PMP Study Guide CH01-CH12 Flashcards
Which organization has set the de facto standards for project management techniques?
A. PMBOK®
B. PMO
C. PMI®
D. PBO
C. The Project Management Institute (PMI®) is the industry-recognized standard for project management practices.
The VP of marketing approaches you and requests that you change the visitor logon screen on the company’s website to include a username with at least six characters. This is considered which of the following?
A. Project initiation
B. Ongoing operations
C. A project
D. Project execution
B. Projects exist to create a unique product, service, or result. The logon screen in this question is not a unique product. A minor change has been requested, indicating that this is an ongoing operations function. Some of the criteria for projects are that they are unique, temporary with definitive start and end dates, and considered complete when the project goals are achieved.
Your company manufactures small kitchen appliances. It is introducing a new product line of appliances in designer colors with distinctive features for kitchens in small spaces. These new products will be offered indefinitely starting with the spring catalog release. Which of the following is true?
A. This is a project because this new product line has never been manufactured and sold by this company before.
B. This is an ongoing operation because the company is in the business of manufacturing kitchen appliances. Introducing designer colors and features is simply a new twist on
an existing process.
C. This is an ongoing operation because the new product line will be sold indefinitely. It’s not temporary.
D. This is not a project or an ongoing operation. This is a new product introduction not affecting ongoing operations.
A. This is a project. The product line is new, which implies that this is a unique product—it hasn’t been done before. You can discern a definite start and end date by the fact that the new appliances must be ready by the spring catalog release.
Your company manufactures small kitchen appliances. It is introducing a new product line of appliances in designer colors with distinctive features for kitchens in small spaces. These new products will be offered indefinitely starting with the spring catalog release. To determine the characteristics and features of the new product line, you will have to perform which of the following?
A. Fast tracking
B. Consulting with the stakeholders
C. Planning the project life cycle
D. Progressive elaboration
D. Progressive elaboration is the process of determining the characteristics and features of the product of the project. Progressive elaboration is carried out via steps in detailed fashion.
A project is considered successful when________.
A. The product of the project has been manufactured
B. The project sponsor announces the completion of the project
C. The product of the project is turned over to the operations area to handle the ongoing aspects of the project
D. The project achieves its objectives and meets the expectations of the stakeholders
D. A project is considered successful when it achieves its objectives and stakeholder needs and expectations are met.
The VP of customer service has expressed concern over a project in which you’re involved. His specific concern is that if the project is implemented as planned, he’ll have to purchase additional equipment to staff his customer service center. The cost was not taken into consideration in the project budget. The project sponsor insists that the project must go forward as originally planned or the customer will suffer. Which of the following is true?
A. The VP of customer service is correct. Since the cost was not taken into account at the beginning of the project, the project should not go forward as planned. Project initiation should be revisited to examine the project plan and determine how changes can be made to accommodate customer service.
B. The conflict should be resolved in favor of the customer.
C. The conflict should be resolved in favor of the project sponsor.
D. The conflict should be resolved in favor of the VP of customer service.
B. Conflicts between stakeholders should always be resolved in favor of the customer. This question emphasizes the importance of identifying your stakeholders and their needs as early as possible in the project.
Which of the following applies a set of tools and techniques used to describe, organize, and monitor the work of project activities to meet the project requirements?
A. Project managers
B. The PMBOK® Guide
C. Project management
D. Stakeholders
C. Project management brings together a set of tools and techniques to organize project activities. Project managers are the ones responsible for managing the project management processes.
All of the following are true regarding multiphased relationships except for which one?
A. Planning for an iterative phase begins while the work of other phases is progressing.
B. Overlapping phases occur when more than one phase is being performed at the same time.
C. During sequentially phased projects, the previous phase must finish before the next phase can begin.
D. Phase reviews should occur at the end of every phase.
B. There are three ways phases can be performed in a multiphased project: sequential, iterative, and overlapping. Iterative is when more than one phase is being performed at the same time and overlapping occurs when one phase starts before the prior phase completes. All phases should perform a phase gate review.
All of the following statements are true except for which one?
A. Programs are groups of related projects.
B. Project life cycles are collections of sequential, iterative, and overlapping project phases.
C. A project may or may not be part of a program.
D. Portfolios are collections of interdependent projects or programs.
D. Portfolios are collections of projects and/or programs. The projects or programs do not have to be directly related or interdependent to reside within the portfolio.
You are a project manager for a large software development project. You are using an Agile approach to manage this project. The product owner has prioritized the backlog. How will team members be assigned this work?
A. They will choose items from the backlog list at the sprint planning meeting.
B. The project manager will assign work according to skill and availability.
C. They will choose items from the backlog list at the daily standup.
D. The Scrum master will assign work according to skill and availability.
A. Team members choose items from the backlog list to work on during the upcoming sprint at the sprint planning meeting.
You’ve decided to try your hand at project management in the entertainment industry. You’re working on a movie production and the phases are performed sequentially. The team
has just completed the storyboard phase of the project. Which of the following is true?
A. The storyboard is a deliverable that marks the end of the phase.
B. The storyboard phase marks the end of the Initiating process group, and the next phase of the project should begin.
C. The writing phase can begin once the majority of the storyboard phase is complete.
D. The division of phases and determining which processes to use in each phase is called tailoring.
A. The storyboard is a deliverable. Because the phases are performed sequentially, the deliverable must be approved before the next phase of the project can begin.
You are managing a project to install a new postage software system that will automatically print labels and administer postage for certified mailings, overnight packages, and other special mailing needs. You’ve attempted to gain the cooperation of the business analyst working on this project, and you need some answers. She is elusive and tells
you that this project is not her top priority. What should you do to avoid situations like this in the future?
A. Establish the business analyst’s duties well ahead of due dates, and tell her you’ll be reporting on her performance to her functional manager.
B. Establish the business analyst’s duties well ahead of due dates, and tell her you are expecting her to meet these expectations because the customer is counting on the project meeting due dates to save significant costs on their annual mailings.
C. Negotiate with the business analyst’s functional manager during the planning process to establish expectations and request to participate in the business analyst’s annual performance review.
D. Negotiate with the business analyst’s functional manager during the planning process to establish expectations, and inform the functional manager of the requirements of the project. Agreement from the functional manager will ensure the cooperation of the business analyst.
C. The best answer to this question according to the PMBOK ® Guide is to negotiate with the functional manager to participate in the business analyst’s annual performance review.
Option D is an appropriate response but doesn’t include the direction that the project manager should participate in the performance review.
The amount of authority a project manager possesses can be related to all of the following except which one?
