LAB PRACTICAL 2 Flashcards

1
Q

electromyography

A

a recording of the electrical activity of muscle tissue using electrodes attached to the skin or inserted into the muscle

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2
Q

surface EMG

A

electrodes placed on skin surface

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3
Q

intramuscular EMG

A

electrodes inserted into muscle; provides more insight

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4
Q

why do EMG signals look noisy?

A

EMG signals look noisy because motor units fire asynchronously

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5
Q

Nerve conduction study

A

detects neuropathies and can help with diagnosis of nerve compression or injury (carpal tunnel, sciatica)

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6
Q

signal conditioning

A

done by PowerLab; signal is modified by amplification and filtering

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7
Q

digital conversion

A

after signal conditioning, the analog voltage is sampled at regular intervals and converted from analog to digital before transmission to the attached computer

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8
Q

Raw EMG

A

records the potential difference detected at the electrode; often looks noisy when muscles are contracting

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9
Q

Integrated EMG

A

records the potential difference detected at the electrode, often looks noisy when muscles are contracting

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10
Q

reciprocal activation

A

activation of the agonist muscle and inactivation of antagonist muscle during goal-oriented movements

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11
Q

co-activation

A

during contraction of the agonist muscle, the antagonist muscle is slightly contracted as well for joint stability

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12
Q

co-contraction

A

activation of an antagonist and agonist muscle around a joint to maintain a given posture

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13
Q

What happens to your EMG signal when you increase the contraction strength?

A

when you increase the contraction strength, the EMG amplitude increases

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14
Q

During reciprocal activation, why is the antagonist muscle not completely silent?

A

during reciprocal activation, the antagonist muscle is not completely silent because of a phenomenon called co-activation, which simultaneously slightly contracts the antagonist muscle to stabilize the joint

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15
Q

Why is the electromyogram waveform irregular?

A

The EMG is irregular because it is recording asynchronous electrical activity because signals from multiple muscle fibers are being recorded. This contrasts electrocardiograms because the cardiac muscles fire synchronously to maintain a steady heartbeat.

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16
Q

Brett ate poisonous wild mushroom, which partially paralyzed his motor unit. What would a normal EMG trace look like?

A

A normal EMG from Brett would have higher amplitudes. If his motor unit was partially paralyzed, its functions would be inhibited and therefore it would be less efficient at propagating action potentials and stimulating muscle fibers. With decreased electrical signaling from the motor unit, the EMG trace has smaller amplitudes

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17
Q

When we placed electrodes on the bicep and tricep, what data were we collecting?

A

electrical activity of the muscle via electromyograms

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18
Q

Transduction

A

the process of converting one energy type to another

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19
Q

force transducer

A

converts an input mechanical force into an electrical output signal

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20
Q

raw input of data inquisition

A

analog signal

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21
Q

powerlab

A

data inquisition hardware that measures electrical signals

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22
Q

muscle used in frog lab

A

gastrocnemius

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23
Q

muscle twitch

A

a single contraction-relaxation cycle in a muscle fiber

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24
Q

twitch

A

response to a single threshold stimulus; can vary in height, duration, and rising slope

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25
Q

recruitment

A

multiple motor unit summation; if a stronger stimulus is applied, a graded response results from the summation of contractile forces from multiple muscle fibers

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26
Q

recruitment

A

refers to twitches in all of the fibers of several motor units

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27
Q

maximum excitation voltage

A

stimulus voltage that will recruit all muscle fibers

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28
Q

supramaximal excitation voltage

A

1.5X the maximal stimulus; ensures all motor units are recruited

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29
Q

threshold stimulus

A

the force (mV) at which the first muscle twitch is observed

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30
Q

summation

A

an increase in contractile force with multiple stimuli in a short period of time, especially when effects from previous stimuli have not completely subsided

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31
Q

tetanus

A

a sustained muscle contraction evoked when the motor nerve that innervates a skeletal muscle emits action potentials at a very high rate; as stimuli frequency increases and tension remains fairly constant

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32
Q

incomplete tetanus

A

where each stimulus causes a contraction to be initiated when the muscle has only partly relaxed from the previous contraction

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33
Q

complete tetanus

A

when muscle has reached a state of maximal sustained contraction

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34
Q

why is tetanic tension much greater than twitch tension?

A

In a twitch action potential: release of Ca2+ saturates troponin and exposes active sites with one stimulus. Because there is a single stimulus, Ca2+ availability is small.

