PNB 2274 Exam 4 TANNER/CHEN Flashcards

1
Q

rectus muscles

A

left, right, up, down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

oblique muscles

A

angular directions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

abducens

A

lateral rectus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

trochlear

A

superior oblique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

cornea

A

shields eye from germs and dust, focuses light onto retina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

iris

A

colored disc; separates cornea from lens

creates anterior and posterior chamber

aperture for light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

anterior chamber

A

between cornea and iris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

posterior chamber

A

between iris and lens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

eye color pigments

A

melanin, lipochrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

melanin

A

brown color

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

lipochrome

A

gold tone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

no pigment in iris

A

pink from blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

some pigment in iris

A

blue from radiscattering

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

sphincter pupillae

A

contracts to make pupil small

parasympathetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

dilator pupillae

A

relaxes to dilate eye

sympathetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

relaxed ciliary muscle

A

ligaments taut, lens stretched, refracts less light

distance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

contracted ciliary msucle

A

ligaments loose, lens relaxed, more refraction of light

close focus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

lens

A

adjust focus to near and far

provides mode of transduction for muscle contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

aqueous humor

A

water fluid, refracts light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

vitreous humor

A

gelatinous collagen fibers, maintains pressure of eye

hyaluronic acid gives structure; peripheral cells, inorganic salts, ascorbic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

fovea

A

many cones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

macula

A

with fovea; area of highest visual acuity due to cone density

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

macula degeneration

A

lack of blood flow that causes blindness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

optic disc

A

nerve entry point; blind spot due to no sensory cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

pigments

A

absorb light; melanin keeps photons from bouncing around

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

cones

A

detect light and color; day vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

cone pigment

A

opsin
3 visual pigments named by peak absorption
red, green, blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

red/green colorblindness

A

loss of red gene, perception of yellow and orange as green

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

rods

A

light intensity, sensitive to scattered light; night vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

rod pigment

A

rhodopsin = opsin and retinal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

inactive (in dark) rhodopsin

A

11-cis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

active (in light) rhodopsin

A

11-trans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

rod cells in the dark

A
rhodopsin inactive
cGMP levels high
CNG channels open
membrane depolarizing
NT released
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

depth perception

A

when light hits 2D surface, there are 2 cues for 3D:

monocular, binocular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

monocular cue for depth perception

A

determines distance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

binocular cue for depth perception

A

stereopsis; relative positions

based on retinal disparity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

horizontal cells

A

large receptive fields

allows eyes to adjust to light from lateral inhibition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

amacrine cells

A

producing type M cells and integrates rods and cones with bipolar cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

bipolar cells

A

brightness and color contrast; graded response; two types

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

why do bipolar cells use graded responses?

A

graded potentials are important because light intensity varies whereas regular AP is all or none

Varying light allows varying depolarization with varying vesicular release of NT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

on bipolar cells

A

depolarization/ responsive in light
glutamate hyperpolarizes

light hits rods; rods release less NT; stops hyperpolarization; bipolar cell is now active

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

off bipolar cells

A

hyperpolarization in light
glutamate depolarizes

darkness hits rods; rods release a lot of NT; bipolar cell depolarizes and is active

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

lateral geniculate nucleus

A

4 parvi layers, a copule magni layers
point to point projection from retina to LGN

3 parallel pathways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

3 parallel pathways in LGN

A

m-blob pathway
p-blob pathway
p-interblob pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

m-blob pathway

A

rod pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

p-blob pathway

A

color perception (cone) pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

p-interblob pathway

A

depth, form (cone) pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

primary visual cortex (striate; V1)

A

2D primal sketch; no color, depth, or form

simple cortical cells, complex cortical cells

two streams:
dorsal and ventral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

simple cortical cells

A

perceives bars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

complex cortical cells

A

perceives other stimuli with wider fields; more preference for orientation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

dorsal stream

A

where pathway
motion

towards upper portion of head

motion and eye movement to inferior parietal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

ventral stream

A

what pathway
form and color

towards side of head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

inferior temporal lobe (V4)

A

form and color

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

medial temporal lobe

A

motion processing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

association visual cortex (extrastriate)

