PMP Study Guide CH0-Assessment Test

Question 1

1. The project sponsor has approached you with a dilemma. At the annual stockholders meeting,
   the CEO announced that the project you’re managing will be completed by the end of this year. The problem is that this is six months prior to the scheduled completion date. It’s
   too late to go back and correct her mistake, and now stockholders expect implementation by the announced date. You must speed up the delivery date of this project. Your primary constraint before this occurred was the budget. Choose the best action from the options listed to speed up the project.
   A. Hire more resources to get the work completed faster.
   B. Ask for more money so that you can contract out one of the phases you had planned to do with in-house resources.
   C. Utilize negotiation and influencing skills to convince the project sponsor to speak with the CEO and make a correction to her announcement.
   D. Examine the project management plan to see whether there are any phases that can be fast tracked, and then revise the project management plan to reflect the compression of
   the schedule.

Answer 1

D. Fast tracking is the best answer in this scenario. Budget was the original constraint on this project, so it’s unlikely the project manager would get more resources to assist with the project. The next best thing is to compress phases to shorten the project duration. For moreinformation, please see Chapter 1.

Question 2

These types of dependencies can create arbitrary total float values and limit your scheduling options.
A. Discretionary
B. External
C. Mandatory
D. Hard logic

Answer 2

A. Discretionary dependencies can create arbitrary total float values, and they can also limit scheduling options. For more information, please see Chapter 4.

Question 3

Project managers spend what percentage of their time communicating?
A. 90
B. 85
C. 75
D. 50

Answer 3

A. Project managers spend about 90 percent of their time communicating through status meetings, team meetings, email, verbal communications, and so on. For more information, please see Chapter 9.

Question 4

Which of the following is not another term for inspections?
A. Reviews
B. Assessment
C. Walkthrough
D. Audits

Answer 4

B. Inspections are also called reviews, peer reviews, walkthrough, and audits. For more information, please see Chapter 11.

Question 5

The primary function of the Closing processes is to perform all of the following except which one?
A. Formalize lessons learned and distribute this information to project participants.
B. Complete all activities associated with closing out the project.
C. Validate the deliverables are complete and accurate.
D. Ensure all project work is complete and accurate.

Answer 5

C. The deliverables are validated and accepted during the Control Scope process. For more information, please see Chapter 12.

Question 6

During your project meeting, a problem was discussed, and a resolution to the problem was reached. During the meeting, the participants started wondering why they thought the
problem was such a big issue. Sometime after the meeting, you received an email from one of the meeting participants saying they’ve changed their mind about the solution reached in the meeting and need to resurface the problem. The solution reached during the initial project meeting is a result of which of the following conflict resolution techniques?
A. Collaborate
B. Forcing
C. Smoothing
D. Storming

Answer 6

C. The smoothing technique (also known as accommodate) does not usually result in apermanent solution. The problem is downplayed to make it seem less important than it is, which makes the problem tend to resurface later. For more information, please see Chapter 8.

Question 7

What are decision models?
A. Project selection criteria
B. Project selection methods
C. Project selection committees
D. Project resource and budget selection methods

Answer 7

B. Decision models are project selection methods that include benefit measurement methods and mathematical models. For more information, please see Chapter 2.

Question 8

You’ve been assigned as a project manager on a research and development project for a new dental procedure. You’re working in the Project Scope Management Knowledge Area. What is the purpose of the scope management plan?
A. The scope management plan describes and documents a scope baseline to help make future project decisions.
B. The scope management plan decomposes project deliverables into smaller units of work.
C. The scope management plan describes how project scope will be developed and how scope changes will be managed.
D. The scope management plan describes how cost and time estimates will be developed for project scope changes.

Answer 8

C. The scope management plan outlines how project scope will be managed and how scope changes will be incorporated into the project. For more information, please see Chapter 3.

Question 9

Which of the following statements regarding Ishikawa diagrams in the Identify Risks process is not true?
A. Ishikawa diagrams are also called cause-and-effect diagrams.
B. Ishikawa diagrams are also called fishbone diagrams.
C. Ishikawa diagrams are part of the diagramming tool and technique of this process.
D. Ishikawa diagrams show the steps needed to identify the risk.

Answer 9

D. Cause-and-effect diagrams—also called Ishikawa or fishbone diagrams—show the relationship between the effects of problems and their causes. Kaoru Ishikawa developed cause-and-effect diagrams. For more information, please see Chapter 9.

Question 10

Which of the following lists the outputs of the Perform Integrated Change Control process?
A. Approved change requests, work performance information, project management plan updates (any component), project documents updates (change log)
B. Approved change requests, project management plan updates (any component), project documents updates (change log), enterprise environmental factors updates
C. Approved change requests, project management plan updates (any component), project documents updates (change log)
D. Approved change requests, project management plan updates (any component), project documents updates (change log), organizational process assets updates

Answer 10

C. The outputs of this process are Approved change requests, project management plan updates (any component), and project documents updates (change log). For more information, please see Chapter 10.