A. The organizational structure
B. The key stakeholder’s influence on the project
C. The interaction with various levels of management
D. The project management maturity level of the organization
B. The level of authority the project manager has is determined by the organizational structure, interactions with various management levels, and the project management maturity level of the organization.
What is one of the advantages of a functional organization?
A. All employees report to one manager and have a clear chain of command.
B. All employees report to two or more managers, but project team members show loyalty to functional managers.
C. The organization is focused on projects and project work.
D. Teams are co-located.
A. Advantages for employees in a functional organization are that they have only one supervisor and a clear chain of command exists.
You have been assigned to a project in which the objectives are to direct customer calls to an interactive voice response system before they are connected to a live agent. You are in charge of the media communications for this project. You report to the project manager in charge of this project and the VP of marketing, who share responsibility for this project.
Which organizational structure do you work in?
A. Functional organization
B. Weak matrix organization
C. Project-oriented organization
D. Balanced matrix organization
D. Employees in a balanced matrix often report to two or more managers. Functional managers and project managers share authority and responsibility for projects. There is a balance of power between the functional managers and project managers.
You have been assigned to a project in which the objectives are to expand three miles of the north-to-south highway through your city by two lanes in each direction. You are in charge of the demolition phase of this project, and you report to the project manager in charge of this project. This project is producing deliverables in short periods of time. You work with the product owner. Your project team holds daily standup meetings and they hold retrospective meetings at the end of the working period. What methodology does this describe?
A. Iterative
B. Adaptive
C. Agile
D. Incremental
C. This question describes the Agile methodology, which uses daily standups, sprint planning meetings, and retrospectives, and works with a Scrum master and product owner.
What are the five project management process groups, in order?
A. Initiating, Executing, Planning, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing
B. Initiating, Monitoring and Controlling, Planning, Executing, and Closing
C. Initiating, Planning, Monitoring and Controlling, Executing, and Closing
D. Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing
D. Remember the acronym that sounds like syrup of ipecac: IPECC (Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing).
You have been assigned to a project in which the objectives are to expand three miles of the north-to-south highway through your city by two lanes in each direction. You are interested in implementing a new project process called Design-Build in order to speed up the project schedule. The idea is that the construction team will work on the first mile of the highway reconstruction at the same time the design team is coming up with plans for the third mile of the reconstruction rather than completing all design before any construction begins. This is an example of which of the following?
A. Managing the projects as a program
B. An iterative phase relationship
C. Progressive elaboration
D. Handoffs
B. An iterative phase relationship allows you to work more than one phase at a time.
During which project management process group are risk and stakeholder’s ability to influence project outcomes the highest?
A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Initiating
D. Monitoring and Controlling
C. The Initiating process group is where stakeholders have the greatest ability to influence outcomes of the project. Risk is highest during this stage because of the high degree of unknown factors.
All of the following are true regarding a PMO except for which one?
A. There are three types of PMOs: supportive, controlling, and collaborative.
B. The PMO is often responsible for implementing the OPM.
C. The key purpose of the PMO is to provide support to project managers.
D. The PMO facilitates communication within and across projects.
A. The three types of PMOs are supportive, controlling, and directive.
Which of the following statements is not true regarding EEFs and OPAs?
A. OPAs are external to the organization.
B. EEFs are outside the control of the project team.
C. Resource availability is an example of internal EEF.
D. Change control processes are an example of an OPA.
A. OPAs are internal to the organization. EEFs can be internal or external to the organization but they are always outside the control of the project team.
You’ve been hired as a manager for the adjustments department of a nationwide bank based in your city. The adjustments department is responsible for making corrections to customer accounts. This is a large department, with several smaller sections that deal with specific accounts, such as personal checking or commercial checking. You’ve received your first set of management reports and can’t make heads or tails of the information. Each section appears to use a different methodology to audit their work and record the data for the management report. You request that a project manager from the PMO come down and get started right away on a project to streamline this process and make the data and reports consistent. This project came about as a result of which of the following? A. Technological advance B. Organizational need C. Customer request D. Legal requirement
B. This came about because of an organizational need. Staff members were spending unproductive hours producing information for the management report that wasn’t consistent or meaningful.
What are the inputs to the Develop Project Charter process?
A. Agreements, business documents, EEFs, and OPAs
B. Business case, benefits management plan, and OPAs
C. Agreements, EEFs, and OPAs
D. Business case, benefits management plan, EEFs
A. Develop Project Charter has four inputs, and they are business documents, agreements, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets.
You work for a large manufacturing plant. Your firm is thinking of initiating a new project to release an overseas product line. This is the company’s first experience in the overseas
market, and it wants to make a big splash with the introduction of this product. The project entails producing your product in a concentrated formula and packaging it in smaller containers than the U.S. product uses. A new machine is needed in order to mix the first set of ingredients in the concentrated formula. Which of the following actions is the next best step the project sponsor should take?
A. The project sponsor should document the project’s high-level requirements in a project
charter document and recommend that the project proceed.
B. The project sponsor knows the project is a go and should document the description of the product in the business case.
C. The project sponsor should document the business need for the project and recommend that a feasibility study be performed to determine the viability of the project.
D. The project sponsor should document the needs and demands that are driving the project in a business case document.
C. The most correct answer is to perform a feasibility study. Because this project is taking the company into a new, unknown market, there’s lots of potential for error and failure. A feasibility study would help the stakeholders determine whether the project is viable and cost effective and whether it has a high potential for success.
You are the project manager for Fun Days Vacation Resorts. Your new project assignment is to head up the Fun Days resort opening in Austin, Texas. You are estimating the duration of the project management plan activities, devising the project schedule, and monitoring
and controlling deviations from the schedule. Which of the Project Management Knowledge Areas are you working in?
A. Project Scope Management
B. Project Quality Management
C. Project Integration Management
D. Project Schedule Management
D. Project Schedule Management involves the following processes: Plan Schedule Management, Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Estimate Activity Durations, Develop
Schedule, and Control Schedule.
According to the PMBOK® Guide, all of the following options concerning the benefits management plan are true except for which one?
A. Strategic alignment of benefits to the organizational goals
B. Commercial databases
C. Time frame in which the benefits will be realized
D. Tangible and intangible benefits
B. The benefits management plan outlines the benefits of the project (both tangible and intangible), describes a timeline in which the benefits will be realized, and describes the strategic alignment of the benefits. Commercial databases are an example of an internal EEF.
Your nonprofit organization is preparing to host its first annual 5 K run/walk in City Park. You worked on a similar project for the organization two years ago when it cohosted the 10 K run through Overland Pass. Which of the organizational process assets might be most helpful to you on your new project?