During tetanus: continuations of action potentials provide enough Ca2+ to saturate troponin at all times.

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35
Q

Three mechanisms of fatigue

A

conduction failure
lactic acid buildup
buildup of ADP and inorganic phosphate

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36
Q

Conduction failure

A

action potentials repeatedly fire in muscle and extracellular potassium levels increase in the T-Tubule from repeated depolarization, upsetting ion concentration balance and leading to failure of another action potential

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37
Q

lactic acid buildup

A

during anaerobic respiration, muscle proteins may be altered

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38
Q

buildup of ADP and Pi

A

inhibits cross bridge cycling and delaying cross bridge attachment on actin

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39
Q

why is calibration of the force transducer essential?

A

this process zeros out the transducer by removing any tension on the string that is not the result of muscle contraction and allows measurements following this procedure to be comparable

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40
Q

as you increase the voltage to the muscle, how does it respond to the increased stimulus?

A

as the voltage increases from threshold to maximum:

  • Greater force in the muscle contraction
  • Once maximal voltage reached, further increase in stimulus will show no effect on force of muscle contraction
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41
Q

how does the isolated muscle respond as the stimulus interval was decreased progressively?

A

summation of stimuli and stronger contractile forces in the isolated muscle

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42
Q

How did the isolated muscle respond as it was stretched progressively?

A

as the gastrocnemius was stretched, the muscle contracted with greater force and the strength of contraction increased up to a certain length

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43
Q

how did the muscle respond to high frequency stimulation?

A

the isolated muscle experienced complete tetanus and its contractile force progressively declined until 35 seconds when it failed and gave out

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44
Q

how can you explain the graded response in light of the “all-or-none” law of muscle contraction?

A

the all or none law of muscle contraction refers to individual muscle fibers contracting. the graded response refers to the number of motor units that have been recruited to contract.

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45
Q

at which stimulus interval did you observe tetanus?

A

tetanus is a sustained muscle contraction elicited from frequent stimuli. With continuous and frequent stimuli, APs are generated in the muscle at a similar rate, preventing the muscle from relaxing in between these stimuli. The muscle is unable to relax because with frequent action potentials, calcium ions are released in the cell which continuously bind to troponin and expose the actin binding site. Without enough time to pump the Ca2+ ions out of the cytoplasm, the muscle continuously contracts

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46
Q

what stretch resulted in the highest contraction force?

A

when the muscle was stretched to 2mm, it generated the highest contractile force because actin and myosin filaments had optimal overlap. As it was increasingly stretched, its ability to contract and generate force decreased because the actin and myosin filaments had less overlap and therefore contracted with less force

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47
Q

rigor mortis

A

lack of ATP in a corpse does not allow myosin heads to unbind from actin binding sites

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48
Q

resting membrane potential

A

the electrical membrane potential difference between the exterior and interior of the cell

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49
Q

resting membrane potential is determined by

A

a difference in ion concentrations

relative permeability of the cell membrane to the different ion species

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50
Q

equilibrium potential

A

each ion has a unique voltage when they are at equilibrium

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51
Q

characteristics of action potentials

A

regenerative, brief, stereotyped, all or none with refractory period, directional conduction of signals

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52
Q

nerve program

A

examines the generation and propagation of action potentials

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53
Q

setup of nerve

A
  • stimulus electrode and one recording electrode are fixed
  • other two recording electrodes can be moved up and down the axon
  • different colored action potentials correspond to different nerves being stimulated
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54
Q

white matter

A

myelinated nerve fibers

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55
Q

grey m atter

A

nerve cell bodies, unmyelinated nerve fibers

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56
Q

corpus callosum

A

axons that connect the two hemispheres of the brain; roof of lateral ventricles

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57
Q

fornix

A

floor of lateral ventricles, output tract of hippocampus to mammillary body

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58
Q

choroid plexus

A

lines ventricles, produces CSF

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59
Q

aqueduct of sylvius

A

mesencephalic aqueduct

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60
Q

diencephalon

A

relays sensory information and connects nervous system structures with endocrine system

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61
Q

brainstem

A

midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata

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62
Q

frontal lobe

A

behavior, personality, learning, motor control

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63
Q

parietal

A

sensory information

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64
Q

temporal

A

hearing and sound, language and understanding

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65
Q

occipital

A

vision

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66
Q

central sulcus

A

divides frontal lobe from parietal

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67
Q

lateral sulcus

A

divides frontal lobe from temporal

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68
Q

olfactory

A

smell (sensory)