Question 11

What is one of the most important skills a project manager can have?
A. Negotiation skills
B. Influencing skills
C. Communication skills
D. Business skills

Answer 11

C. Negotiation, influencing, and business skills are all important for a project manager to possess. However, good communication skills are the most important skills a project
manager can have. For more information, please see Chapter 1.

Question 12

All of the following are a type of project ending except for which one?
A. Extinction
B. Starvation
C. Desertion
D. Addition

Answer 12

C. The four types of project endings are addition, integration, starvation, and extinction. For more information, please see Chapter 12.

Question 13

You are the project manager for a construction company that is building a new city and county office building in your city. Your CCB recently approved a scope change. You know that scope change might come about as a result of all of the following except which one?
A. Schedule revisions
B. Product scope change
C. Changes to the agreed-on WBS
D. Changes to the project requirements

Answer 13

A. Scope changes will cause schedule revisions, but schedule revisions do not change the project scope. Project requirements are part of the project scope statement; therefore, scope
change might come about as a result of changes to the project requirements, as stated in Option D. For more information, please see Chapter 11.

Question 14

You are the project manager for Xylophone Phonics. It produces children’s software programs that teach basic reading and math skills. You’re performing cost estimates for your project and don’t have a lot of details yet. Which of the following techniques should you use?
A. Analogous estimating techniques, because this is a form of expert judgment that uses historical information from similar projects
B. Bottom-up estimating techniques, because this is a form of expert judgment that uses historical information from similar projects
C. Monte Carlo analysis, because this is a modeling technique that uses simulation to determine estimates
D. Parametric modeling, because this is a form of simulation used to determine estimates

Answer 14

A. Analogous estimating—also called top-down estimating—is a form of expert judgment. Analogous estimating can be used to estimate cost or time and considers historical information from previous, similar projects. For more information, please see Chapter 4.

Question 15

Project managers have the highest level of authority and the most power in which type of organizational structure?
A. Project-oriented
B. Simple
C. Functional
D. Hybrid

Answer 15

A. Project managers have the highest level of power and authority in a project-oriented organization. They also have high levels of power and authority in a strong matrix organization. For more information, please see Chapter 1.

Question 16

This process is concerned with determining the engagement levels of the stakeholders.
A. Plan Communications Management
B. Manage Communications
C. Plan Stakeholder Engagement
D. Manage Stakeholder Engagement

Answer 16

C. Plan Stakeholder Engagement is concerned with determining the engagement levels of the stakeholders, understanding their needs and interests, and understanding how they might impact the project or how the project may impact them. For more information, please see Chapter 5.

Question 17

All of the following statements are true regarding risk events except which one?
A. Project risks are uncertain events.
B. If risks occur, they can have a positive or negative effect on project objectives.
C. Unknown risks can be threats to the project objectives, and nothing can be done to plan for them.
D. Risks that have more perceived rewards to the organization than consequences should be accepted.

Answer 17

C. Unknown risks might be threats or opportunities to the project, and the project manager should set aside contingency reserves to deal with them. For more information, please see Chapter 6.

Question 18

Which of the following describes the key focus or purpose of the Manage Project Knowledge process?
A. Gathering, creating, storing, distributing, retrieving, and disposing of project information
B. Managing communications, resolving issues, engaging others on the project, managing
expectations, improving project performance by implementing requested changes, and
managing concerns in anticipation of potential problems
C. Sharing organizational and project knowledge and creating new knowledge that can be shared in the future
D. Performing systematic activities to determine which processes should be used to achieve the project requirements, and to ensure that activities and processes are performed efficiently and effectively

Answer 18

C. Sharing knowledge and creating knowledge are the focus of this process.
Option A describes the Manage Communications process, Option B describes the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process, and
Option D describes the Manage Quality process. For more information, please see Chapter 9.

Question 19

You are the project manager for Xylophone Phonics. This company produces children’s software programs that teach basic reading and math skills. You are ready to assign project
roles, responsibilities, and reporting relationships. On which project Planning process are you working?
A. Estimate Activity Resources
B. Plan Resource Management
C. Acquire Resources
D. Plan Organizational Resources

Answer 19

B. The Plan Resource Management process identifies project resources, documents roles and responsibilities of project team members, and documents reporting relationships. For more information, please see Chapter 7.

