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PMI-100 CAPM > PMI-100Topic 5 > Flashcards

PMI-100Topic 5 Flashcards

1
Q

Q: 601 Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique used to shorten the project schedule without changing project scope. Which of the following can result from fast tracking? A. The risk of achieving the shortened project time is increased. B. The critical path will have positive total float. C. Contingency reserves are released for redeployment by the project manager. D. Duration buffers are added to maintain a focus on planned activity durations.

A

A: A

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2
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Q: 602 Requirements documentation requirements management plan and requirements traceability matrix are all outputs of which process? A. Control Scope B. Collect Requirements C. Create WBS D. Define Scope

A

A: B

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3
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Q: 603 Which of the following is a strategy to deal with positive risks or opportunities? A. Mitigate B. Transfer C. Exploit D. Avoid206

A

A: C

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4
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Q: 604 What are the identified risks for doing excessive decomposition in a WBS? A. Insufficient project funding and disqualification of sellers B. Insufficient project funding and ineffective use of resources C. Disqualification of sellers and non?productive management efforts D. Non?productive management effort and inefficient use of resources

A

A: D

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5
Q

Q: 605 Which statement is true about the project management body of knowledge? A. Recognized by every project manager B. Constantly evolving C. The sum of all knowledge related to project management D. A sum of knowledge that should be applied on every project

A

A: B

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6
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Q: 606 The initial development of a Project Scope Management plan uses which technique? A. Alternatives identification B. Scope decomposition C. Expertjudgment D. Product analysis

A

A: C207

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7
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Q: 607 Which of the following is a project constraint? A. Twenty?five percent staff turnover is expected. B. The technology to be used is cutting?edge. C. Project leadership may change due to volatile political environment. D. The product is needed in 250 days.

A

A: D

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8
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Q: 608 An input to the Estimate Activity Resources process is: A. Activity resource requirements. B. Published estimating data. C. Resource calendars. D. Resource breakdown structure (RBS).

A

A: C

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9
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Q: 609 The project budget is set at $150000. The project duration is planned to be one year. At the completion of Week 16 of the project the following information is collected: Actual cost = $50000 Plan cost = $45000 Earned value = $40000. What is the cost performance index? A. 0.8 B. 0.89 C. 1.13 D. 1.25

A

A: A208

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10
Q

Q: 610 Which technique is utilized in the Control Schedule process? A. Performance measure B. Baseline schedule C. Schedule network analysis D. Variance analysis

A

A: D

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11
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Q: 611 What happens to a stakeholder’s project influence over time? A. Increases B. Decreases C. Stays the same D. Has no bearing

A

A: B

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12
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Q: 612 Which is one of the determining factors used to calculate CPI? A. EV B. SPI C. PV D. ETC

A

A: A209

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13
Q

Q: 613 Which process requires implementation of approved changes? A. Direct and Manage Project Work B. Monitor and Control Project Work C. Perform Integrated Change Control D. Close Project or Phase

A

A: A

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14
Q

Q: 614 Which quality control technique illustrates the 80/20 principle? A. lshikawa diagram B. Control chart C. Run chart D. Pareto chart

A

A: D

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15
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Q: 615 At the end of the project what will be the value of SV? A. Positive B. Zero C. Negative D. Greater than one

A

A: B

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16
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Q: 616210 The process of identifying specific actions to be performed to produce project deliverables is: A. Define Activities. B. Create WBS. C. Define Scope. D. Develop Schedule.

A

A: A

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17
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Q: 617 What is project management? A. A logical grouping of project management inputs outputs tools and techniques B. Applying knowledge skills tools and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements C. Launching a process that can result in the authorization of a new project D. A formal approved document that defines how the project is executed monitored and controlled

A

A: B

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18
Q

Q: 618 Resource calendars are included in the: A. staffing management plan. B. work breakdown structure (WBS). C. project communications plan. D. project charter.

A

A: A

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19
Q

Q: 619211 Expected monetary value (EMV) is computed by which equation? A. Value of each possible outcome multiplied by probability of occurrence B. Value of each possible outcome multiplied by probability of non?occurrence C. Multiplying the value of each possible outcome by the probability of occurrence and adding the products together D. Multiplying the value of each possible outcome by the probability of non?occurrence and adding the products together

A

A: C

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20
Q

Q: 620 An input to the Collect Requirements process is the: A. stakeholder register. B. project management plan. C. project scope statement. D. requirements management plan.