A. The organization’s marketing plans
B. Historical information from a previous 10 K run or similar project
C. The marketplace and political conditions
D. The organization’s project management information systems
B. Historical information on projects of a similar nature can be helpful when initiating new projects. They can help in formulating project deliverables and identifying constraints and
assumptions and will be helpful later in the project Planning processes as well.
Which of the following lists of processes belong to the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area?
A. Define Scope, Close Project or Phase, and Manage Project Knowledge.
B. Define Scope, Direct and Manage Project Work, and Manage Stakeholders Expectations.
C. Develop Project Management Plan, Direct and Manage Project Work, and Perform Integrated Change Control.
D. Define Project Charter, Collect Requirements, and Close Project or Phase.
C. The Project Integration Management Knowledge Area consists of the followingprocesses: Develop Project Charter, Develop Project Management Plan, Direct and Manage
Project Work, Manage Project Knowledge, Monitor and Control Project Work, Perform Integrated Change Control, and Close Project or Phase.
Which of the following describes project approval requirements?
A. This describes what constitutes project success and how it will be measured.
B. This describes the conditions that must be met in order to close the project.
C. This is used in Agile project management to determine if a sprint is successful.
D. This is determined by the project manager and documented in the project charter.
A. Option B describes the project exit criteria. Option C is not true, and Option D is partially true. The project manager does not dictate what the approval requirements are. The stakeholders and sponsor will come to an agreement on the success criteria, and the project manager may or may not have a voice in the decision.
You are the project manager for the Late Night Smooth Jazz Club chain, with stores in 12 states. Smooth Jazz is considering opening a new club in Arizona or Nevada. You have derived the following information:
Project Arizona: The payback period is 18 months, and the NPV is (250).
Project Nevada: The payback period is 24 months, and the NPV is 300.
Which project would you recommend to the selection committee?
A. Project Arizona, because the payback period is shorter than the payback period for Project Nevada
B. Project Nevada, because its NPV is a positive number
C. Project Arizona, because its NPV is a negative number
D. Project Nevada, because its NPV is a higher number than Project Arizona’s NPV
B. Projects with NPV greater than 0 should be given an accept recommendation.
You are the project manager for the Late Night Smooth Jazz Club chain, with stores in 12 states. Smooth Jazz is considering opening a new club in Kansas City or Spokane. You have derived the following information:
Project Kansas City: The payback period is 27 months, and the IRR is 6 percent. Project Spokane: The payback period is 25 months, and the IRR is 5 percent. Which project should you recommend to the selection committee?
A. Project Spokane, because the payback period is the shortest
B. Project Kansas City, because the IRR is the highest
C. Project Spokane, because the IRR is the lowest
D. Project Kansas City, because the payback period is the longest
B. Projects with the highest IRR value are favored over projects with lower IRR values.
Which of the following is true regarding NPV?
A. NPV assumes reinvestment at the cost of capital.
B. NPV decisions should be made based on the lowest value for all the selections.
C. NPV assumes reinvestment at the prevailing rate.
D. NPV assumes reinvestment at the NPV rate.
A. Net present value (NPV) assumes reinvestment is made at the cost of capital.
You are the project manager for Insomniacs International. Since you don’t sleep much, you get a lot of project work done. You’re considering recommending a project that costs $575,000; expected inflows are $25,000 per quarter for the first two years and then $75,000 per quarter thereafter. What is the payback period? A. 40 months B. 38 months C. 39 months D. 41 months
C. Year 1 and 2 inflows are each $100,000 for a total of $200,000. Year 3 inflows are an additional $300,000. Add one more quarter to this total, and the $575,000 is reached in
three years and three months, or 39 months.
Which of the following is true regarding IRR?
A. IRR assumes reinvestment at the cost of capital.
B. IRR is not difficult to calculate.
C. IRR is a constrained optimization method.
D. IRR is the discount rate when NPV is equal to zero.
D. IRR assumes reinvestment at the IRR rate and is the discount rate when NPV is equal to 0.
Which of the following is not true regarding the purpose of a business case?
A. It is an economic feasibility study that helps determine whether the investment in the project is worthwhile.
B. It describes the need or demand that brought about the project.
C. It describes how the benefits of the project will be measured and obtained.
D. It contains the results of the benefit measurement methods that will assist in project selection.
C. The purpose of the business case is to understand the business need for the project and determine whether the investment in the project is worthwhile. This may include analysis using benefit measurement methods. The benefits, how they’re measured, and how they’re obtained are contained in the benefits management plan.
You are in the process of analyzing and visually representing your stakeholders. All of the following are true regarding these tools and techniques except for which one?
A. The salience model is useful for displaying stakeholder analysis for small projects or straightforward stakeholder interactions.
B. Data analysis includes stakeholder analysis and document analysis techniques.
C. A power/interest grid displays stakeholder information in a quadrant format to display whether the stakeholder is a key player or is one who needs only periodic updates.
D. Salience models are displayed as Venn diagrams.
A. Salience models are displayed as Venn diagrams but are more useful for large, complex projects. The power/interest grid is useful for smaller projects with uncomplicated stakeholder interactions.
Your selection committee is debating between two projects. Project A has a payback period of 18 months. Project B has a cost of $125,000, with expected cash inflows of $50,000 the first year and $25,000 per quarter after that. Which project should you recommend?
A. Either Project A or Project B, because the payback periods are equal
B. Project A, because Project B’s payback period is 21 months
C. Project A, because Project B’s payback period is 24 months
D. Project A, because Project B’s payback period is 20 months
B. Project B has a payback period of 21 months; $50,000 is received in the first 12 months, with another $75,000 coming in over each of the next three quarters, or nine months.
Which of the following is true?
A. Discounted cash flow analysis is the least precise of the cash flow techniques because it does not consider the time value of money.
B. NPV is the least precise of the cash flow analysis techniques because it assumes reinvestment at the discount rate.
C. Payback period is the least precise of the cash flow analysis techniques because it does not consider the time value of money.
D. IRR is the least precise of the cash flow analysis techniques because it assumes reinvestment at the cost of capital.
C. Payback period does not consider the time value of money and is, therefore, the least precise of all the cash flow analysis techniques.
You are a project manager for Zippy Tees. Your selection committee has just chosen a project you recommended for implementation. Your project is to manufacture a line of miniature stuffed bears that will be attached to your company’s trendy T-shirts. The bears will be wearing the same T-shirt design as the shirt to which they’re attached. Your project sponsor thinks you’ve impressed the big boss and wants you to skip to the manufacturing process right away. What is your response?
A. Agree with the project sponsor because that person is your boss and has a lot of
authority and power in the company.
B. Require that a preliminary budget be established and a resource list be put together to alert other managers of the requirements of this project. This should be published and signed by the other managers who are impacted by this project.
