole

57
Q

MOA of B-lactams

A

B-lactams are structural analogs of D-Ala-D-Ala; they covalently bind penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs), inhibiting the last transpeptidation step in cell wall synthesis

58
Q

adverse effects of penicillins

A
Allergic reactions (0.7-10%)
Anaphylaxis (0.004-0.04%)
Interstitial nephritis (rare)
Nausea, vomiting, mild to severe diarrhea
Pseudomembranous colitis
59
Q

resistance mechanisms of B-lactams

A

Structural difference in PBPs- DRSP

Decreased PBP affinity for B-lactams

Inability for drug to reach site of action (i.e. gram-negative organisms)

Active efflux pumps- pseudomonas

Drug destruction and inactivation by B-lactamases- MRSA

60
Q

adverse effects of cephalosporins

A

1% risk of cross-reactivity to penicillins***
Diarrhea
Intolerance to alcohol (disulfram-like reaction due to MTT group of cefotetan)

61
Q

adverse effects of carbapenems

A

Nausea/vomiting (1-20%)
Seizures (1.5%)
Hypersensitivity

62
Q

MOA of vancomycin (glycopeptide)

A

inhibits cell wall synthesis binding with high affinity to D-Ala-D-Ala terminal of cell wall precursor units.

63
Q

adverse effects of vancomycin

A

Macular skin rash, chills, fever, rash
Red-man syndrome*** (histamine release): extreme flushing, tachycardia, hypotension

Ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity (33% with initial tr > 20 mcg/mL)

64
Q

resistance mechansims of vancomycin

A

alteration of D-Ala-D-Ala target to D-alanyl-D-lactate or D-alanyl-D-serine which binds glycopeptides poorly. Intermediate resistance may also occur

65
Q

fluoroquinolones MOA

A

concentration-dependent, targets bacterial DNA gyrase & topoisomerase IV. Prevents relaxation of positive supercoils

66
Q

resistance mechanisms of bugs to fluorquinolones

A

mutation in genes encoding DNA gyrase or topoisomerase IV.

Active transport out of cell.

67
Q

adverse effects of fluoroquinolones

A

GI 3-17% (mild nausea, vomiting, abdominal discomfort)

CNS 0.9-11% (mild headache, dizziness, delirium, rare hallucinations)

Rash, photosensitivity, Achilles tendon rupture*** (CI in children)

68
Q

what are the 30S inhibitors and what are the adverse side effects

A

Aminoglycosides
ADRs: ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity, neuromuscular block

Tetracyclines
ADRs: GI, superinfections with C. difficile, photosensitivity, teeth discoloration** (don’t use in peds)

69
Q

what are the 50S inhibitors

A

Macrolides (azithromycin)
ADRs: GI, hepatotoxicity, arrhythmia

Clindamycin (gram + or anearobes)
ADRs: diarrhea, C. difficile, skin rash

Streptogramins
ADRs: infusion pain and phlebitis

Linezolid
ADRs: myelosuppression, headache, rash

70
Q

how is influenza transmitted

incubation period?

A
Respiratory droplets (cough, sneeze, talk)
Contaminated surfaces

Incubation: 1-4 days (average 2 days)

Viral shedding: day after symptoms to 5-10 days after illness onset

71
Q

what are the symptoms of influenza

A
Symptoms (abrupt onset):
Fever
Myalgia
Headache
Malaise
Non-productive cough
Sore throat
Rhinitis

Symptoms resolve after 3-7 days (uncomplicated)
Cough/malaise can last > 2 weeks

72
Q

Nueurominidase inhibitors MOA

A

Oseltamivir (PO)

analogs of sialic acid, interferes with release of progeny influenza virus from infected host cell

73
Q

what are the neurominidase inhibitors

A

Oseltamivir (PO), zanamivir (INH)

74
Q

what re the adverse effects of oseltamivir (tamiflu)

A

nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain (5-10%), headache, fever, diarrhea, neuropsychiatric effects

glomerular filtration and tubular secretion are how it is eliminated so you must adjust for renal problems!

Approved for children ≥ 1 year

75
Q

what are the resistance mechansims of bugs against neurominidase inhibitors

A

point mutation in viral hemagglutinin (HA) or neuraminidase (NA) surface proteins

97.4% seasonal H1N1 resistant to oseltamivir 2008-2009
All influenza A & B viruses susceptible to both drugs

76
Q

what is the therapeutic use of neurominidase inhibitors

A

influenza prophylaxis (household and institutional), influenza treatment

77
Q

what are the resistance mechanisms against M2 channel blockers

A

point mutations, marked resistance limiting use of these agents

78
Q

what is the therapeutic use of acyclovir and valacyclovir

A

genital herpes (treatment, prophylaxis, suppression), varicella, HSV encephalitis, neonatal HSV treatment

79
Q

therapeutic use of Ganciclovir (PO, IV), valganciclovir (PO)

A

CMV retinitis treatment, CMV prophylaxis

80
Q

azole antifungal MOA

A

inhibits fungal cytochrome P450, reducing production of ergosterol

Selective toxicity due to greater affinity for fungal rather than human cytochrome P450 enzymes

81
Q

what is ergosterol

A

is found in cell membrane of fungi (compared to cholesterol used in bacteria and human cells)

82
Q

what re the therapeutic uses of azole antifungals

A

wide spectrum of activity against Candida spp, blastomycosis, coccidiodomycosis, histoplasmosis, and even Aspergillus (itraconazole, voriconazole)

83
Q

adverse effects of azole antifungals

A

minor GI upset, abnormalities in liver enzymes

drug interactions - inhibition of hepatic P450’s

warfarin–> since it inhibits hepatic P450 then it can become toxic more quickly

84
Q

what are 3 azole antifungals

A

fluconazole

itraconazole

voriconazole

85
Q

what is the therapeutic use of amphotericin B

A

broadest spectrum of activity, useful in life-threatening infections but very toxic

86
Q

major adverse effects of Voriconazole

A

visual changes, photosensitivity

87
Q

what drug has increased drug absorption by food and low gastric pH

A

itraconazole

88
Q

which azole antifungal has good CSF penetration

A

fluconazole