A

A: A

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21
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Q: 621 Projects are separated into phases or subprojects; these phases include: A. feasibility study concept development design and prototype. B. initiate plan execute and monitor. C. Develop Charter Define Activities Manage Stakeholders Engagement and Control Communications. D. Identify Stakeholders develop concept build and test.

A

A: A

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22
Q

Q: 622212 In which type of contract are the performance targets established at the onset and the final contract price determined after completion of all work based on the sellers performance? A. Firm?Fixed?Price (FFP) B. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments (FP?EPA) C. Fixed?Price?lncentive?Fee (FPIF) D. Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)

A

A: C

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23
Q

Q: 623 Which of the following is an input to the Develop Project Charter process? A. Work performance information B. Project management plan C. Business case D. Change requests

A

A: C

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24
Q

Q: 624 The diagram below is an example of a: A. Risk breakdown structure (RBS). B. Project team. C. SWOT Analysis. D. Work breakdown structure (WBS).

A

A: A

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25
Q: 625 Who is responsible for initiating a project? A. Project sponsor B. Project manager C. Program manager D. Project management office (PMO)
A: A
26
Q: 626 Which type of diagram includes groups of information and shows relationships between factors causes and objectives? A. Affinity B. Scatter C. Fishbone D. Matrix
A: D
27
Q: 627 Activity cost estimates are quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to: A. Create WBS.214 B. complete project work. C. calculate costs. D. Develop Project Management Plan.
A: B
28
Q: 628 The item that provides more detailed descriptions of the components in the work breakdown structure (WB5) is called a WBS: A. dictionary. B. chart. C. report. D. register.
A: A
29
Q: 629 How should a stakeholder who is classified as high power and low interest be grouped in a power/interest grid during stakeholder analysis? A. Keep satisfied B. Keep informed C. Manage closely D. Monitor
A: A
30
Q: 630 The project has a current cost performance index of 0.80. Assuming this performance wi continue the new estimate at completion is $1000. What was the original budget at completion for the project?215 A. $800 B. $1000 C. $1250 D. $1800
A: A
31
Q: 631 Who determines which dependencies are mandatory during the Sequence Activities process? A. Project manager B. External stakeholders C. Internal stakeholders D. Project team
A: D
32
Q: 632 Risk exists the moment that a project is: A. planned. B. conceived. C. chartered. D. executed.
A: B
33
Q: 633 Which type of contract is a hybrid of both a cost?reimbursable and a fixed?price contract? A. Cost Plus Award Fee Contract (CPAF) B. Firm?Fixed ?Price Contract (FFP)216 C. Time and Material Contract (T&M) D. Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)
A: C
34
Q: 634 Which characteristics do effective project managers possess? A. Project management knowledge performance skills and personal effectiveness B. Preparedness project management knowledge and personality characteristics C. General management preparedness and project management knowledge D. Assertiveness collaboration and performance skills
A: A
35
Q: 635 In the basic communication model which term refers to the method that is used to convey the message? A. Decode B. Encode C. Medium D. Noise
A: C
36
Q: 636 During project selection which factor is most important? A. Types of constraints B. Internal business needs C. Budget217 D. Schedule
A: B
37
Q: 637 The staffing management plan is part of the: A. organizational process assets. B. resource calendar. C. human resource plan. D. Develop Project Team process.
A: C
38
Q: 638 Which is an output of the Collect Requirements process? A. Requirements traceability matrix B. Project scope statement C. WBS dictionary D. Work performance measurements
A: A
39
Q: 639 Which activity may occur at project or phase closure? A. Acceptance of deliverables B. Change requests C. Project management plan updates D. Benchmarking218
A: A
40
Q: 640 Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Work? A. Performance reports B. Project charter C. Outputs from planning processes D. Enterprise environmental factors
A: D
41
Q: 641 Using the three?point estimating technique if the most likely duration is four months the optimistic duration is two months and the pessimistic duration is one year how many months is the expected activity duration? A. Two B. Four C. Five D. Twelve
A: C
42