A

25 higher visual processing areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

inferior temporal cortex

A

facial recognition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

achromatopia

A

color can be sensed but there is no comprehension of it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

sound wave

A

pressure waves impinging on the air which creates a compression wave which is perceived as sound

characterized by frequency and intensity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

frequency

A

how often the waves strike the air
directly related to pitch
measured in hertz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

frequencies humans can hear

A

20-20kHz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

intensity

A

loudness; amplitude of sound waves

measured in decibles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

external ear (pinna)

A

funnels sound into ear canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

middle ear

A

auditory ossicles

incus, stapes, malleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

auditory ossicles

A

force multiplier; deal with impedance mismatch and transduce air waves into water waves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

process of sound transmission

A

air vibrates tympanic membrane which are amplified and transduced by auditory ossicles into water waves; this fluid vibrates the oval window of the cochlea; first travels through the vestibular canal, then tympanic, towards round window

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

impedence

A

difference in how medias conduct waves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

impedance mismatch

A

difference in how readily the different media conduct waves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

cochlea

A

uses hair cells to transduce waves into electrochemical signal and connects to auditory nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

semicircular canals

A

balance and sense of accelleration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

vestibular apparatus

A

balance and accelleration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

oval and round window

A

membranes to prevent leaks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

3 canals/ ducts in cochlea

A

tympanic, vestibular, cochlear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

cochlear duct

A

organ of corti;
fundamental hearing organ
basilar membrane and hair cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

basilar membrane

A

thick and thin at different ends and can vibrate at different frequencies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

inner hair cells

A

sensory receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

outer hair cells

A

increase amplitude and sound clarity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

tympanic reflex

A

very loud sounds (high amplitude) can cause damage

reflex: the tensor tympani and stapedius muscle contract and put a limit on the tympanic membrane vibration to limit sound transmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

kinocilium

A

peak stereocilium; moved with tectorial membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

when stereocilium bend towards the kinocilium…

A

cell depolarizes from mechanical opening of nonselective cation channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

when stereocilium bend away from the kinocilium…

A

cell hyperpolarizes from the mechanical closing of nonselective cation channels and K+ leak channels dominate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

endolymph

A

hair on the hair cell fluid; 80mV, high K+ concentration (calcium is low because it degrades tip links)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Perilymph

A

hair CELL fluid; 0mv; low K+ concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

cochlear duct

A

scala media

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

vestibular canal

A

scala vestibuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

tympanic canal

A

scala tympani

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

upward phase of basilar membrane

A

tip links open; depolarization; excitation of sensory neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

downward phase of basilar membrane

A

tip links close; hyperpolarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

frequency coding

A

physical mechanism for sound transmission

low frequencies: vibrates helicotroma region because it is thinner and less rigid

high frequencies: vibrates close to oval window

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

labeled line system

A

neurons that make contact with hair cells at/near oval window are tagged to represent a different frequency than neurons

tonotopic map

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

alternating current (AC)

A

up to 1000 Hz; high fidelity

300 Hz = 300x depolarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

direct current (DC)

A

2000 Hz and up; low fidelity because baseline is more depolarized and depolarization is therefore more favorable

92
Q

direct current (DC)

A

2000 Hz and up; low fidelity because baseline is more depolarized and depolarization is therefore more favorable

93
Q

intensity coding

A

frequency of AP is proportional to loudness

rate coding: neuron firing is indicative of intensity

94
Q

phase lock firing

A

cannot fire at high frequencies, so hair cells will respond but neuron will fire at intervals

95
Q

PRIMARILY how will neurons rate code at frequencies LESS than 1000Hz?

A

via the labeled line system and AC with high fidelity

96
Q

PRIMARILY how will neurons rate code at frequencies HIGHER than 2000Hz?

A

via the labeled line system and DC with less fidelity (and phase lock firing)

97
Q

somatic nervous system

A

conscious control of motor output; voluntary

98
Q

brainstem pathway

A

indirect; subcortical

alters motor neuron sensitivity and activates feedback loops

axial and proximal muscle control: posture and equilibrium

99
Q

brainstem pathway tracts

A

rubrospinal
tectospinal
vestibulospinal
reticulospinal

100
Q

rubrospinal tract

A

stems from red nucleus; excites flexor and inhibits extensor; movement of limbs (arm, leg)

101
Q

tectospinal tract

A

stems from superior colliculus; visual reflexes and orienting the eye and head towards visual stimuli