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69
Q

optic

A

vision (sensory)

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70
Q

oculomotor

A

eye movement and focusing; elevates eyelid (motor)

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71
Q

trochlear

A

nerve supply to eye muscle; superior oblique (motor)

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72
Q

trigeminal

A

3 main branches:
maxillary
mandibular
ophthalmic nerves

chewing, sensation from forehead, eyes, teeth, tongue, gums, nose, lips (sensory and motor)

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73
Q

abducens

A

eye movement; lateral rectus (motor)

74
Q

facial

A

facial expression, tongue, taste buds, salivary glands (sensory and motor)

75
Q

vestibibulocochlear

A

posture, heraing (sensory)

76
Q

glossopharyngeal

A

taste sensation and back of tongue, swallowing, visceral sensory from carotid bodies (sensory and motor)

77
Q

vagus

A

most pharyngeal and laryngeal muscles; visceral sensory information from pharynx, larynx, carotid bodies, heart, lungs, abdominal organs; general sensory information from external acoustic meatus, eardrum, and pharynx (sensory and motor)

78
Q

accessory

A

head movement (sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles) (motor)

79
Q

hypoglossal

A

speech, swallowing (tongue muscles) (motor)

80
Q

cerebral cortex

A

6 layers
giant pyramidal cells and Betz cells are most numerous in layer 5
axons leave the cortex via tracts of white matter (cerebral corpuscles) and run caudally to spinal cord via corticospinal or pyramidal tract
betz cell dendrites are different from purkinje cell dendrites

81
Q

cerebellum

A

3 layers
molecular layer
purkinje layer
granule layer

82
Q

molecular layer

A

close to the surface, contains axons from many sensory systems; dendrites of purkinje cells extend to this layer

83
Q

purkinje cell layer

A

somas of purkinje cells located here

84
Q

granule cell layer

A

cell bodies of interneurons whose axons make up molecular cell layer

85
Q

differences between human and sheep brain

A

olfactory bulb: sheep has larger
mammillary bodies: human has 2, sheep has large one
size: human is 3-4lbs, sheep isi 140-180 grams
sulci: human has more which increases surface area and complexity

86
Q

how does the relative size of the fornix in the sheep brain compare with the human fornix?

A

the fornix is larger in the sheep because it connects the hippocampus to mammillary body which connects their sense of smell to their emotions, allowing them to sense food and danger

87
Q

How does Vrest change in response to concentration changes of K and Na?

A

Na: increase intracellularly, membrane is more hyperpolarized
K: increase intracellularly, membrane hyperpolarizes

88
Q

does K+ or Na+ have a bigger effect on Vrest?

A

K+ dominates at rest with potassium leak channels and has a greater conductance so changing its concentration has a bigger effect

89
Q

MetaNeuron: Vrest = -64.81
Experimental data: Vrest = -73.06

WHY?

A

the data calculation was different from MetaNeuron because the data calculation included the involvement of Cl- anions in the membrane resting potential in addition to Na+ and K+

90
Q

When conductance is shown on the graph, why are both traces positive?

A

both traces are positive because both ion channels have opened and increased the permeability to the ions

91
Q

when ionic currents are shown on the graph, why is the K+ trace positive while the Na+ trace negative?

A

The K+ trace is positive because it is going outside of the cell (up) whereas the Na+ trace is negative because it is going inside the cell (down)

92
Q

When TTX is applied to the neuron, there is still a small depolarization. Why?

A

the cell can still depolarize but it cannot initiate an action potential because the sodium voltage gated channels are blocked.

93
Q

what is the cause of the blip in the Na+ trace for currents?

A

When the membrane is depolarizing, the membrane voltage reaches closer to ENa. When closest to ENa, the driving force for Na+ is the least and the Na+ current starts decreasing in response to the lowered driving force. This slowdown of the current causes the upward deflection. When K+ channels open, the membrane returns to its resting conditions and results in an increase in the driving force and subsequent increase in Na+ current.

94
Q

what is the maximum temperature to generate and action potential? what trends do you notice as temp decreases?