Q: 642 A project lifecycle is defined as: A. the series of phases that a project passes through from its initiation to its closure. B. a process required to ensure that the project includes all the work required and only the work required to complete the project successfully. C. a recognized standard for the project management profession. D. the application of knowledge skills tools and techniques to project activities to meet the ? 219 project requirements.
A: A
43
Q: 643 Control Procurements is part of which Process Group? A. Planning B. Executing C. Monitoring and Controlling D. Closing
A: C
44
Q: 644 The process to ensure that appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used is: A. Plan Quality Management. B. Perform Quality Assurance. C. Control Quality. D. Total Quality Management.
A: B
45
Q: 645 Which Process Group contains the processes performed to complete the work defined in the project management plan to satisfy the project specifications? A. Initiating B. Planning C. Executing D. Closing220
A: C
46
Q: 646 A project manager at a publishing company decides to initiate the editing phase of the project as soon as each chapter is written. Which type of Sequence Activities tool and technique is involved considering that there was a start?to?start relationship with a 15?day delay? A. Slack B. Float C. Lag D. Lead
A: C
47
Q: 647 The completion of the project scope is measured against the: A. requirements documentation. B. project scope statement. C. project management plan. D. work performance measurements.
A: C
48
Q: 648 The processes required to establish the scope of the project refine the objectives and define the course of action required to attain the objectives that the project has been undertaken to achieve are grouped within which Process Group? A. Initiating B. Planning C. Executing221 D. Monitoring and Controlling
A: B
49
Q: 649 Which input will be used when tasked with plnning human resource management? A. Project management plan B. Activity resource requirements C. Resource calendar D. Project staff assignments
A: B
50
Q: 650 Which of the following are an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Identify Risks process? A. Work performance reports B. Assumptions logs C. Network diagrams D. Academic studies
A: D
51
Q: 651 Which Control Scope input is compared to actual results to determine if corrective action is required for the project? A. Scope baseline B. Scope management plan C. Change management plan222 D. Cost baseline
A: A
52
Q: 652 Which process is responsible for monitoring the status of the project and product scope and managing changes to the scope baseline? A. Variance Analysis B. Define Scope C. Validate Scope D. Control Scope
A: D
53
Q: 653 The total of the planned value (PV) is also known as: A. work breakdown structure (WBS). B. schedule target. C. performance measurement baseline (PMB). D. earned value baseline.
A: C
54
Q: 654 When a permitting agency takes longer than planned to issue a permit this can be described as a risk: A. event. B. response C. perception.223 D. impact.
A: A
55
Q: 655 Plan?do?check?act is also known as: A. prevention over inspection. B. statistical sampling. C. management responsibility D. continuous improvement.
A: D
56
Q: 656 Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Determine Budget process? A. Variance analysis B. Three?point estimating C. Bottom?up estimating D. Historical relationships
A: D
57
Q: 657 The risk shared between the buyer and seller is determined by the: A. assumption log. B. quality checklist. C. risk register. D. contract type.224
A: D
58
Q: 658 The project management processes are usually presented as discrete processes with defined interfaces while in practice they: A. operate separately. B. move together in batches C. overlap and interact. D. move in a sequence.
A: C
59
Q: 659 The process for performing variance analysis may vary depending on: A. scenario building technology forecasting and forecast by analogy. B. working relationships among various stakeholders and team members. C. application area the standard used and the industry D. work to be completed next.
A: C
60
Q: 660 A tool and technique used during the Define Scope process is: A. facilitated workshops. B. observations. C. questionnaires and surveys. D. group creativity techniques.
A: A225
61
Q: 661 Which of the following response strategies are appropriate for negative risks or threats? A. Share Accept Transfer or Mitigate B. Exploit Enhance Share or Accept C. Mitigate Share Avoid or Accept D. Avoid Mitigate Transfer or Accept
A: D
62
Q: 662 Identify Stakeholders is the process of identifying all of the people or organizations impacted by the project and documenting relevant information regarding their interests in involvement in and impact on the project: A. manager. B. success. C. deadline. D. scope.
A: B
63
Q: 663 Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Acquire Project Team process? A. Networking B. Training C. Negotiation D. Issue log
A: C226
64