C. Require that a project charter be written and signed off on by all stakeholders before proceeding.
D. Suggest that a preliminary business case be written to outline the objectives of the project.
C. The project should be kicked off with a project charter that authorizes the project to begin, assigns the project manager, and describes the project objectives and purpose for the
project. Doing so ensures that everyone is working with the same purposes in mind.
Which of the following is true regarding the project charter?
A. The project charter should be issued by a manager external to the project.
B. The project charter should be issued by a key stakeholder’s name.
C. The project charter should be issued by the project manager.
D. The project charter should be issued by the project sponsor
D. According to the PMBOK ® Guide, the project charter should be issued by the project sponsor or the project initiator.
You are a project manager for Laredo Pioneer’s Traveling Rodeo Show. You’re heading up a project to promote a new line of souvenirs to be sold at the shows. You are getting ready to write the project management plan and know you need to consider elements such as policies, rules, systems, relationships, and norms in the organization. Which of the following is not true?
A. These describe the authority level of workers, fair payment practices, communication channels, and the like.
B. This is part of the EEF input to this process.
C. This describes management elements.
D. This describes organizational governance framework.
A. The policies, rules, systems, relationships, and norms are part of the organizational governance framework, which is part of the EEF input for the Develop Project Management Plan process. Management elements include authority levels of works, disciplinary actions,
chain of command, fair treatment, fair payment, communication channels, and safety of staff members.
Which of the following is true?
A. You are a project manager for Laredo Pioneers’ Traveling Rodeo Show. You’re heading up a project to promote a new line of souvenirs to be sold at the shows. You’re ready to document the processes you’ll use to perform the project as well as define how the project will be executed, controlled, and closed. You are working on the project scope management plan.
B. You are a project manager for Laredo Pioneer’s Traveling Rodeo Show. You’re heading up a project to promote a new line of souvenirs to be sold at the shows. You’re ready to document the processes you’ll use to perform the project as well as define how the project
will be executed, monitored, and controlled. You are working on the product scope statement.
C. You are a project manager for Laredo Pioneer’s Traveling Rodeo Show. You’re heading up a project to promote a new line of souvenirs to be sold at the shows. You’re ready to document the processes you’ll use to perform the project as well as define how the project
will be executed and controlled and how changes will be monitored and controlled. You are working on the project management plan.
D. You are a project manager for Laredo Pioneer’s Traveling Rodeo Show. You’re heading up a project to promote a new line of souvenirs to be sold at the shows. You’re ready to document the processes you’ll use to perform the project as well as define how the project
will be executed, controlled, and closed. You are working on the project scope statement.
C. The project management plan describes the processes you’ll use to perform the project and describes how the project will be executed, monitored, and controlled and how the work of the project will be executed to meet the objectives.
- You are a project manager responsible for the construction of a new office complex. You are taking over for a project manager who recently left the company. The prior project manager completed the project scope statement and scope management plan for this project. In your interviews with some key team members, you conclude which of the following?
A. The project scope statement assesses the stability of the project scope and outlines how scope will be verified and used to control changes. The team members know that project scope is measured against the product requirements and that the scope management plan is based on the approved project scope.
B. The scope management plan describes how project scope will be managed and controlled and how the WBS will be created and defined. They know that product scope is measured against the product requirements and that the scope management plan is based on the approved project scope.
C. The scope management plan is deliverables-oriented and includes cost estimates and stakeholder needs and expectations. They understand that project scope is measured against the project management plan and that the scope management plan is based on the approved project charter.
D. The project scope statement describes how the high-level deliverables and requirements will be defined and verified. They understand that product scope is measured against the project management plan and that the scope management plan is based on the approved project charter.
B. The scope management plan describes how project scope will be defined and validated, how the scope statement will be developed, how the WBS will be created and defined, and how project scope will be managed and controlled. Project scope is measured against the project management plan, whereas product scope is measured against the product requirements. It is based on the approved project scope.
Unanimity, majority, plurality, and autocratic are four examples of which of the following techniques?
A. Interpersonal and team skills, which is a tool and technique of the Collect Requirements process
B. Interviews, which is a tool and technique of the Define Scope process
C. Facilitated workshops technique, which is a tool and technique of the Define Scope process
D. Decision-making techniques, which is a tool and technique of the Collect Requirements process
D. These four decision-making techniques belong to the Collect Requirements process and are part of the decision-making tool and technique in this process.
Which of the following is true regarding the project scope statement?
A. The project scope statement includes a change control system that describes how to make changes to the project scope.
B. The project scope statement further elaborates the details from the Initiating and Planning processes and serves as a basis for future project decisions.
C. The project scope statement describes how the team will define and develop the work breakdown structure.
D. The project scope statement assesses the reliability of the project scope and describes the process for verifying and accepting completed deliverables.
B. The project scope statement further elaborates the project deliverables and documents the product scope description, acceptance criteria, and project exclusions. It serves as a basis for future project decisions.
You are a project manager for an agricultural supply company. You have interviewed stakeholders and gathered requirements. Which of the following is true regarding the process to which this question refers?
A. The requirements document lists the requirements and describes how they will be analyzed, documented, and managed throughout the project.
B. Requirements documentation consists of formal, complex documents that include elements such as the business need of the project, functional requirements, nonfunctional requirements, impacts to others inside and outside the organization, and requirements assumptions and constraints.
C. The requirements documentation details the work required to create the deliverables of the project, including deliverables description, product acceptance criteria, exclusions from requirements, and requirements assumptions and constraints.
D. The requirements traceability matrix ties requirements to project objectives, business needs, WBS deliverables, product design, test strategies, and high-level requirements and traces them through to project completion.
D. The requirements traceability matrix links requirements to their origin and traces them throughout the project.
Option A describes the requirements management plan, not the requirements document.
Option B is partially true with the exception of the first statement. Requirements documents do not have to be formal or complex.
Option C refers to the project scope statement, not the requirements.
Which of the following makes up the scope baseline when using a predictive life-cycle approach?
A. The approved project scope statement
B. The approved scope management plan and WBS
C. The WBS, approved project scope statement, work packages, planning packages, and WBS dictionary
D. The approved scope management plan, the WBS, work packages, planning packages, and the WBS dictionary
C. The scope baseline consists of the approved project scope statement, the WBS, work packages, planning packages, and the WBS dictionary.
Which of the following statements is true regarding brainstorming and lateral thinking?
A. They are forms of expert judgment used to help define and develop requirements and develop the project scope statement.
B. They are tools and techniques used to elaborate the product scope description.
C. They are decision-making techniques, which are a tool and technique of the Collect Requirements process.
D. They are types of alternatives analysis techniques, which are a tool and technique of the Define Scope process.
D. Alternatives analysis is a part of the data analysis tool and technique of the Define Scope process that includes brainstorming and lateral thinking techniques.