A

Maximum temp: 22 degrees (C)
as temperature decreases, the cellular action potential response time decreases. This occurs because colder temperatures tend to slow down most cellular processes, so a neuron firing slows down as well

95
Q

TTX symptoms

A

numbness in lips, tongue, face, neck

pains in stomach and throat, nausea and vomiting

difficulty breathing, complete paralysis and irregular heartbeat

96
Q

Mechanism of TTX

A

blocks the acetylcholine receptors on the muscle fiber so acetylcholine does not depolarize the cell and initiate a contraction –> paralysis

97
Q

batrachotoxin symptoms

A

numbness in fingers, lips, mouth

98
Q

batrachotoxin mechanism

A

causes a conformational change that prevents voltage gated sodium channels from closing

99
Q

ventral nerve cord

A

nerve that runs the length of the worm on the inner ventral surface

100
Q

three giant axons

A

one medial fiber and two lateral fibers

101
Q

lateral fiber characteristics

A

have higher stimulus thresholds, require increased voltages

conduct slower than medial fiber, so longer latent period

102
Q

intracellular recordings

A

measures single transmembrane potential by inserting a glass pipette into one cell and recording potential changes

103
Q

extracellular recording

A

small potential differences recorded by placing an electrode in living tissue in close proximity to an excitable cell; no direct access to membrane potentials

104
Q

biphasic extracellular recording

A

AP propagation:

passes under first electrode (negative), region is more negative in relation to second electrode; - and - makes a positive deflection

as it recovers, the region under the second electrode (positive) becomes negative; + and - records a negative deflection

105
Q

extracellular recording characteristics

A

size and shape of waveform depend on the distance between the two recording electrodes, the length of the axon segments, and the conduction velocity of the axon

106
Q

conduction velocity

A

speed at which an electrochemical impulse propagates down a neural pathway

107
Q

absolute method (conduction velocity)

A

determined by distance and latency period

108
Q

difference method (conduction velocity)

A

determined from both original set up and when both recording electrodes are moved away or closer to the stimulus

109
Q

refractory period

A

longest interpulse interval at which a second action potential cannot be evoked

110
Q

what is the relationship between stimulus strength and response amplitude in a single axon?

A

the stimulus strength does not influence response amplitude because it is all or nothing

111
Q

an intracellularly recorded nerve action potential approximates 80 mV. Why is your action potential smaller?

A

because extracellular recordings detect small potential differences to indicate an action potential has occurred as opposed to intracellular recordings that measure single transmembrane potentials. Extracellular electrodes do not access these intracellular electrical signals

112
Q

cockroach legs

A

locomotion and sensory receptors for tactile, auditory, and vibratory stimuli

113
Q

sensory spine action potential

A

when the spine moves, the dendrite of the neuron is distorted, opening mechanically gated ion channels in the dendrite which creates a receptor potential and triggers an action potential

114
Q

femoral spines

A

less abundant than tibial, two rows on ventral surface

115
Q

tibial spines

A

highly abundant, diverse orientation

116
Q

femoral tactile spine

A

single large spine that projects dorsally, contains a single bipolar sensory neuron

117
Q

cell body

A

size of body and nucleus increases linearly with the axonal diameter of the tactile spine

118
Q

spontaneous firing

A

observed in a small population of axons

119
Q

extracellular triphasic action potentials

A

movement of spine produces burst of action potentials and demonstrates fast adaptation

120
Q

setup of cockroach leg

A

positive: femur
ground: coxa
negative: coxa

121
Q

large bin size

A

many spikes into one bin, false impression they originate from a single axon

122
Q

small bin size

A

variability of AP combined with background noise from recording system distributed across several bins

123
Q

hormone

A

chemical messenger produced by an organ that is released into circulation and targets cells on distant organs

124
Q

endocrine glands

A

pancreas, thyroid, parathyroid, pituitary, adrenal, gonads, placenta

125
Q

endocrine tissues within other glands

A

heart, liver, kidney, GI, adipose

126
Q

tissues that modify hormones

A

lungs, skin, liver, kidney

127
Q

pineal gland

A

secretes melatonin

128
Q

hypothalamus

A

produces hormones that control secretions in anterior pituitary; produces ADH and oxytocin

129
Q

thyroid

A

bilobed, pyramidal lobe

thyroid follicles and parafollicular/ c cells

130
Q

thyroid follicles

A

lined with cuboidal epithelial cells

follicular colloid

131
Q

follicular colloid

A

iodinated glycoprotein; fluid of lumen that produces thyroid hormones T3 and T4

132
Q

T3 and T4

A

increase metabolic processes

133
Q

parafollicular (c cells)