Question 20

You know that PV = 470, AC = 430, EV = 460, EAC = 500, and BAC = 525. What is VAC?
A. 65
B. 20
C. 25
D. 30

Answer 20

C. VAC is calculated this way: VAC = BAC – EAC.
Therefore, 525 – 500 = 25.
For more information, please see Chapter 11.

Question 21

You are a project manager who has recently held a project team kickoff meeting where all the team members were formally introduced to each other. Some of the team members
know each other from other projects and have been working with you for the past three weeks.
Which of the following statements is not true?
A. Team building improves the knowledge and skills of team members.
B. Team building builds feelings of trust and agreement among team members, which can improve morale.
C. Team building can create a dynamic environment and cohesive culture to improve productivity of both the team and the project.
D. Team building occurs throughout the life of the project and can establish clear expectations and behaviors for project team members, leading to increased productivity.

Answer 21

D. Team building does occur throughout the life of the project, but ground rules are what establish clear expectations and behaviors for project team members.
For more information, please see Chapter 8.

Question 22

You are a project manager for the Swirling Seas Cruises food division. You’re considering two different projects regarding food services on the cruise lines. The initial cost of Project
Fish’n for Chips will be $800,000, with expected cash inflows of $300,000 per quarter.
Project Picnic’s payback period is six months. Which project should you recommend?
A. Project Fish’n for Chips, because its payback period is two months shorter than Project Picnic’s
B. Project Fish’n for Chips, because the costs on Project Picnic are unknown
C. Project Picnic, because Project Fish’n for Chips’s payback period is four months longer than Project Picnic’s
D. Project Picnic, because Project Fish’n for Chips’s payback period is two months longer than Project Picnic’s

Answer 22

D. The payback period for Project Fish’n for Chips is eight months. This project will receive $300,000 every three months, or $100,000 per month. The $800,000 will be paid back in
eight months. For more information, please see Chapter 2.

Question 23

Which of the following compression techniques increases risk?
A. Crashing
B. Resource leveling
C. Fast tracking
D. Lead and lag

Answer 23

C. Fast tracking is a compression technique that increases risk and potentially causes rework. Fast tracking is performing two activities previously scheduled to start one after the other in parallel. For more information, please see Chapter 4.

Question 24

Name the ethical code you’ll be required to adhere to as a PMP® credential holder.
A. Project Management Policy and Ethics Code
B. PMI® Standards and Ethics Code of Conduct
C. Project Management Code of Professional Ethics
D. PMI® Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct

Answer 24

D. The PMI® Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct is published by PMI®, and all PMP® credential holders are expected to adhere to its standards. For more information,
please see Chapter 12.

Question 25

You have been assigned to a project that will allow job seekers to fill out applications and submit them via the company website. You report to the VP of human resources. You are also responsible for screening applications for the information technology division and setting up interviews. The project coordinator has asked for the latest version of your changes to the online application page for his review. Which organizational structure do you work in?
A. Functional organization
B. Weak matrix organization
C. Virtual organization
D. Balanced matrix organization

Answer 25

B. Functional managers who have a lot of authority and power working with project coordinators who have minimal authority and power characterizes a weak matrix organization. Project managers in weak matrix organizations are sometimes called project coordinators, project leaders, or project expeditors.
For more information, please seeChapter 1.

Question 26

You are the project manager for Lucky Stars Candies. You’ve identified the requirements for the project and documented them where?
A. In the requirements documentation, which will be used as an input to the Create WBS process
B. In the project scope statement, which is used as an input to the Create WBS process
C. In the product requirements document, which is an output of the Define Scope process
D. In the project specifications document, which is an output of the Define Scope process

Answer 26

A. The requirements documentation contains a list of requirements for the project along with other important information regarding the requirements.
For more information, please see Chapter 3.

Question 27

What is the purpose of the project charter?
A. To recognize and acknowledge the project sponsor
B. To recognize and acknowledge the existence of the project and commit organizational resources to the project
C. To acknowledge the existence of the project team, project manager, and project sponsor
D. To describe the selection methods used to choose this project over its competitors

Answer 27

B. The purpose of a project charter is to recognize and acknowledge the existence of a project and commit resources to the project. The charter names the project manager and
project sponsor, but that’s not its primary purpose.
For more information, please see Chapter 2.

Question 28

Which of the following are tools and techniques of the Identify Stakeholders process?
A. Expert judgment, data gathering, data analysis, data representation, and meetings
B. Expert judgment, stakeholder analysis, data representation, and meetings
C. Stakeholder analysis and expert judgment
D. Data representation, stakeholder management strategy, expert judgment, and meetings

Answer 28

A. Identify Stakeholders tools and techniques are expert judgment, data gathering, data analysis, data representation, and meetings. For more information, please see Chapter 2.