Q: 664 Which of the following change requests can bring expected future performance of the project work in line with the project management plan? A. Corrective action B. Defect repair C. Preventative action D. Probable action
A: A
65
Q: 665 The cost benefit analysis tool is used for creating: A. Pareto charts. B. quality metrics. C. change requests D. lshikawa diagrams.
A: B
66
Q: 666 Which of the following are three inputs to the risk register? A. Risk register updates stakeholder register and quality management plan B. Communication management plan enterprise environmental factors and activity duration estimates C. Risk management plan activity cost estimates and project documents D. Project scope statement organizational process assets and scope baseline
A: C227
67
Q: 667 An input of the Create WBS process is: A. requirements documentation. B. scope baseline. C. project charter. D. validated deliverables.
A: A
68
Q: 668 In Plan Risk Management which of the management plans determines who will be available to share information on various risks and responses at different times and locations? A. Schedule B. Quality C. Communications D. Cost
A: C
69
Q: 669 Under which type of contract does the seller receive reimbursement for all allowable costs for performing contract work as well as a fixed?fee payment calculated as a percentage of the initial estimated project costs? A. Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF) B. Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF) C. Firm Fixed Price Contract (FFP) D. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Contract (FP?EPA)228
A: A
70
Q: 670 Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique used in which process? A. Control Costs B. Determine Budget C. Estimate Costs D. Control Budget
A: B
71
Q: 671 Exhibit A is an example of which of the following types of Sequence Activities? A. Activity-on-arrow diagramming B. Precedence diagramming C. Project schedule network diagramming D. Mathematical analysis diagramming
A: B
72
Q: 672 Inputs to the Plan Risk Management process include the: A. project management plan. B. risk management plan C. activity list D. risk register.
A: A
73
Q: 673 Which of the following is an output of Define Scope? A. Project scope statement B. Project charter C. Project plan D. Project schedule
A: A
74
Q: 674 The correct equation for schedule variance (SV) is earned value: A. minus planned value [EV ? PV]. B. minus actual cost [EV ? AC]. C. divided by planned value [EV/PV] D. divided by actual cost [EV/AC].
A: A230
75
Q: 675 After Define Activities and Sequence Activities the next process is: A. Estimate Activity Resources. B. Estimate Activity Durations C. Develop Schedule. D. Control Schedule.
A: A
76
Q: 676 Which risk response strategy is common for both positive and negative risks? A. Share B. Accept C. Mitigate D. Transfer
A: B
77
Q: 677 Risk responses reflect an organization's perceived balance between: A. risk taking and risk avoidance. B. known risk and unknown risk. C. identified risk and analyzed risk. D. varying degrees of risk.
A: A231
78
Q: 678 The three processes of Project Cost Management are: A. Estimate Costs Control Schedule and Control Costs. B. Estimate Costs Determine Budget and Estimate Activity Resources. C. Determine Budget Control Schedule and Estimate Activity Resources. D. Estimate Costs Determine Budget and Control Costs.
A: D
79
Q: 679 Which of the following is an output of the Conduct Procurements process? A. Project statement of work B. Selected sellers C. Risk register updates D. Teaming agreements
A: B
80
Q: 680 The technique of subdividing project deliverables into smaller more manageable components until the work and deliverables are defined to the work package level is called: A. a control chart. B. baseline. C. Create WBS. D. decomposition.
A: D232
81
Q: 681 Which baselines make up the performance measurement baseline? A. Scope baseline cost baseline and schedule baseline B. Scope baseline project management baseline and quality baseline C. Cost baseline schedule baseline and risk baseline D. Cost baseline project management baseline and schedule baseline
A: A
82
Q: 682 The application of knowledge skills tools and techniques to project activities to meet project requirements describes management of which of the following? A. Project B. Scope C. Contract D. Program
A: A
83
Q: 683 Prototype development may be used as a tool for which of the following risk response strategies? A. Avoid B. Accept C. Mitigate D. Exploit
A: C
84
Q: 684233 Which index is the calculated projection of cost performance that must be achieved on the remaining work to meet a specified management goal? A. Estimate at completion B. Cost performance C. Schedule performance D. To?complete performance
A: D
85
Q: 685 A tool and technique used during the Collect Requirements process is: A. prototypes. B. expert judgment. C. alternatives identification. D. product analysis.