Your company, Kick That Ball Sports, has appointed you as project manager for its new Cricket product line introduction. This is a national effort, and all the retail stores across the country need to have the new products on the shelves before the media advertising blitz begins. The product line involves three new products, two of which will be introduced together and a third one that will follow within two years. You are ready to create the WBS. All of the following are true except for which one?
A. The WBS may be structured using each product as a level one entry.
B. The WBS should be elaborated to a level where costs and schedule are easily estimated. This is known as the work package level.
C. Rolling wave refers to how all levels of the WBS collectively roll up to reflect the work of the project and only the work of the project.
D. Each level of the WBS represents verifiable products or results.
C. You could use each product as a level one entry on the WBS so Option A is correct, but you may choose to construct the WBS differently. Option C is not correct because rolling wave planning is the process of fully elaborating near-term WBS work packages and expanding others, like the third product in this question, at a later time when all information is known.
You are a project manager for Giraffe Enterprises. You’ve recently taken over for a project manager who lied about his PMI® certification and was subsequently fired. Unfortunately, he did a poor job of defining the scope. Which of the following could happen if you don’t
correct this?
A. The stakeholders will require overtime from the project team to keep the project on schedule.
B. The poor scope definition will adversely affect the creation of the work breakdown structure, and costs will increase.
C. The project management plan’s process for verification and acceptance of the deliverables needs to be updated as a result of the poor scope definition.
D. The project costs could increase, there might be rework, and schedule delays might result.
D. Option A might seem like a correct answer, but Option D is more correct. There isn’t enough information to determine whether stakeholders will require overtime. We do know that poor scope definition might lead to cost increases, rework, schedule delays, and poor morale.
You are the project manager for Lucky Stars nightclubs. They specialize in live country and western band performances. Your newest project is in the Planning processes group. You are working on the WBS. The finance manager has given you a numbering system to assign to the WBS. Which of the following is true?
A. The numbering system is a unique identifier known as the WBS dictionary, which is used to assign quality control codes to the individual work elements.
B. The numbering system is a unique identifier known as the WBS dictionary, which is used to track the descriptions of individual work elements.
C. The numbering system is a unique identifier known as the control account, which is used to track time and resource assignments for individual work elements.
D. The numbering system is a unique identifier known as the code of accounts identifier, which is used to track the costs of the WBS elements.
D. Each element in the WBS is assigned a unique identifier called a code of accounts identifier. Typically, these codes are associated with a corporate chart of accounts and are used to track the costs of the individual work elements in the WBS.
You are a project manager working on a large, complex project. You’ve constructed the WBS for this project, and all of the work package levels are subprojects of this project.
You’ve requested that the subproject managers report to you in three weeks with their individual WBSs constructed. Which statement is not true regarding your WBS?
A. The work package level is decomposed to create the activity list.
B. The work package level is the lowest level in the WBS.
C. The work package level facilitates resource assignments.
D. The work package level facilitates cost and time estimates.
A. The work package level is the lowest level in the WBS and facilitates resource assignment and cost and time estimates. In this question, the work package level contains four subprojects, so it would not be used to create the activity list. The activity list will be created from the work package level for each WBS created for each subproject.
You are a project manager working on a new software product your company plans to market to businesses. The project sponsor told you that the project must be completed by September 1. The company plans to demo the new software product at a trade show in late
September and, therefore, needs the project completed in time for the trade show. However, the sponsor has also told you that the budget is fixed at $85,000, and it would take an act of Congress to get it increased. You must complete the project within the given time frame
and budget. Which of the following is the primary constraint for this project?
A. Budget
B. Scope
C. Time
D. Quality
C. The primary constraint is time. Since the trade show demos depend on project completion and the trade show is in late September, the date cannot be moved. The budget is the secondary constraint in this example.
Which of the following statements about decomposition is the least true?
A. Decomposition involves structuring and organizing the WBS so that deliverables are always listed at level one.
B. Decomposition requires a degree of expert judgment and also requires close analysis of the project scope statement.
C. Decomposition is a tool and technique used to create a WBS.
D. Decomposition subdivides the major deliverables into smaller components until the work package level is reached.
A. Decomposition subdivides the major deliverables into smaller components. It is a tool and technique of the Create WBS process and is used to create a WBS. Level two components might be deliverables, phases, subprojects, or some combination.
You are in the process of translating project objectives into tangible deliverables and requirements. All of the following are techniques used in the product analysis tool and technique of the Define Scope process except which one?
A. Value engineering and value analysis
B. Product configuration and specification analysis
C. Systems analysis and systems engineering
D. Product breakdown and functional analysis
B. Product analysis includes techniques such as value engineering, value analysis, systems analysis, systems engineering, product breakdown, and functional analysis.
You are a project manager for a documentary film company. In light of a recent regional
tragedy, the company president wants to produce a new documentary on the efforts of the
heroic rescue teams to air as soon as possible. She’s looking to you to make this documentary
the best that has ever been produced in the history of this company. She guarantees
you free rein to use whatever resources you need to get this project done quickly. However,
the best photographer in the company is currently working on another assignment. Which of the following is true?
A. The primary constraint is time because the president wants the film done quickly. She told you to get it to air as soon as possible.
B. Resources are the primary constraint. Even though the president has given you free rein on resource use, you assume she didn’t mean those actively assigned to projects.
C. The schedule is the primary constraint. Even though the president has given you free rein on resource use, you assume she didn’t mean those actively assigned to projects. The photographer won’t be finished for another three weeks on his current assignment, so schedule adjustments will have to be made.
D. The primary constraint is quality because the president wants this to be the best film ever produced by this company. She’s given you free rein to use whatever resources are needed to get the job done.
D. The primary constraint is quality. If you made the assumption as stated in Options A, B, and C, you assumed incorrectly. Clarify these assumptions with your stakeholders and project sponsors.
Your project depends on a key deliverable from a vendor you’ve used several times before with great success. You’re counting on the delivery to arrive on June 1. This is an example of a/an _______________ .
A. constraint
B. objective
C. assumption
D. requirement
C. This is an example of an assumption. You’ve used this vendor before and haven’t had any problems. You’re assuming there will be no problems with this delivery based on your past experience.
What limits the options of the project team?
A. Technology
B. Constraints
C. Deliverables
D. Assumptions
B. Constraints restrict the actions of the project team.
Your company provides answering services for several major catalog retailers. The number
of calls coming into the service center per month has continued to increase over the past 18 months. The phone system is approaching the maximum load limits and needs to be upgraded. You’ve been assigned to head up the upgrade project. Based on the company’s
experience with the vendor who worked on the last phone upgrade project, you’re confident they’ll be able to assist you with this project as well. Which of the following is true?