Question 29

You are a project manager working on a software development project. You’ve developed the risk management plan, identified risks, and determined risk responses for the risks. A risk event occurs, and you implement the response. Then, another risk event occurs as a result of the response you implemented. What type of risk is this?
A. Trigger risk
B. Residual risk
C. Secondary risk
D. Mitigated risk

Answer 29

C. Secondary risk events occur as a result of the implementation of a response to another risk.
For more information, please see Chapter 6.

Question 30

You are working on a project that will upgrade the phone system in your customer service center. You have considered using analogous estimating, parametric estimating, bottom-up
estimating, and three-point estimating to determine activity costs. Which process does thisdescribe?
A. Estimating Activity Resources
B. Estimate Costs
C. Determine Budget
D. Estimating Activity Costs

Answer 30

B. Estimate Costs is where activity costs are estimated using some of the tools and techniques listed in the question. The remaining tools and techniques of this process
are expert judgment, data analysis, project management information system, and group decision making. For more information, please see Chapter 5.

Question 31

Failure costs are also known as which of the following?
A. Internal costs
B. Cost of poor quality
C. Cost of keeping defects out of the hands of customers
D. Prevention costs

Answer 31

B. Failure costs are associated with the cost of quality and are also known as cost of poor quality. For more information, please see Chapter 7.

Question 32

Feeding buffers and the project buffer are part of which of the following Develop Schedule tool and technique?
A. Critical path method
B. Schedule network analysis
C. Applying leads and lags
D. Critical chain method

Answer 32

D. The critical chain is a resource-constrained critical path that adds duration buffers to help protect schedule slippage. For more information, please see Chapter 4.

Question 33

You are working on a project that will upgrade the phone system in your customer service center. You have used bottom-up estimating techniques to assign costs to the project activities and have determined the cost baseline. Which of the following statements is true?
A. You have completed the Estimate Cost process and now need to complete the Determine
Budget process to develop the project’s cost baseline.
B. You have completed the Estimate Cost process and established a cost baseline to measure future projects against.
C. You have completed the Determine Budget process and now need to complete the Schedule Development process to establish a project baseline to measure future project
performance against.
D. You have completed the Determine Budget process, and the cost baseline will be used to measure future project performance.

Answer 33

D. The Determine Budget process establishes the cost baseline, which is used to measure and track the project throughout the remaining process groups.
For more information, please see Chapter 5.

Question 34

Each of the following options describes an element of the Develop Project Management Plan process except for which one?
A. Project charter
B. Outputs from other planning processes
C. Configuration management system
D. Organizational process assets

Answer 34

C. The inputs to Develop Project Management Plan include project charter, outputs from other processes, enterprise environmental factors (EEF), and organizational process assets
(OPA). The tools and techniques of this process are expert judgment, data gathering, interpersonal and team skills, and meetings. For more information, please see Chapter 3.

Question 35

There are likely to be team loyalty issues in a matrixed environment. All of the following are true regarding this situation as it pertains to the Manage Team process except for which one?
A. Two of the tools and techniques you might use to manage these relationships effectively are communications methods and conflict management.
B. In this type of structure, team members report to both a functional manager and a project manager. Both managers should have input to the project performance appraisal for all team members, which is a tool and technique of this process.
C. The project manager is generally responsible for managing team members’ relationships.
D. The effective management of these reporting relationships is often a critical success factor for the project.

Answer 35

A. The tools and techniques of the Manage Team process are interpersonal and team skills (conflict management, decision making, emotional intelligence, influencing, leadership) and
PMIS. For more information, please see Chapter 8.

Question 36

Monte Carlo analysis can help predict the impact of risks on project deliverables. It is an element of one of the tools and techniques of one of the following processes. The other tools
and techniques of this process include sensitivity analysis, decision tree analysis, and influence diagrams.
A. Plan Risk Responses
B. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
C. Identify Risks
D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

Answer 36

B. Monte Carlo analysis is a simulation technique that is part of a simulation tool and technique performed in the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process.
For more information, please see Chapter 6.

Question 37

Which of the following statements regarding configuration management is not true?
A. Configuration management involves managing changes to the project baselines.
B. Change control systems are a subset of the configuration management system.
C. Configuration management focuses on the specifications of the deliverables of the project.
D. Configuration management validates and improves the project by evaluating the impact of each change.

Answer 37

A. Change control systems are a subset of the configuration management system. Change control systems manage changes to the deliverables and/or project baselines.
For more information, please see Chapter 10.

Question 38

Which performance measurement tells you what the projected total cost of the project will be at completion?
A. ETC
B. EV
C. AC
D. EAC

Answer 38

D. Estimate at completion (EAC) estimates the total cost of the project at completion based on the performance of the project to date. For more information, please see Chapter 11.

Question 39

Which of the following contracts should you use for projects that have a degree of uncertainty and require a large investment early in the project life cycle?
A. Fixed price
B. Cost reimbursable
C. Lump sum
D. T&M

Answer 39

B. Cost-reimbursable contracts are used when the degree of uncertainty is high and when the project requires a large investment prior to completion.
For more information, please see Chapter 7.