A: A
86
Q: 686 One of the objectives of a quality audit is to: A. highlight the need for root cause analysis. B. share the process documentation among stakeholders. C. offer assistance with non?value?added activities. D. identify all of the gaps or shortcomings.
A: D
87
Q: 687 While preparing the project management plan on a weekly basis the project manager indicates ? 234 the intention to provide an issues report to the staff via e?mail. In which part of the plan will this type of information be included? A. Communications management plan B. Human resource plan C. Quality management plan D. Procurement management plan
A: A
88
Q: 688 Which tool or technique can a project manager use to select in advance a team member who will be crucial to the task? A. Acquisition B. Negotiation C. Virtual team D. Pre?assignment
A: D
89
Q: 689 Which of the following is a group decision?making technique? A. Brainstorming B. Focus groups C. Affinity diagram D. Plurality
A: D
90
Q: 690235 Which statement correctly describes the value of a business case? A. It provides the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required investment. B. It provides for alternative dispute resolution procedures in event of contract default. C. It offers one of several alternative scenarios which assist in performing qualitative risk analysis. D. It is used to help a project manager understand the scope of commercial advantages.
A: A
91
Q: 691 Which of the following includes how requirements activities will be planned tracked and reported? A. Configuration management plan B. Scope baseline C. Requirements management plan D. Schedule baseline
A: C
92
Q: 692 Which type of dependency is contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work? A. External B. Lead C. Discretionary D. Mandatory
A: D
93
Q: 693 The contract in which the seller is reimbursed for all allowable costs for performing the contract work and then receives a fee based upon achieving certain performance objectives is called a: ? 236 A. Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF). B. Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF). C. Fixed Price Incentive Fee Contract (FPIF). D. Time and Material Contract (T&M).
A: A
94
Q: 694 The process improvement plan details the steps for analyzing processes to identify activities which enhance their: A. quality. B. value. C. technical performance. D. status.
A: B
95
Q: 695 When cost variance is negative and schedule variance is positive the project is: A. under budget and behind schedule. B. over budget and ahead of schedule. C. on schedule. D. complete; all planned values have been earned.
A: B
96
Q: 696 Which of the following is an estimating technique that uses the values of parameters from previous similar projects for estimating the same parameter or measure for a current project?237 A. Reserve analysis B. Three?point estimating C. Parametric estimating D. Analogous estimating
A: D
97
Q: 697 The group technique that enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas for prioritization is called the: A. majority rule technique. B. nominal group technique. C. Delphi technique D. idea/mind mapping technique.
A: B
98
Q: 698 At which stage of team development do members begin to work together adjust work habits and trust each other? A. Forming B. Storming C. Norming D. Performing
A: C
99
Q: 699 Which of the following can be used as an input for Define Scope?238 A. Product analysis B. Project charter C. Scope baseline D. Project scope statement
A: B
100
Q: 700 A project manager has created an issue log to document issues communicated by project team members during weekly team meetings. This is an input of: A. Manage Stakeholders Engagement. B. Monitor and Control Risks. C. Plan Risk Management. D. Control Communications.
A: A
101
Q: 701 Which of the following is a tool and technique used to monitor risk? A. Technical performance measurement B. Cost performance baseline C. Benchmarking D. Cost of quality
A: A
102
Q: 702 Which of the following is a statistical concept that calculates the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen?239 A. Sensitivity analysis B. Three?point estimate C. Modeling and simulation D. Expected monetary value analysis
A: D
103
Q: 703 Which of the following is an output of Close Procurements? A. Accepted deliverables B. Organizational process assets updates C. Managing stakeholder expectations D. Performance reports
A: B
104
Q: 704 The probability and impact matrix is primarily used to: A. Quantify risk issues for trends during a quality audit. B. Develop a risk register for risk planning. C. Evaluate each risk?s importance and priority during Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis. D. Define risk and compare impacts during Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis.
A: C

PMI-100 CAPM (5 decks)

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