A. You’ve made an assumption about vendor availability and expertise. The project came about because of a business need.
B. Vendor availability and expertise are constraints. The project came about because of a business need.
C. You’ve made an assumption about vendor availability and expertise. The project came about because of a market demand.
D. Vendor availability and expertise are constraints. The project came about because of a market demand.
A. The project came about because of a business need. The phones have to be answered because that’s the core business. Upgrading the system to handle more volume is a business need. An assumption has been made regarding vendor availability. Always validate your
assumptions.
Which of the following is not a major step of decomposition?
A. Identify major deliverables.
B. Identify resources.
C. Identify components.
D. Verify correctness of decomposition.
B. The steps of decomposition include identify major deliverables, organize and determine the structure, identify lower-level components, assign identification codes, and verify correctness of decomposition.
You are the project manager for Changing Tides video games. You have gathered the inputs for the Estimate Activity Durations process. Which of the following tools and techniques will you employ to produce the outputs for this process?
A. Activity list, expert judgment, alternatives analysis, analogous estimating, parametric estimating, three-point estimating, and meetings
B. Activity list, expert judgment, analogous estimating, parametric estimating, bottom-up estimating, decision-making techniques, and three-point estimating
C. Expert judgment, analogous estimating, parametric estimating, three-point estimating, bottom-up estimating, data analysis, decision making, and meetings D. Expert judgment, data analysis, analogous estimating, parametric estimating, three point estimating, bottom-up estimating, and decision making
C. The tools and techniques for Estimate Activity Durations are expert judgment, analogous estimating, parametric estimating, three-point estimating, bottom-up estimating, data analysis (alternatives analysis, reserve analysis), decision making, and meetings.
You are the project manager for Changing Tides video games. You have produced a project schedule network diagram and have updated the project documents, including the activity list, activity attributes, assumption log, and milestone list. Which process have you just finished?
A. The Define Activities process, which identifies all the specific activities of the project
B. The Sequence Activities process, which identifies all the activity dependencies
C. The Develop Schedule process, which diagrams project network time estimates
D. The Estimate Activity Durations process, which estimates activity durations
B. The Sequence Activities process produces project schedule network diagrams and project documents updates, which include updating the activity list, activity attributes, assumption log, and milestone list. The purpose of this process is to identify all activity dependencies.
Your project’s primary constraint is quality. To make certain the project team members don’t feel too pressed for time and to avoid schedule risk, you decide to use which of the following activity estimating tools?
A. Three-point estimates
B. Analogous estimating
C. Reserve analysis
D. Parametric estimating
C. Reserve analysis takes schedule risk into consideration and adds a percentage of time or additional work periods to the estimate to prevent schedule delays.
You have been hired as a contract project manager for Grapevine Vineyards. Grapevine wants you to design an Internet wine club for its customers. One of the activities for this project is the installation and testing of several new servers. You know from past experience it takes about 16 hours per server to accomplish this task. Since you’re installing 10 new servers, you estimate this activity to take 160 hours. Which of the estimating techniques have you used?
A. Parametric estimating
B. Analogous estimating
C. Bottom-up estimating
D. Reserve analysis
A. Parametric estimating uses an algorithm or formula that multiplies a known element-such as the quantity of materials needed-by the time it takes to install or complete one unit of materials. The result is a total estimate for the activity. In this case, 10 servers multiplied by 16 hours per server gives you a 160-hour total duration estimate.
All of the following statements describe the activity list except which one?
A. The activity list is an output of the Define Activities process.
B. The activity list includes all activities of the project.
C. The activity list is an extension of and a component of the WBS.
D. The activity list includes an identifier and description of the activity.
C. The activity list is a component of the project schedule, not the WBS. The activity list includes all the project activities, an identifier, and a description of the activity. The activity list is an output of the Define Activities process.
You have been hired as a contract project manager for Grapevine Vineyards. Grapevine wants you to design an Internet wine club for its customers. Customers must register before being allowed to order wine over the Internet so that legal age can be established. You know that the module to verify registration must be written and tested using data from Grapevine’s existing database. This new module cannot be tested until the data from the existing system is loaded. This is an example of which of the following?
A. Preferential logic
B. Soft logic
C. Discretionary dependency
D. Hard logic
D. This is an example of a mandatory dependency, also known as hard logic. Mandatory dependencies are inherent in the nature of the work. Discretionary dependencies, also called preferred logic, preferential logic, and soft logic, are defined by the project management team.
You are the project manager for Design Your Web Site, Inc. Your company is designing the website for a national grocery store chain. You have your activity list in hand and are ready to diagram the activity dependencies using the PDM technique. Which of the following statements is true?
A. PDM is also the AON diagramming method, and it uses, one-time estimate.
B. PDM is also the AOA diagramming method and uses logical relationships.
C. PDM is also the ADM diagramming method, and its most common logical relationship is finish-to-start.
D. PDM is also the GERT method, which allows for conditions, branches, and loops.
A. The precedence diagramming method is also known as the activity on node (AON) diagramming method. GERT stands for Graphical Evaluation and Review Technique, a diagramming method that allows for conditions, branches, and loops.
You are working on a project that requires resources with expertise in the areas of hospitality, management, and entertainment. You are preparing your project schedule network diagram and know that you will use only finish-to-start dependencies. Which of the following
diagramming methods does this describe?
A. PDM
B. ADM
C. AON
D. Network template
B. The arrow diagramming method uses only finish-to-start dependencies.
Which logical relationship does the PDM use most often?
A. Start-to-finish
B. Start-to-start
C. Finish-to-finish
D. Finish-to-start
D. Finish-to-start (FS) is the most commonly used logical relationship in PDM and the default relationship in most project management software packages.
You are a project manager for Picture Shades, Inc. Your company manufactures window shades that have replicas of Renaissance-era paintings for hotel chains. Picture Shades is taking its product to the home market, and you’re managing the new project. It will offer its products at retail stores as well as on its website. You’re developing the project schedule for this undertaking and have determined the critical path. Which of the following statements is true?
A. You calculated the most likely start date and most likely finish dates, float time, and
weighted average estimates.
B. You calculated the activity dependency and the optimistic and pessimistic activity duration estimates.
C. You calculated the early and late start dates, the early and late finish dates, and float times for all activities.
D. You calculated the optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely duration times and the float times for all activities.
C. CPM calculates a single early and late start date and a single early and late finish date for each activity. Once these dates are known, float time is calculated for each activity to determine the critical path. The other answers contain elements of PERT calculations.