Question 40

According to the PMBOK® Guide, the project manager is identified and assigned during which process?
A. During the Develop Project Charter process
B. At the conclusion of the Develop Project Charter process
C. Prior to beginning the Planning processes
D. Prior to beginning the Define Scope process

Answer 40

A. According to the PMBOK® Guide, the project manager should be assigned during the development of the project charter, which occurs in the Develop Project Charter process.
For more information, please see Chapter 2.

Question 41

All of the following are tools and techniques of the Close Project or Phase process except 
A. Records management systems
B. Expert judgment
C. Data analysis
D. Meetings

Answer 41

A. The tools and techniques of Close Project or Phase are expert judgment, data analysis, and meetings.
For more information, please see Chapter 12.

Question 42

The inputs of the Monitor Communications process include all of the following except for which one?
A. Project management plan
B. Project documents
C. Enterprise environmental factors
D. Work performance information

Answer 42

D. Work performance information is an output, not an input, of the Monitor Communications process. The other inputs of this process are work performance data and organizational process assets. For more information, please see Chapter 10.

Question 43

All of the following statements are true regarding risks except for which one?
A. Risks might be threats to the objectives of the project.
B. Risks are certain events that may be threats or opportunities to the objectives of the project.
C. Risks might be opportunities to the objectives of the project.
D. Risks have causes and consequences.

Answer 43

B. Risks are uncertain events that may be threats or opportunities to the objectives of the project.
For more information, please see Chapter 6.

Question 44

Which performance measurement tells you the cost of the work that has been authorized and budgeted for a WBS component?
A. PV
B. EV
C. AC
D. EVM

Answer 44

A. Planned value is the cost of work that has been authorized and budgeted for a schedule activity or WBS component.
For more information, please see Chapter 11.

Question 45

Which of the following statements is true regarding the Project Management Knowledge Areas?
A. They include Initiation, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing.
B. They consist of 10 areas that bring together processes that have things in common.
C. They consist of five processes that bring together phases of projects that have things in common.
D. They include Planning, Executing, and Monitoring and Controlling processes because these three processes are commonly interlinked.

Answer 45

B. The project management Knowledge Areas bring together processes that have commonalities. For example, the Project Quality Management Knowledge Area includes the Plan Quality Management, Manage Quality, and Control Quality processes. For more information, please see Chapter 2.

Question 46

You have just prepared an RFP for release. Your project involves a substantial amount of contract work detailed in the RFP. Your favorite vendor drops by and offers to give you and
your spouse the use of their company condo for your upcoming vacation. It’s located in a beautiful resort community that happens to be one of your favorite places to go for a getaway.
What is the most appropriate response?
A. Thank the vendor, but decline the offer because you know this could be considered a conflict of interest.
B. Thank the vendor, and accept. This vendor is always offering you incentives like this, so this offer does not likely have anything to do with the recent RFP release.
C. Thank the vendor, accept the offer, and immediately tell your project sponsor so they’re aware of what you’re doing.
D. Thank the vendor, but decline the offer because you’ve already made another arrangement for this vacation. Ask them whether you can take a rain check and arrange another time to use the condo.

Answer 46

A. The best response is to decline the offer. This is a conflict of interest, and accepting the offer puts your own integrity and the contract award process in jeopardy.
For more information, please see Chapter 12.

Question 47

What are the Define Scope process tools and techniques?
A. Cost–benefit analysis, scope baseline, expert judgment, and facilitated workshops
B. Product analysis, alternatives generation, and expert judgment
C. Product analysis, alternatives generation, expert judgment, and facilitated workshops
D. Data analysis, decision making, interpersonal and team skills, product analysis, and expert judgment

Answer 47

D. The tools and techniques of the Define Scope process include data analysis, decision making, interpersonal and team skills, product analysis, and expert judgment.
For more
information, please see Chapter 3.

Question 48

You are the project manager for Heartthrobs by the Numbers Dating Services. You’re working on an updated Internet site that will display pictures as well as short bios of prospective
heartbreakers. You have your activity list and resource requirements in hand and are planning to use parametric estimates and reserve analysis to determine activity durations.
Which of the following statements is true?
A. You are using inputs from the Estimate Activity Duration process.
B. You are using tools and techniques of the Estimate Cost process.
C. You are using tools and techniques of the Estimate Activity Durations process.
D. You are using inputs of the Estimate Costs process.

Answer 48

C. Parametric estimates and reserve analysis (part of data analysis) are two of the tools and techniques of the Estimate Activity Duration process. The other tools are expert judgment,
analogous estimating, bottom-up estimating, decision making, three-point estimating, and meetings.
For more information, please see Chapter 4.