102
Q

vestibulospinal tract

A

stems from vestibular nucleus; balance and orientation

103
Q

reticulospinal tract

A

stems from reticular formation; posture and balance

104
Q

corticospinal pathway

A

direct; pyramidal (decussation in medulla)

rapid and fine movements of distal extremities

105
Q

corticospinal pathway tracts

A

lateral corticospinal tract
anterior corticospinal tract
corticobulbar pathway

106
Q

lateral corticospinal tract

A

skilled movements in the limbs (fingers)

107
Q

anterior corticospinal tract

A

innervates axial skeletal muscle; extra source of control

108
Q

corticobulbar pathway

A

voluntary control of head and neck muscle

not in spinal cord

109
Q

dorsolateral pathway

A

control of limbs; fine motor control; skilled movements

rubrospinal, lateral corticospinal

110
Q

ventromedial pathway

A

axial and proximal muscle, posture, balance, equilibrium

reticulospinal, tectospinal, anterior corticospinal, vestibulospinal

111
Q

motor regions of cerebral cortex

A

primary motor cortex (M1)
secondary motor areas
association areas

112
Q

primary motor cortex (M1)

A

direction and speed; sends “go” signal

113
Q

secondary motor areas

A

planning

SMA and premotor

114
Q

supplementary motor area (SMA)

A

bilateral movement

115
Q

premotor cortex

A

mirror neurons (allows you to learn how to use a tool before actually touching it)

116
Q

association areas

A

prefrontal cortex

parietal cortex

117
Q

parietal cortex

A

goal/target location; hand- eye coordination

118
Q

spinal cord motor disorders: quadriplegia

A

paralysis of all limbs

119
Q

spinal cord motor disorders: paraplegia

A

paralysis of lower limbs

120
Q

motor cortex disorders: hemiplegia

A

paralysis of contralateral limbs (M1 damage)

121
Q

motor cortex disorders: hemiparesis

A

weakness, impaired control of contralateral limbs (SMA damage)

122
Q

motor cortex disorders:

secondary / association motor areas

A

apraxia

123
Q

apraxia

A

loss of ability to generate coordinated actions; stroke of premotor or parietal, left hemisphere lesions

124
Q

praxis: outcome of tapping experiments

A

dominant hand generates better movement

125
Q

praxis: outcome of sequential tapping experiments

A

right hand generates better movement

126
Q

why did the right hand generate better sequential tapping movements?

A

hemisphere lateralization: left brain controls the right hand

127
Q

hierarchy of motor control

A
  1. Parietal (uses spatial info to develop action goal)
  2. Premotor / SMA (translates goal into movement trajectory)
  3. Primary motor cortex (translates plan into motor command)
  4. Spine (activates muscles and maintains reflexes)
128
Q

basal nuclei

A

modulates motor output to prevent unwanted movement

129
Q

parkinson’s disease

A

loss of dopaminergic neurons which excites both pathways

fixed by L-dopa (dopamine)

130
Q

characteristics of parkinson’s disease

A

rigidity, slow movement, parkinsonian mask, hands do stuff

131
Q

huntington’s disease

A

destruction of indirect pathway in basal ganglia

132
Q

characteristics of huntington’s disease

A

abnormal involuntary movement because more excitatory; huntington’s chorea

133
Q

afferent neurons

A

neurons going towards the CNS

134
Q

efferent neurons

A

neurons going away from CNS

135
Q

what was the activity in monkeys about?

A

electrical activity was recorded in the M1 in monkeys during reaching movements

finding: when moving hand to the right, neurons don’t fire; when moving hand to the left, they do fire
significance: cells have a preferred direction; tells you which neurons fire during specific directions and you can stimulate these neurons to command movements

136
Q

autonomic nervous system

A

efferent innervation of tissues other than skeletal; involuntary

137
Q

sympathetic autonomic nervous system division

A

fight or flight

lumbar and thoracic spine nuclei

overall excitatory

short pre ganglionic axons, long post ganglionic axons

138
Q

preganglionic neurons in sympathetic

A

all release Ach

139
Q

postganglionic neurons in sympathetic

A

epinephrine and norepinephrine

140
Q

termination of norepinephrine and epinephrine

A

active transport, diffusion, enzymatic degradation (MAO)