You are a project manager for Picture Shades, Inc. Your company manufactures window shades that have replicas of Renaissance-era paintings for hotel chains. Picture Shades is taking its product to the home market, and you’re managing the new project. It will offer its
products at retail stores as well as on its website. You’re developing the project schedule for this undertaking. Looking at the following graph, which path is the critical path? (See Pic 4-1)
A. A-B-C-E-H
B. A-D-E-H
C. A-F-G-H
D. A-F-G-E-H
B. The only information you have for this example is activity duration; therefore, the critical path is the path with the longest duration. Path A-D-E-H with a duration of 34 days is the critical path.
Use the following graphic to answer this question. If the duration of activity B was changed to 10 days and the duration of activity G was changed to 9 days, which path is the critical path? (See Pic 4-2)
A. A-B-C-E-H
B. A-D-E-H
C. A-F-G-H
D. A-F-G-E-H
D. The only information you have for this example is activity duration, so you must calculate the critical path based on the durations given. The duration of A-B-C-E-H
increased by 3 days, for a total of 35 days. The duration of A-F-G-H and A-F-G-E-H each increased by 3 days. A-F-G-E-H totals 36 days and becomes the new critical path.
Which of the following statements is true regarding the critical path?
A. It should not be compressed.
B. It allows for looping and branching.
C. The critical path technique is the same as PERT.
D. It’s the duration of all tasks with zero or negative float.
D. You calculate the critical path by adding together the durations of all the tasks with zero or negative float. The critical path can be compressed using crashing techniques.
You are a project manager for Move It Now trucking company. Your company specializes in moving household goods across the city or across the country. Your project involves upgrading the nationwide computer network for the company. Your lead engineer has given you the following estimates for a critical path activity: 60 days most likely, 72 days pessimistic, 48 days optimistic. What is the weighted average or expected value?
A. 54
B. 66
C. 60
D. 30
C. The calculation for PERT is the sum of optimistic time plus pessimistic time plus four times the most likely time divided by 6. The calculation for this example is as follows: [48 + 72 + (4 × 60)] / 6 = 60.
You are a project manager for Move It Now trucking company. Your company specializes in moving household goods across the city or across the country. Your project involves upgrading the nationwide computer network for the company. Your lead engineer has given
you the following estimates for a critical path activity: 60 days most likely, 72 days pessimistic, 48 days optimistic. What is the standard deviation?
A. 22
B. 20
C. 2
D. 4
D. You calculate the standard deviation by subtracting the optimistic time from the pessimistic time and dividing the result by 6. The calculation for this example is as follows: (72 – 48) / 6 = 4.
If you know the expected value is 500 and the standard deviation is 12, you can say with approximately a 95 percent confidence rating which of the following?
A. The activity will take from 488 to 512 days.
B. The activity will take from 464 to 536 days.
C. The activity will take from 494 to 506 days.
D. The activity will take from 476 to 524 days.
D. There is a 95 percent probability that the work will finish within plus or minus two standard deviations. The expected value is 500, and the standard deviation times 2 is 24, so the activity will take from 476 to 524 days.
If your expected value is 110 and the standard deviation is 12, which of the following is true?
A. There is approximately a 99 percent chance of completing this activity in 86 to 134 days.
B. There is approximately a 68 percent chance of completing this activity in 98 to 122 days.
C. There is approximately a 95 percent chance of completing this activity in 98 to 122 days.
D. There is approximately a 75 percent chance of completing this activity in 86 to 134 days.
B. A 68 percent probability is calculated using plus or minus one standard deviation, a 95 percent probability uses plus or minus two standard deviations, and a 99 percent probability uses plus or minus three standard deviations.
You are the project manager working on a research project for a new drug treatment. Your preliminary project schedule runs past the due date for a federal grant application. The manager of the R&D department has agreed to release two resources to work on your project to meet the federal grant application date. This is an example of ___________.
A. Crashing
B. Fast tracking
C. Resource leveling
D. Adjusting the resource calendar
A. Crashing the schedule includes tasks such as adding resources to the critical path tasks or speeding up deliveries of materials and resources.
You are the project manager for Rivera Gourmet Adventure Vacations. Rivera combines the wonderful tastes of great gourmet food with outdoor adventure activities. Your project involves installing a new human resources software system. Your stakeholders understand this is a large undertaking and that you might experience some schedule slippage. Jason, the
database analyst working on this project, is overallocated. He is critical to the success of the project and you don’t want to burn him out by overscheduling him. Which of the following actions should you take?
A. You should use fast tracking to smooth out resource overallocation.
B. You should use crashing to resource level the critical path tasks.
C. You should use resource leveling to balance out resource assignments.
D. You should use resource smoothing to smooth out resource assignments.
C. Resource leveling is used for overallocated resources and allows for changes to the schedule completion dates. Crashing and fast tracking are schedule compression techniques that shorten the schedule. Resource smoothing techniques will not allow for changes to the critical path or project end date, and since you are concerned about not overusing this resource, lengthening the schedule is a better option.
What is one of the problems with project management software?
A. The project manager manages the software instead of the project.
B. Project duration calculations are sometimes approximate.
C. You cannot override the project management software decisions regarding schedules.
D. It’s expensive and difficult to use.
A. Project management software is a useful tool for the project manager, and it automates project scheduling, allowing for what-if analysis and easy changes. But if you focus too much on the tool and ignore the project, the tool becomes a hindrance.
All of the following are true regarding the stakeholder engagement plan except for which one?
A. The stakeholder engagement plan helps to define and manage the flow of information to the stakeholders.
B. The stakeholder engagement plan is developed by analyzing needs, interests, and potential impacts of the stakeholders.
C. The stakeholder engagement plan includes details regarding the distribution of information, reasons for distributing information, and timing of the information.
D. The stakeholder engagement plan is created using tools and techniques such as expert judgment, meetings, and analytical techniques.
B. Ambiguity risk is addressed using gap analysis or benchmarking. Document what you know, and identify what is uncertain or not understood and work with experts outside of the organization to fill in the gaps in knowledge.
This document is used to establish the criteria for planning, estimating, budgeting, and
controlling costs.
A. Cost baseline, an output of the Determine Budget process. The cost baseline is based on the approved project charter, project scope, schedule, resources, and human resource management plan in order to manage project costs.
B. Performance management baseline, an output of the Plan Cost Management process. The performance management baseline is based on the project scope, schedule, resources, and human resource management plan to manage project costs.
C. Project funding requirements, an output of the Determine Budget process. Project funding is based on the project scope, schedule, resources, and other information in order to manage project costs.
D. Cost management plan, an output of the Plan Cost Management process. The cost management plan is based on the approved project charter, schedule, and risk management plan in order to manage project costs.