Question 49

Your team is developing the risk management plan. Which tool and technique of this process is used to develop risk cost elements and schedule activities that will be included in the
project budget and schedule?
A. Meetings
B. Data analysis
C. Information gathering techniques
D. Risk data quality assessment

Answer 49

A. The Plan Risk Management process contains three tools and techniques: data analysis (stakeholder analysis), expert judgment, and meetings. Meetings are used to determine
the plans for performing risk management activities. One of the key components of these meetings is to determine risk cost elements, along with schedule activities, and definitions
of terms, and the development or definition of the probability and impact matrix. For more information, please see Chapter 6.

Question 50

What type of organization experiences the least amount of stress during project closeout?
A. Project-oriented
B. Functional
C. Weak matrix
D. Strong matrix

Answer 50

C. Weak matrix organizational structures tend to experience the least amount of stress during the project closeout processes. For more information, please see Chapter 12.

Question 51

You are the project manager for Xylophone Phonics. It produces children’s software programs that teach basic reading and math skills. You are performing the Plan Quality Management process and are identifying operational definitions. Which of the following does this describe?
A. The quality metrics
B. The quality management plan
C. The project documents update
D. The cost of quality

Answer 51

A. Operational definitions are quality metrics. They describe what is being measured and how it will be measured during the Control Quality process.
For more information, please see Chapter 7.

Question 52

You need to convey some very complex, detailed information to the project stakeholders.
What is the best method for communicating this kind of information?
A. Verbal
B. Vertical
C. Horizontal
D. Written

Answer 52

D. Information that is complex and detailed is best conveyed in writing. A verbal follow-up would be good to answer questions and clarify information. Vertical and horizontal are ways
of communicating within the organization.
For more information, please see Chapter 9.

Question 53

You are the project manager for Heartthrobs by the Numbers Dating Services. You’re working on an updated Internet site that will display pictures as well as short bios of prospective heartbreakers. You’ve just completed your project team assignments including the project team directory, and you published the resource calendar. Which process are you in?
A. Plan Resource Management
B. Manage Team
C. Develop Team
D. Acquire Resources

Answer 53

D. Resource calendars and project team assignments (which includes the project team directory) are outputs of the Acquire Resources process. For more information, please see Chapter 8.

Question 54

You are a project manager for Waterways Houseboats, Inc. You’ve been asked to perform a cost–benefit analysis for two proposed projects. Project A costs $2.4 million, with potential
benefits of $12 million and future operating costs of $3 million. Project B costs $2.8 million, with potential benefits of $14 million and future operating costs of $2 million.
Which project should you recommend?
A. Project A, because the cost to implement it is cheaper than with Project B
B. Project A, because the potential benefits plus the future operating costs are less in value than the same calculation for Project B
C. Project B, because the potential benefits minus the implementation and future operating costs are greater in value than the same calculation for Project A
D. Project B, because the potential benefits minus the costs to implement are greater in value than the same calculation for Project A

Answer 54

C. Project B’s cost–benefit analysis is a $9.2 million benefit to the company, compared to $6.6 million for Project A. Cost–benefit analysis takes into consideration the initial costs to
implement and future operating costs. For more information, please see Chapter 2.

Question 55

These diagrams rank-order factors for corrective action by frequency of occurrence. They are also a type of histogram.
A. Control charts
B. Process flowcharts
C. Scatter diagrams
D. Pareto diagrams

Answer 55

D. Pareto diagrams rank-order important factors for corrective action by frequency of occurrence. For more information, please see Chapter 11.

Question 56

You are a project manager working in a foreign country. You observe that some of your project team members are having a difficult time adjusting to the new culture. You provided them with training on cultural differences and the customs of this country before they arrived, but they still seem uncomfortable and disoriented. Which of the following statements is true?
A. This is the result of working with teams of people from two different countries.
B. This condition is known as culture shock.
C. This is the result of jet lag and travel fatigue.
D. This condition is known as global culturalism.

Answer 56

B. When people work in unfamiliar environments, culture shock can occur. Training and researching information about the country you’ll be working in can help counteract this.
For more information, please see Chapter 12.

Question 57

Your project involves the research and development of a new food additive. You’re ready to release the product to your customer when you discover that a minor reaction might
occur in people with certain conditions. The reactions to date have been very minor, and no known long-lasting side effects have been noted. As project manager, what should you do?
A. Do nothing because the reactions are so minor that very few people will be affected.
B. Inform the customer that you’ve discovered this condition and tell them you’ll research it further to determine its impacts.
C. Inform your customer that there is no problem with the additive except for an extremely small percentage of the population and release the product to them.
D. Tell the customer you’ll correct the reaction problems in the next batch, but you’ll release the first batch of product to them now to begin using.