A

produces calcitonin

134
Q

calcitonin

A

decreases blood calcium by depositing it into bones

135
Q

pancreas

A

exocrine and endocrine tissue

136
Q

exocrine tissues of pancreas

A

synthesizes and secretes digestive proenzymes and enzymes

137
Q

endocrine tissues of pancreas

A

acinar cells, islets of langerhans, venule

138
Q

acinar cells

A

secretes digestive enzymes

139
Q

islets of langerhans

A

clusters of cells responsible for secreting different hormones

alpha cells and beta cells

140
Q

alpha cells

A

produce glucagon

141
Q

beta cells

A

produce insulin

142
Q

glucagon

A

releases glucose by stimulating glycogenolysis in liver

143
Q

insulin

A

increases glucose uptake and promotes protein synthesis

144
Q

venule

A

drains pancreatic islet of langerhans secretions, provides blood supply to pancreatic acini

145
Q

parathyroid

A

chief cells, oxyphil cells

146
Q

chief cells (principal cells)

A

most numerous, produces parathyroid hormone (PTH)

147
Q

parathyroid hormone (PTH)

A

increases level of calcium in the blood

148
Q

oxyphil cells

A

larger cell type, abundant mitochondria, unknown function

149
Q

adrenal gland

A

cortex and medulla

150
Q

adrenal cortex

A

zona glomerulosa
zona fasciculata
zona reticularis

151
Q

zona glomerulosa

A

produces mineralocorticoids

152
Q

mineralocorticoids

A

maintain homeostasis by stimulating reabsorption of Na+ by kidney

153
Q

zona fasciculata

A

most active; produces glucocorticoids

154
Q

glucocorticoids

A

promote normal metabolism and body to resist stress; cortisol, cortisone, corticosterone

155
Q

zona reticularis

A

produces sex hormones

156
Q

adrenal medulla

A

produces epinephrine and norepinephrine

157
Q

epinephrine

A

vasodilation

158
Q

norepinephrine

A

vasoconstriction

159
Q

pituitary gland

A

hypophysis; secretes hormones that regular other endocrine glands

160
Q

anterior pituitary

A

adenohypophysis;

pars distalis
pars intermedia
pars tubercle

161
Q

pars distalis

A

secretory portion; acidophils, basophils, chromophobes

162
Q

pars intermedia

A

vesicles with colloid that separate anterior from posterior

163
Q

acidophils

A

red / pink

somatotropin, prolactin

164
Q

somatotropin

A

growth hormone, STH

165
Q

prolactin

A

lactotropic hormone, LTH

166
Q

basophils

A

blue / purple; least abundant

thyrotropin (TSH) and gonadotropic hormones

167
Q

thyrotropin (TSH)

A

controls production of thyroid hormones

168
Q

gonadotropic hormones

A

FSH and LH

169
Q

follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)

A

stimulates development of the follicle, production of estrogen

170
Q

luteinizing hormone (LH)

A

works with FSH to stimulate ovary follicle maturation, controls development and maintenance of interstitial cells of the testes

171
Q

chromophobes

A

uniform, lightly stained cytoplasm, most abundant, smaller

ACTH and MSH

172
Q

adrenocorticotropin (ACTH)

A

stimulates adrenal cortex which synthesizes and releases glucocorticoids

173
Q

melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH)

A

stimulates pigment changes

174
Q

posterior pituitary

A

neurohypophysis; composed of hypothalamic axons of unmyelinated nerve fibers, herring bodies, pituicytes, capillary network

stores and releases hormones produced by the hypothalamus

175
Q

infundibulum

A

connects hypothalamus and pituitary

176
Q

herring bodies

A

terminal ends of axons that store hormones

177
Q

pituicytes

A

specialized glial cells in posterior pituitary

178
Q

antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

A

vasopressin; stimulates reabsorption of water from urine in the distal tubules of the kidney

179
Q

oxytocin

A

stimulates myometrium of the uterus during pregnancy; stimulates contraction of myoepithelial cells in the mammary gland, resulting in milk secretion

180
Q

PTU

A

interferes with thyroid hormones by inhibiting synthesis of T3 and T4 which decreases metabolic processes