C. The purpose of Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis is to determine what impact the identified risk events will have on the project and the probability they’ll occur. It also puts risks in priority order according to their effects on the project objectives and assigns a risk score for the project.
You are a project manager working for iTrim Central and you’re preparing your cost management plan. You know that all of the following are true regarding this plan except for which one?
A. The WBS provides the framework for this plan.
B. Units of measure should be described in the plan usually as hours, days, weeks, or lump sum.
C. This plan is a subsidiary of the project management plan.
D. Control thresholds should be described in the plan as to how estimates will adhere to rounding ($100 or 1,000, and so on).
B. The risk management plan details how risk management processes will be implemented, monitored, and controlled throughout the life of the project. The risk management plan does not include responses to risks or triggers. Responses to risks are documented in the risk register as part of the Plan Risk Responses process.
You are a project manager working for iTrim Central. Your organization has developed a new dieting technique that is sure to be the next craze. One of the deliverables of your feasibility study was an analysis of the potential financial performance of this new product,
and your executives are very pleased with the numbers. You will be working with several vendors to produce products, marketing campaigns, and software that will track customers’ progress with the new techniques. For purposes of performing earned value measurements
for project costs, you are going to place which of the following in the WBS?
A. Chart of accounts
B. Code of accounts
C. Control account
D. Reserve account
C. Continuous probability distributions graphically display the probability of risk to the project objectives as well as the time or cost elements.
Which of the following options is the key component of determining cost estimates and should be completed as early in the project as possible?
A. Scope definition
B. Resource requirements
C. Activity cost estimates
D. Basis of estimates
D. The data representation tool and technique called a bubble chart is a way to graphically display three factors of risk characteristics.
You want to improve your cost estimates by taking into account estimation uncertainty and risk. Which of the following tools and techniques will you use?
A. Analogous estimates
B. Three-point estimating
C. Parametric estimates
D. Bottom-up estimates
C. Criticality analysis determines the risk impact to critical path tasks on the project schedule.
You have received estimates for activity costs associated with one work package of the WBS. Additional contingencies have been added to the estimates to account for cost uncertainty.
Which of the following tools and techniques of Estimate Costs does this describe?
A. Reserve analysis
B. Three-point estimates
C. Vendor bid analysis
D. Analogous estimates
C. Forecasted results of the project schedule and costs as determined by the outcomes of risk analysis is an update that is produced from the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process.
You have received the following estimates for a complex activity that is critical to the success of your project. The three-point estimates are as follows: The most likely estimate is $42, the optimistic estimate is $35, and the pessimistic estimate is $54. What is the expected activity cost of this activity using the beta distribution formula (rounded to the nearest dollar)?
A. 49
B. 39
C. 43
D. 44
B. This risk event has the potential to save money on project costs, so it’s an opportunity, and the appropriate strategy to use in this case is the exploit strategy.
You are the project manager for a custom home-building construction company. You are working on the model home project for the upcoming Show Homes Tour. The model home includes smart home connections, talking appliances, and wiring for home theaters. You are working on the cost baseline for this project. All of the following statements are true except which one?
A. This process aggregates the estimated costs of project activities.
B. The cost baseline will be used to measure variances and future project performance.
C. This process assigns cost estimates for expected future period operating costs.
D. The cost baseline is the time-phased budget at completion for the project.
D. This risk event has the potential to save money on project costs. Sharing involves using a third party to help ensure that the opportunity occurs.
Your project sponsor has requested a cost estimate for the project. She would like the cost estimate to be as accurate as possible because this might be her one and only chance to secure the budget for this project because of recent cuts in special projects. You decide
to use ____________.
A. Analogous estimating techniques
B. Bottom-up estimating techniques
C. Top-down estimating techniques
D. Expert judgment techniques
A. The best answer is A. Triggers are warning signs of an impending risk event.
You are the project manager for a custom-home-building construction company. You are working on the model home project for the upcoming Show Homes Tour. The model home includes smart home connections, talking appliances, and wiring for home theaters. You are working on the Determine Budget process. All of the following statements are true except which one?
A. You document the funding limit reconciliation to include a contingency for unplanned risks.
B. You discover that updates to the risk register are needed as a result of performing this process.
C. You document that funding requirements are derived from the cost baseline.
D. The performance measurement baseline will be used to perform earned value management calculations.
C. The probability and impact matrix multiplies the probability and impact to determine a risk score. Using this score and a predetermined matrix, you determine if the score is a high, medium, or low designation.
Which of the following is displayed as an S-curve?
A. Funding requirements
B. Cost baseline
C. Cost estimates
D. Expenditures to date
B. Monte Carlo analysis is a simulation technique that computes project costs many times in an iterative fashion.
All of the following are tools and techniques of the Determine Budget process except for which one?
A. Data analysis (reserve analysis)
B. Expert judgment
C. Financing
D. Data analysis (cost of quality)
C. Mitigation attempts to reduce the impact of a risk event should it occur. Making plans to arrange for the leased equipment reduces the consequences of the risk.
Your project sponsor has requested a cost estimate for the project on which you’re working. This project is similar in scope to a project you worked on last year. She would like to get the cost estimates as soon as possible. Accuracy is not her primary concern right now. She needs a ballpark figure by tomorrow. You decide to use ___________.
A. Analogous estimating techniques
B. Bottom-up estimating techniques
C. Parametric estimating techniques
D. Three-point estimating techniques
B. Risk appetite and risk threshold are the components of risk attitude.
You have eight key stakeholders (plus yourself) to communicate with on your project. Which of the following is true?
A. There are 36 channels of communication, and this should be a consideration when using the communications technology tool and technique.
B. There are 28 channels of communication, and this should be a consideration when using the communications requirements analysis tool and technique.
C. There are 28 channels of communication, and this should be a consideration when using the communications technology tool and technique.
D. There are 36 channels of communication, and this should be a consideration when using the communications requirements analysis tool and technique.
A. This question describes risk threshold levels of the stakeholders. Risk triggers are recorded in the risk register during the Plan Risk Responses process. The risk of buying a machine from a new supplier would pose a threat to the project, not an opportunity. Interviewing might have been used, but this question wasn’t describing the Identify Risks process.
All of the following are true regarding Plan Communications Management except for
which one?
A. The communications management plan is a component plan of the project management plan.
B. This process should be completed as early in the project as possible. It is used to define and manage the flow of project information.
C. It’s tightly linked with enterprise environmental factors, and all organizational process assets are used as inputs for this process.
D. Data gathering, communication technology, communication methods, and expert judgment are some of the tools and techniques of this process.
B. The question describes sensitivity analysis, which is a tool and technique of the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process. Tornado diagrams are often used to display sensitivity analysis data.