Answer 57

B. Honesty and truthful reporting are required of PMP® credential holders. In this situation, you would inform the customer of everything you know regarding the problem
and work to find alternative solutions.
For more information, please see Chapter 12.

Question 58

You are performing alternatives analysis as part of the Define Scope process. Which of the following options is not true?
A. Alternatives analysis is a component of the data analysis tool and technique.
B. Alternatives analysis is used in the Plan Scope Management process and the Define Scope process.
C. Alternatives analysis involves unanimity, plurality, majority, and autocratic voting methods.
D. Brainstorming and lateral thinking are types of alternative analysis.

Answer 58

C. Option C describes voting methods that are used in the decision-making tool and technique. They are not part of alternatives analysis.
For more information, please see Chapter 3.

Question 59

The project manager has the greatest influence over quality during which process?
A. Plan Quality Management
B. Manage Quality
C. Control Quality
D. Monitor Quality

Answer 59

B. Manage Quality is the process where project managers have the greatest amount of influence over quality. For more information, please see Chapter 9.

Question 60

You are the project manager for a construction company that is building a new city and county office building in your city. You recently looked over the construction site to determine whether the work to date conformed to the requirements and quality standards.
Which tool and technique of the Control Quality process were you using?
A. Defect repair review
B. Inspection
C. Sampling
D. Quality audit

Answer 60

B. Inspection involves physically looking at, measuring, or testing results to determine whether they conform to your quality standards. For more information, please see Chapter 11.

Question 61

All of the following statements are true of the project Closing process group except for which one?
A. Probability for success is greatest in the project Closing process group.
B. The project manager’s influence is greatest in the project Closing process group.
C. The stakeholders’ influence is least in the project Closing process group.
D. Risk occurrence is greatest in the project Closing process group.

Answer 61

D. Risk occurrence is lowest during the Closing process group because you’ve completed the work of the project at this point. However, risk impacts are the greatest in the Closing process because you have much more at stake.
For more information, please see Chapter 12.

Question 62

You are refining the product description for your company’s new line of ski boots. Which of the following statements is true?
A. You are in the Initiating processes of your project and know that the product description will contain more detail in this stage and that a decreasing amount of detail will
be added to it as the project progresses.
B. You are in the Planning processes of your project and know that the product description will contain less detail in this stage and greater detail as the project progresses.
C. You are in the Planning processes of your project and know that the product description should contain the most detail possible at this stage because this is critical information
for the Planning process.
D. You are in the Initiating processes of your project and know that the product description will contain less detail in this stage and greater detail as the project progresses.

Answer 62

D. Product descriptions are used during the Initiating process group and contain less detail now and more detail as the project progresses. For more information, please see Chapter 1.

Question 63

Every status meeting should have time allotted for reviewing risks. Which of the following sentences is not true?
A. Risk identification and monitoring should occur throughout the life of the project.
B. Risk audits are performed during the Monitoring and Controlling phase of the project.
C. Risks should be monitored for their status and to determine whether the impacts to the objectives have changed.
D. Technical performance measurement variances may indicate that a risk is looming and should be reviewed at status meetings.

Answer 63

B. Risk audits should be performed throughout the life of the project, and you are specifically interested in looking at the implementation and effectiveness of risk strategies.
For more information, please see Chapter 11.

Question 64

The business need or demand that brought about the project, high-level scope description, analysis of the problem or opportunity the project presents, recommendation, and an evaluation
statement together describe elements of which of the following?
A. Organizational process assets
B. The feasibility study
C. The business case
D. The project charter

Answer 64

C. These elements are part of the business case used as an input (through the business documents input) to the Develop Project Charter process.
For more information, please see Chapter 2.

Question 65

Which of the following statements is true regarding constraints and assumptions?
A. Constraints restrict the actions of the project team, and assumptions are considered true for planning purposes.
B. Constraints are considered true for planning purposes, and assumptions limit the options of the project team.
C. Constraints consider vendor availability and resource availability to be true for planning purposes. Assumptions limit the project team to work within predefined budgets
or timelines.
D. Constraints and assumptions are inputs to the Initiation process. They should be documented because they will be used throughout the project Planning process.

Answer 65

A. Constraints limit the options of the project team by restricting action or dictating action. Scope, time, and cost are the three most common constraints, and each of these has an effect on quality. Assumptions are presumed to be true for planning purposes. Always validate your assumptions. For more information, please see Chapter 3.

Question 66

People are motivated by the need for achievement, power, or affiliation according to which theory?
A. Expectancy Theory
B. Achievement Theory
C. Contingency Theory
D. Theory X

Answer 66

B. Achievement Theory conjectures that people are motivated by the need for achievement, power, or affiliation. For more information, please see Chapter 8.