141
Q

sympathetic division post-ganglionic neuron

A

sympathetic chain
collateral ganglia
adrenal medulla

142
Q

sympathetic chain

A

paravertebral ganglia directly adjacent to spine on both sides

143
Q

collateral ganglia

A

excretory and alimentary;

celiac
superior mesenteric
inferior mesenteric

144
Q

celiac collateral ganglia

A

stomach and duodenum

145
Q

superior mesenteric collateral ganglia

A

pancreas, liver, kidney, colon

146
Q

inferior mesenteric collateral ganglia

A

colon

147
Q

adrenal medulla post ganglionic neuron

A

endocrine gland; medulla has modified (not quite neuronal) sympathetic ganglion

chromaffin cells in medulla secrete norepi and epi

148
Q

parasympathetic autonomic nervous system division

A

rest and digest

preganglionic nuclei emerge from cranial nerves and sacral region of spinal cord

149
Q

CN III (parasympathetic division)

A

ciliary ganglion; intrinsic eye muscles

150
Q

CN VII (parasympathetic division)

A

pteryopalatine and submandibular ganglion (wtf); nasal, tear, salivary glands

151
Q

CN IX (parasympathetic division)

A

otic ganglion; parotid salivary

152
Q

CN X (parasympathetic division)

A

intramural ganglia; visceral organs of neck, thoracic, abdominal

broad effects
** vagus ** most important

153
Q

nuclei in S2-S4 pelvic nerves (parasympathetic division)

A

intramural ganglia; visceral organs in inferior portion of abdominopelvic cavity

154
Q

target organs of autonomic nervous system

A

cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, adipocyte, glands

155
Q

cholinergic receptor subtypes

A

nicotinic and muscarinic

156
Q

nicotinic cholinergic receptor

A

ionotropic
always excitatory
autonomic ganglia in both divisions

157
Q

nicotinic receptor agonist

A

Ach, Nicotine

158
Q

nicotinic receptor antagonist

A

TEA, currare

159
Q

muscarinic cholinergic receptor subtypes

A

metabotropic

target organs of parasympathetic

160
Q

agonist muscarinic

A

Ach, muscarine

161
Q

antagonist muscarinic

A

atropine

162
Q

adrenergic receptor subtypes

A
alpha 1
alpha 2
beta 1
beta 2
beta 3
163
Q

Alpha 1

A

Gq coupled
smooth muscle constriction
vasoconstriction, increase in BP

164
Q

Alpha 2

A

Gi coupled

inhibitory release of NE and Ach

165
Q

Beta 1

A

Gs coupled

increase in contractility; tachycardia

166
Q

Beta 2

A

Gs coupled

relax, vasodilation

167
Q

Beta 3

A

Gs coupled,

enhance lipolysis

168
Q

horizontal plane sound localization

A
loudness difference (above 3000Hz)
time difference (below 3000Hz)
169
Q

loudness difference horizontal sound localization

A

lateral superior olive encodes location through interaural intensity differences
excitation neuron perceives sound from one hemisphere which excites a neuron in LSO; at the same time, an axon from that hemisphere splits and sends axon to contralateral side and excites inhibition on the contralateral side; one side is all excitatory and perceived as closer to that ear

170
Q

time difference horizontal sound localization

A

medial superior olive computes sound by interaural time differences
series of neurons in MS are connected to neurons from cochlea

171
Q

vertical plane sound localization

A

the phase and change in sound wave; ears reflect and filter sound difference from top and bottom

172
Q

unilateral lesion of auditory cortex

A

little effect

173
Q

bilateral damage of auditory cortex

A

trouble distinguishing frequency and intensity, localization, speech understanding

174
Q

peripheral or cochlear damage

A

unilateral deafness

175
Q

damage to tympanic membrane or ossicles

A

results in impaired perception of all frequencies

176
Q

conductive deafness

A

trouble with sound transmission; modern hearing aid amplifies sound

177
Q

sensorineural (perception) deafness

A

too much excitation results in damaged hair cells which can be fixed with a cochlear implant

178
Q

organs innervated only by sympathetic nervous system

A
adrenal medulla
arrector pili muscles
sweat glands
most blood vessels
nonshivering thermogenesis
179
Q

autonomic reflex centers

A

receptors from sensory neurons pick up stimulus

2 pathways: long and short

180
Q

long autonomic reflex

A

sensory neuron synapses to interneuron spinal cord; interneuron synapses to preganglionic neuron in spinal cord; then to postganglionic neuron; postganglionic neuron will synapse on target organ