Question 67

As a result of a face-to-face meeting you recently had to discuss the items in your issue log, you have resolved issues, managed expectations, and come away with an action plan that will improve project performance and will also require an update to the communications management plan (part of the project management plan). Which process does this describe?
A. Manage Stakeholder Engagement
B. Monitor Communications
C. Manage Project Communications
D. Manage Project Team

Answer 67

A. The clues in this question are the face-to-face meetings resolving issues, managing expectations, and improving project performance, which are the primary purposes of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process. Project management plan updates include both the communications management plan and stakeholder engagement plan and are outputs of this process. For more information, please see Chapter 9.

Question 68

You’ve just completed the WBS. Which of the following statements is true?
A. The WBS breaks the project deliverables down to a level where alternatives identification can be used to determine how level-two assignments should be made.
B. The WBS breaks the project deliverables down to a level where project constraints and assumptions can be identified easily.
C. The WBS breaks the project deliverables down to the work package level, where product analysis can be documented.
D. The WBS breaks the project deliverables down to the work package level, where cost and time estimates can be easily determined.

Answer 68

D. The work package level is the lowest level in the work breakdown structure. Schedule and cost estimates are easily determined at this level.
For more information, please see Chapter 4.

Question 69

As a PMP® credential holder, one of your responsibilities is to ensure integrity on the project. When your personal interests are put above the interests of the project or when you use your influence to cause others to make decisions in your favor without regard for the project outcome, this is considered which of the following?
A. Conflict of interest
B. Using professional knowledge inappropriately
C. Culturally unacceptable
D. Personal conflict issue

Answer 69

A. A conflict of interest is any situation that compromises the outcome of the project or ignores the impact to the project to benefit yourself or others. For more information, please
see Chapter 12.

Question 70

Which of the following describes the Executing process group?
A. Project plans are put into action.
B. Project performance measurements are taken and analyzed.
C. Project plans are developed.
D. Project plans are published.

Answer 70

A. The Executing process group takes published project plans and turns them into actions to accomplish the goals of the project. For more information, please see Chapter 1.

Question 71

Which of the following statements regarding the ADM method is not true?
A. The ADM method can be used as a tool and technique when sequencing activities.
B. The ADM method uses one time estimate to determine durations.
C. The ADM method is also called AOA.
D. The ADM method is rarely used today.

Answer 71

B. The arrow diagramming method (ADM)—also called activity on arrow (AOA)—uses more than one time estimate to determine project duration. For more information, please
see Chapter 4.

Question 72

You are a project manager working on gathering requirements and establishing estimates for the project. Which process group are you in?
A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Initiating
D. Monitoring and Controlling

Answer 72

A. The Planning process group is where requirements are fleshed out and estimates on project costs and time are made. For more information, please see Chapter 3.

Question 73

According to the PMBOK® Guide, which of the following names all the components of an interactive communication model?
A. Encode, transmit, decode
B. Encode, transmit, decode, acknowledge, feedback/response
C. Encode, transmit, decode, feedback/response
D. Encode, transmit, acknowledge, decode

Answer 73

B. The components of the interactive communication model are encode, transmit, decode, acknowledge, and feedback/response. The basic communication model consists of the sender, message, and receiver elements. For more information, please see Chapter 5.

Question 74

Who is responsible for performing and managing project integration when using an Agile project management approach?
A. Team members
B. Product owner
C. Scrum master
D. Project manager

Answer 74

D. The project manager is responsible for performing and managing project integration whereas the project team members are responsible for planning, control, and delivery of the product. For more information, please see Chapter 2.

Question 75

These types of meetings are associated with the Agile project management methodologies. They occur at the beginning of an iteration. Team members choose items from the backlog list to work on during the iteration. What is this meeting called?
A. Iteration planning meeting
B. Sprint planning meeting
C. Retrospective planning meeting
D. Daily standup planning meeting

Answer 75

B. The Sprint planning meeting occurs at the beginning of an iteration or sprint. Team members choose the items from the backlog that they will work on in the upcoming sprint.
For more information, please see Chapter 1.

Question 76

Which of the following processes assesses the likelihood of risk occurrences and their consequences using a numerical rating?
A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
B. Identify Risks
C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Plan Risk Responses

Answer 76

C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis analyzes the probability of risks and their consequences using a numerical rating. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis might use numeric ratings but can use a high-medium-low scale as well. For more information, please
see Chapter 6.

Question 77

The Plan Procurement process applies evaluation criteria to bids and proposals and selects avendor. It also uses independent estimates to compare vendor prices. This is also known as
which of the following?
A. Independent comparisons
B. Analytical techniques
C. Should cost estimates
D. Expert judgment

Answer 77

C. Independent estimates are also known as should cost estimates. For more information, please see Chapter 7.