181
Q

short autonomic reflex

A

sensory neuron synapses to interneuron; skips preganglionic neuron; then synapses with postganglionic neuron which synapses on target organ

182
Q

sympathetic reflex

A

cardioacceleratory

vasomotor reflex

183
Q

parasympathetic reflex

A

swallowing reflex
gastric and intestinal reflex
coughing reflex

184
Q

endocrine system

A

slow chemical messenger

185
Q

endocrine glands

A

have ducts; pancreas, thyroid pituitary, parathyroid, adrenal, gonads, placenta

186
Q

endocrine tissues

A

lungs, heart, liver, GI, adipose

187
Q

tissues that modify hormones

A

lungs, skin, liver, kidney

188
Q

peptide hormone synthesis

A

preprohormone to prohormone to hormone

189
Q

release of peptides and catecholamines

A

exocytosis

190
Q

release of steroids and thyroid hormones

A

simple diffusion

191
Q

transport of steroids and thyroid hormones

A

carrier proteins

192
Q

half life of peptide and catecholamines

A

short

193
Q

half life of steroids and thyroid hormones

A

long

194
Q

transport of peptides and catecholamines

A

dissolution in plasma

195
Q

response to binding peptide and catecholamines

A

second messenger system activation

196
Q

response to binding steroids and thyroid hormones

A

gene transcription and translation

197
Q

general response of peptide hormones and catecholamines

A

modification of existing proteins (new protein synthesis for peptides too)

198
Q

general response of steroid hormones and thyroid hormones

A

induction of new protein synthesis

199
Q

examples of peptide hormones

A

insulin, PTH

200
Q

examples of steroid hormones

A

sex steroids, corticosteroids

201
Q

examples of catecholamines

A

epinephrine, norepinephrine

202
Q

thyroid homonres

A

T3, T4

203
Q

tyrosine derivatives

A

catecholamines, thyroid hormones

204
Q

tryptophan derivative

A

melatonin

205
Q

why does the liver and kidney excrete peptide hormones and catecholamines?

A

they are quicker and easier to excrete since they are dissolved in the plasma

206
Q

first messenger

A

hormone

207
Q

second messenger

A

cAMP

208
Q

types of G proteins

A

alpha, beta, gamma

209
Q

types of Galpha proteins

A

stimulatory, inhibitory, q

210
Q

describe the sitmulatory cAMP pathway

A
  1. Hormone binds to Gprotein coupled receptor and undergoes conformational change
  2. G alpha s protein detaches from membrane and drops GDP which characterized it as inactive
  3. G alpha s protein attaches to GTP, becoming active
  4. adenylate cyclase converts ATP to cAMP
  5. cAMP is now the second messenger and can be phosphorylated by protein kinase A and can be amplified
211
Q

hormone secretion is controlled by…

A

circadian rhythms
ion concentration changes
plasma changes
NT activation

212
Q

complex control of hormone secretion

A

hypothalamus secretes releasing hormone –> pituitary gland secretes tropic hormone –> endocrine gland secretes effector hormone onto –> target cell/ organ

213
Q

hypothalamus

A

neural control of hormone release

Supraoptic region produces oxytocin and ADH

214
Q

oxytocin

A

uterine contraction, milk, romance

215
Q

ADH

A

urine, water conservation

216
Q

supraoptic region

A

Paraventricular nucleus

Supraoptic nucleus

217
Q

anterior pituitary gland

A

secretes tropic hormones, responds to hypothalamus and controls other glands

epithelial tissue

218
Q

posterior pituitary gland

A

stores ADH and oxytocin

nervous tissue

219
Q

endocrine gland (complex control pathway)

A

produces effector hormone

220
Q

hypophyseal portal system

A

carotid artery –> primary capillary plexus –> portal vein –> secondary capillary plexus –> jugular vein

221
Q

primary capillary plexus

A

in median eminence; delivers RH from hypothalamus to pituitary

222
Q

portal vein

A

connects pri capillary plexus to secondary capillary plexus

223
Q

secondary capillary plexus

A

delivers tropic hormones

224
Q

jugular vein

A

receives tropic hormones and distributes it

225
Q

short loop feedback control

A

tropic hormone controls hypothalamus and inhibits it

226
Q

long loop feedback control

A

effector hormone on hypothalamus and pituitary

227
Q

simple control

A

calcium levels are high: calcitonin is raised; calcium goes into bones; calcium level is now lower